Cybersecurity Fundamentals
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Course Introduction
Cybersecurity Fundamentals introduces students to the essential concepts, principles, and practices necessary to protect information systems from cyber threats. The course covers topics such as the basics of computer and network security, risk management, cryptography, authentication, access control, and security policies. Students will examine various types of cyber attacks, vulnerabilities, and defense mechanisms, learning both theoretical foundations and practical skills. Emphasis is placed on understanding ethical and legal considerations, as well as the importance of ongoing vigilance in maintaining the security and integrity of digital assets across a range of environments.
Recommended Textbook
CompTIA Security Guide to Network Security Fundamentals 6th Edition by Mark Ciampa
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15 Chapters
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750 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term below is frequently used to describe the tasks of securing information that is in a digital format?
A)network security
B)information security
C)physical security
D)logical security
Answer: B
Q2) Which position below is considered an entry-level position for a person who has the necessary technical skills?
A)security technician
B)security administrator
C)CISO
D)security manager
Answer: A
Q3) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act restricts electronic and paper data containing personally identifiable financial information.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Malware and Social Engineering Attacks
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Sample Questions
Q1) What social engineering principal frightens and coerces a victim by using threats?
A)intimidation
B)authority
C)urgency
D)scarcity
Answer: A
Q2) What type of structure is used to provide instructions to infected bot computers?
A)client-server
B)hive
C)bot herder
D)command & control
Answer: D
Q3) How does a rootkit work?
Answer: A rootkit infects a computer and hides its presence from the operating system so that the rootkit files are not visible to the operating system.
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4
Chapter 3: Basic Cryptography
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Sample Questions
Q1) If using the MD5 hashing algorithm,what is the length to which each message is padded?
A)32 bits
B)64 bits
C)128 bits
D)512 bits
Answer: D
Q2) What widely used commercial asymmetric cryptography software can be used for encrypting files and email messages?
A)PGP
B)GPG
C)EFS
D)GNUPG
Answer: A
Q3) What four basic protections can cryptography support?
Answer: Cryptography can support confidentiality,integrity,authentication,and non-repudiation.
Q4) What characteristics are needed to consider a hashing algorithm secure?
Answer: The hashing algorithm must be a fixed size and unique,original,and secure.
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Chapter 4: Advanced Cryptography and PKI
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a cryptographic key?
Q2) SSL v3.0 served as the basis for TLS v1.0.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What term best represents the resiliency of a cryptographic key to attacks?
A)key bits
B)key resiliency
C)key strength
D)key space
Q4) A user electronically signs a Certificate Signing Request (CSR)by affixing their public key and then sending it to an intermediate certificate authority.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Why is IPsec considered to be a transparent security protocol?
A)IPsec packets can be viewed by anyone.
B)IPsec is designed to not require modifications of programs,or additional training,or additional client setup.
C)IPsec's design and packet header contents are open sourced technologies.
D)IPsec uses the Transparent Encryption (TE)algorithm.
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Chapter 5: Networking and Server Attacks
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Sample Questions
Q1) The return address is the only element that can be altered in a buffer overflow attack.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of attack intercepts communication between parties to steal or manipulate the data?
A)replay
B)MAC spoofing
C)man-in-the-browser
D)ARP poisoning
Q3) An attack that takes advantage of the procedures for initiating a session is known as what type of attack?
A)DNS amplification attack
B)IP spoofing
C)smurf attack
D)SYN flood attack
Q4) JavaScript cannot create separate stand-alone applications.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does a cross-site scripting (XSS)attack work?
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Chapter 6: Network Security Devices, Design, and Technology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which network address below is not a private IP address network?
A)10.4.5.0
B)172.63.255.0
C)192.168.255.0
D)172.17.16.0
Q2) When a private network uses a single public IP address,and each outgoing TCP packet uses a different port to allow for proper translation,what networking technology is in use?
A)PAT
B)PNAT
C)NAPT
D)NAT
Q3) What is the difference between anomaly based monitoring and signature based monitoring?
Q4) What type of network is a private network that belongs to an organization that can only be accessed by approved internal users?
A)extranet
B)intranet
C)enterprise network
D)guest network
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Chapter 7: Administering a Secure Network
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Q1) TCP/IP uses its own four-layer architecture that includes the Network Interface,Internet,Transport,and Application layers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are the two types of community strings?
Q3) Which layer of the OSI model contains the TCP protocol,which is used for establishing connections and reliable data transport between devices?
A)Application Layer
B)Presentation Layer
C)Network Layer
D)Transport Layer
Q4) When using SNMPv1 or SNMPv2,what piece of information is needed to view information from an agent?
A)entity
B)community string
C)MIB
D)OID
Q5) List the steps of a DNS lookup.
Q6) Discuss at least two security advantages of a host running virtualization.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Wireless Network Security
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Q1) Near field communication (NFC)is a set of standards used to establish communication between devices in very close proximity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The current Bluetooth version is Bluetooth 6.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the most common type of wireless access control?
Q4) What is the maximum number of characters that can exist within a SSID name?
A)10
B)12
C)26
D)32
Q5) When using AES-CCMP,the AES-256 bit key requires how many rounds?
A)4
B)10
C)13
D)15
Q6) What are the four types of packets used by EAP?
Q7) Describe a piconet.
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Chapter 9: Client and Application Security
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Q1) What monitors emails for spam and other unwanted content to prevent these messages from being delivered?
A)mail gateway
B)firewall
C)router gateway
D)code emulation
Q2) How is the UEFI Secure Boot security standard designed to combat BIOS attacks?
Q3) Describe a mantrap.
Q4) An automated patch update service is used to manage patches within the enterprise instead of relying on the vendor's online updates.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is provisioning?
Q6) Which of the following is an AV heuristic monitoring technique?
A)code emulation
B)environment scanning
C)code monitoring
D)OS simulation
Q7) What are some of the advantages to an automated patch update service?
Q8) What is a multi-functional device (MFD)?
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Chapter 10: Mobile and Embedded Device Security
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Q1) How is the coverage area for a cellular telephony network usually divided in a typical city?
A)Hexagon shaped cells.
B)Square square shaped cells.
C)Triangle shaped cells.
D)Circular shaped cells.
Q2) List at least three things that can be done in order to reduce the risk of theft or loss of a mobile device.
Q3) What type of software is specifically designed for a SoC in an embedded system?
A)SCADA
B)HVAC
C)ICS
D)RTOS
Q4) An embedded system is computer hardware and software contained within a smaller system that is designed for a specific function.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe some of the risks associated with using mobile devices in an enterprise environment.
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Chapter 11: Authentication and Account Management
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Q1) What option below represents an example of behavioral biometrics?
A)user dynamics
B)keystroke dynamics
C)facial recognition
D)fingerprint recognition
Q2) How does a retina scanner work?
Q3) What federation system technology uses federation standards to provide SSO and exchanging attributes?
A)OAuth
B)Open ID Connect
C)Windows Live ID
D)Shibboleth
Q4) Hash algorithms like MD5 and SHA are considered secure for creating digests because these hashing algorithms are designed to create a digest as strong as possible.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between multifactor authentication and single-factor authentication?
Q6) What smartcard standard is used to cover all U.S.government employees?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Access Management
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Q1) When LDAP traffic is made secure by using Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)or Transport Layer Security (TLS),what is this process called?
A)SAML
B)LDAPS
C)TACACS
D)SDML
Q2) Select the XML standard that allows secure web domains to exchange user authentication and authorization data and is used extensively for online e-commerce transactions.
A)SAML
B)LDAPS
C)TACACS
D)SDML
Q3) The X.500 standard defines a protocol for a client application to access an X.500 directory known as which of the following options?
A)DIB
B)DAP
C)DIT
D)LDAP
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Vulnerability Assessment and Data Security
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Q1) What is another term used for a security weakness?
A)threat
B)vulnerability
C)risk
D)opportunity
Q2) Which of the following is used to replicate attacks during a vulnerability assessment by providing a structure of exploits and monitoring tools?
A)replication image
B)assessment image
C)penetration framework
D)exploitation framework
Q3) Which scan examines the current security,using a passive method?
A)application scan
B)system scan
C)threat scan
D)vulnerability scan
Q4) Each packet/datagram contains a source port and destination port.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and describe the three categories that TCP/IP divides port numbers into.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Business Continuity
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Q1) What RAID type is based on striping,uses multiple drives,and is not fault tolerant if one of the drives fails?
A)RAID 0
B)RAID 1
C)RAID 2
D)RAID 5
Q2) A disaster recovery plan is developed for restoring the IT functions and services to their former state.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A snapshot of the data is essentially a series of "reference markers" of the data at a specific point in time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is required upon completion of an evidence examination?
Q5) A business continuity plan will help determine the mission-essential function or the activity that serves as the core purpose of the enterprise.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Risk Mitigation
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Q1) A collection of suggestions that should be implemented is referred to as a:
A)security policy
B)baseline
C)guideline
D)security procedure
Q2) What is the name for a framework and corresponding functions required to enable incident response and incident handling within an organization?
A)incident reporting
B)incident management
C)incident handling
D)incident planning
Q3) What control is designed to identify any threat that has reached the system?
A)preventive control
B)compensating control
C)detective control
D)deterrent control
Q4) Explain the concept of change management.
Q5) Contrast the difference between a pedagogical approach versus an andragogical approach to subject matter.
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