Critical Care Respiratory Therapy Lab
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Critical Care Respiratory Therapy Lab provides students with hands-on experience in the assessment, monitoring, and management of critically ill patients requiring respiratory support. Through practical exercises and simulations, students learn to apply advanced techniques such as mechanical ventilation, airway management, arterial blood gas analysis, and emergency interventions in a controlled laboratory setting. Emphasis is placed on interpreting clinical data, troubleshooting equipment, and collaborating effectively with interdisciplinary healthcare teams to optimize patient outcomes in critical care environments.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Clinical Lab Competencies for Respiratory Care An Integrated Approach 5th Edition by Gary
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
29 Chapters
851 Verified Questions
851 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2030 Page 2
Chapter 1: Basics of Asepsis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40335
Sample Questions
Q1) Place in the proper sequence the donning of personal protective equipment aseptically.
I.Application of the mask
II.Application of the gown
III.Application of the gloves
A) I., II., III.
B) II., I., III.
C) III., II., I
D) I., III., II.
Answer: A
Q2) Respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette applies to patients,visitors,and practitioners with symptoms of respiratory illness and includes________________ A) education of the facility staff, patients, and visitors.
B) posted signage with appropriate instructions.
C) control measures.
D) all of these.
Answer: D
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 3
Chapter 2: Basic Patient Assessment: Vital Signs and Breath
Sounds
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40336
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient comes to the emergency department in respiratory distress.What should be evaluated to assess the patient's distress?
Answer: Immediate evaluation of the patient should be done through observation of the patient's general appearance,color,respiratory effort,diaphoresis,neck vein distension,peripheral edema,clubbing of the digits,nasal flaring,breath sounds,and chest movement.The vital signs should be assessed quickly to determine the patient's heart rate,respiratory rate and pattern,blood pressure,body temperature,and pulse oximetry.An ECG and a chest x-ray can be performed to help determine if the distress is from pulmonary or cardiac causes though there is a time element due to proper personnel notification.These can all be assessed quickly and non-invasively.Next,invasive techniques should used to help determine the cause of the distress.Blood evaluation that can be done to determine the cause of the distress include arterial blood gases,white blood cell count,electrolytes,and complete blood count.A sputum sample can be sent to the lab for culture.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
4
Chapter 3: Advanced Patient Assessment: Inspection, Palpation, and Percussion
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40337
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of breathing pattern is characterized by the diaphragm descending and the ribs moving up and out anteriorly and laterally and is the result of discoordinated motion of various parts of the chest wall and/or abdomen?
A) Kussmaul's respirations
B) Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C) Biot's respirations
D) Paradoxical breathing
Answer: D
Q2) Upon percussing the patient's chest,a dull percussion note is heard over the left lower lobe.What other findings would be expected to be found over the left lower lobe?
Answer: A dull percussion note is heard over areas containing a greater proportion of tissue or fluid than of air.This occurs in the lungs as a result of consolidation,atelectasis,or the presence of fluid in the pleural space.Breath sounds would be diminished in the area of the dull percussion note.There would be increased vocal fremitus.Chest movement would lag on the left side of the thoracic cavity due to diminished air entry.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 5
Chapter 4: Radiologic Assessment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40338
Sample Questions
Q1) How can the practitioner tell if the chest radiograph is overpenetrated (overexposed)with x-ray energy?
A) The spinal processes will just barely be distinguishable from one another
B) The lung fields will appear white
C) The carina will be distinguishable
D) Dark lines will clearly separate the spinal processes
Q2) What is described by a consolidated lung region that demonstrates an increased radiodensity that appears lighter than the surrounding lung fields?
A) Atelectasis
B) Consolidation
C) Pneumothorax
D) Hyperinflation
Q3) On a chest x-ray interpretation from a patient's chart,the radiologist notes that the right costophrenic angle is blunted.What does this indicate?
A) A right pleural effusion
B) Atelectasis of the right lung
C) Consolidation in the right lower lobe
D) Subcutaneous emphysema in the right lung
Q4) What can be evaluated on a chest radiograph besides the heart and lungs?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 6
Chapter 5: Pulmonary Function Testing
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40339
Sample Questions
Q1) If a patient's minute volume is measured at 3 LPM,which of the following would you expect to be present?
I.Hypoxemia
II.Hypocapnia
III.More gas exchange at the alveolar level
A) I only
B) I, II, III
C) II and III
D) II only
Q2) Which of the following would be used to measure a patient's tidal volume and minute volume?
A) Peak flowmeter
B) Manometer
C) Respirometer
D) Mini-Wright device
Q3) Why are three pulmonary function test trials performed for simple spirometry and flow volume loops and how should the results be reported?
Q4) A patient comes to the PFT lab to get an annual pulmonary function test.What factors would cause changes in the results from year to year?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 7
Chapter 6: Electrocardiography
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40340
Sample Questions
Q1) What is located by palpating the patient's sternal angle?
A) Fourth intercostal space
B) The xiphoid process
C) Second intercostal space
D) Mid clavicular line
Q2) Which of the following waves in an ECG tracing represents atrial depolarization?
A) 'P' wave
B) 'QRS'complex
C) 'T' wave
D) 'U' wave
Q3) Leads I,II,and III and the augmented leads are _______ containing both a positive and negative electrode whereas the precordial leads are _________ and are helpful in the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction.
A) bipolar; unipolar
B) unipolar; bipolar
C) tripolar; bipolar
D) synchronized; asynchronized
Q4) The patient wants an exercise EKG.To ensure the electrodes stay remain in the proper position,what precautions should be taken?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 8
Chapter 7: Phlebotomy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40341
Sample Questions
Q1) If a needle stick occurs,what is the first step the needle stick victim should take?
A) Test the patient for communicable disease
B) Press hard enough on the stick site to increase perfusion
C) Notify the supervisor
D) Read the exposure control policy
Q2) What is the therapist's obligation to the lab related to the performance of phlebotomy?
A) Use of aseptic techniques to prevent contamination of the specimen.
B) Labeling each blood sample correctly with the patient's identification.
C) Properly dress the blood draw site after the sample is drawn
D) a and b
Q3) What is the key to maintaining a safe work environment?
A) Patient
B) Supervisor
C) Exposure control policy
D) Physician
Q4) How can the phlebotomist enhance sites to draw blood from a patient?
Q5) How does the phlebotomist gain the confidence of the patient for a blood draw?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 9
Chapter 8: Arterial Blood Gas Sampling
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40342
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following patient considerations for arterial blood gas sampling is NOT correct?
A) It is important to assess if the patient is receiving the proper oxygen therapy before doing the puncture
B) Check the circulation proximal to the puncture site and for any bleeding at the site 20 to 30 minutes after the procedure.
C) It is important to check the patient's chart for a physician's order for anticoagulant therapy before arterial sampling.
D) A physician's order is required before performing this procedure.
Q2) Why should a capillary blood draw NOT be performed on infants less than 24 hours old?
A) Because of possible nerve damage
B) Increased risk of infection
C) Because fetal hemoglobin prematurely clots the blood
D) Poor peripheral perfusion
Q3) How should the practitioner ensure that the arterial line's measured blood pressure is accurate?
Q4) What should the practitioner teach the patient concerning an arterial line?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 10
Chapter 9: Hemodynamic Monitoring
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40343
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has a CVP reading of 12 mmHg.What does this indicate?
A) Hypervolemia
B) Hypovolemia
C) Decreased right ventricular preload
D) Increased left atrial preload
Q2) The hemodynamic data are recorded from a pulmonary artery catheter on a patient who is being mechanically ventilated.
\( \begin{array}{lc}\text { Cardiac Output } & 2.5 \mathrm{~L} / \mathrm{min} \\ \text { PAP } & 22 / 10 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { PCWP } & 2 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { CVP } & 1 \mathrm{mmHg} \\ \text { HR } & 125 / \mathrm{min}\end{array} \)
How should the practitioner interpret this data and what treatment should be recommended?
Q3) Which catheter is a 'flow directed' catheter?
A) Central venous catheter
B) Pulmonary artery catheter
C) Radial artery catheter
D) a and b
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
11
Chapter 10: Noninvasive Monitoring
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40344
Sample Questions
Q1) What electrode does the transcutaneous O monitor incorporate into its design?
A) Clark electrode
B) Severinghaus electrode
C) Sanz electrode
D) Reference electrode
Q2) What noninvasive monitoring technique should be used to help confirm the ET tube is in the proper position?
A) Capnography
B) Transcutaneous C02 monitoring
C) Pulse oximetry
D) Transcutaneous 02 monitoring
Q3) A patient being monitored by pulse oximetry has a reading of 82%.The patient's color is good,the respiratory rate is 16/minute,and the heart rate is 88/minute.Routine daily arterial blood gases (ABG)are drawn and analyzed which reveal; PaO 90 mmHg,PaCO 37 mmHg,pH 7.38.An CO-oximeter is also used for analyzation and reveals; SaO 95%,Hb 13.5 g/dl,metHb 0.3%,HbCO 0.5%.Explain the difference between the two readings.
Q4) How does the pulse oximeter measure O saturation in the capillary bed?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
12
Chapter 11: Documentation and Goals Assessment
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40345
Sample Questions
Q1) Why are the medical record is used by third-party payers?
A) For patient information for future care
B) To assist physician's diagnose patients
C) For purposes of reimbursement
D) To provide patient's a copy of their chart
Q2) Which part of the chart contains temperature,pulse,respiration,blood pressure,urine output,oral intake (fluids),and daily weights?
A) Physician's Orders
B) History and Physical Examination
C) Multidisciplinary Records
D) Graphic Record
Q3) A patient was given a respiratory treatment by a practitioner who did not chart the treatment immediately on the patient's chart due to an excessive workload.Ultimately,the treatment was not charted on the medical record.What problem is associated with the therapist's judgement?
Q4) A patient with COPD who has oxygen and a nebulizer at home is ready to be discharged.The practitioner enters the patient's room to reinforce previous directions.The patient states he knows how to use the home care devices and how they are to be used.How should the practitioner proceed with the instructions?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 13
Chapter 12: Oxygen Supply Systems
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40346
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of 'cracking' a cylinder before use?
A) This primes the system with oxygen so there is no air mixed in with the oxygen with the first part of the gas delivered to the patient.
B) This removes any dust, or particulate matter, from the outlet of the cylinder valve.
C) It causes the regulator to become pressurized precisely to 50 psi before gas is delivered to the patient.
D) It pressurizes the cylinder to make sure it will not leak and compensate for the cylinder until the cylinder is hydrostatically tested.
Q2) You are going to transport a patient to the MRI department for a MRI scan.The patient is on a non-rebreathing mask at 15 LPM.The procedure will last approximately 60 minutes.What equipment should the practitioner gather for the transport?
Q3) Which cylinder valve is found on gas cylinders containing less than 1500 psi of pressure?
A) Direct-acting cylinder valve
B) Stem valve
C) Diaphragm cylinder valve
D) Outlet valve
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 14
Chapter 13: Oxygen Administration
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40347
Sample Questions
Q1) If an oxygen delivery device mixes 10 LPM of air to 1 LPM of oxygen,approximately what FIO is delivered by this device?
A) 24%
B) 28%
C) 30%
D) 35%
Q2) What is the primary indication for oxygen therapy?
A) Severe trauma
B) Acute myocardial infarction
C) Hypoxemia
D) Short-term therapy
Q3) Which type of oxygen analyzer uses an oxidation-reduction reaction to measure the FO of an oxygen sample?
A) Galvanic oxygen analyzer
B) Polarographic oxygen analyzer
C) Electrical oxygen analyzer
D) a and b
Q4) During oxygen rounds,a patient on a nasal cannula has an oxygen saturation of 89%.No flow is felt coming from the device.What could be the problem?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 15
Chapter 14: Introduction to Respiratory Care Pharmacology
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40348
Sample Questions
Q1) A small volume nebulizer is ordered for a patient on a mechanical ventilator.To prevent condensation and secretions from draining into the nebulizer and contaminating it,what could be done?
Q2) Which of the following drugs stabilize mast cells?
A) Ipratropium
B) Cromolyn sodium
C) Albuterol
D) Fluticasone
Q3) An aerosol drug is ordered on a patient in MDI form.The propellant causes a reflex bronchospasm in the patient.What can be done?
Q4) Stimulation of the beta 2 receptors causes ___________________
A) peripheral vasoconstriction and mild bronchoconstriction in the lungs.
B) tachycardia, an increased potential for arrhythmias, and an increased cardiac output. C) bronchodilation.
D) peripheral vasodilation, bradycardia, and decreased cardiac output.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 15: Humidity and Aerosol Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40349
Sample Questions
Q1) When utilizing a Brigg's adaptor to connect the aerosol unit to a tracheostomy tube,a 6 inch piece of wide-bore tubing should be attached to the adaptor opposite the aerosol tubing coming from the nebulizer.What is the purpose of this tubing?
A) To maintain a constant FIO
B) To collect expectorated secretions from the patient
C) To act as a reservoir for the couplant
D) To decrease the risk of contamination from aerosolized droplets
Q2) What is defined as is water in gaseous form,or vapor?
A) Humidity
B) Aerosol
C) Humidity deficit
D) Barometric pressure
Q3) If a gas is fully saturated with water vapor (100% saturated),what can be stated about the gas?
A) It is at body humidity.
B) It is at maximum humidity.
C) The relative humidity is 50%.
D) The temperature of the gas is 37°C.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
17
Chapter 16: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40350
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient positioned on their back is placed in which position?
A) Trendelenburg.
B) Lateral.
C) Supine.
D) Prone.
Q2) The left lung has ____ lobes and the right lung has ______ lobes.There are ____ bronchopulmonary segments total in both lungs.
A) three, two, twelve
B) two, three, eighteen
C) two, three, twelve
D) three, three, eighteen
Q3) Abnormal chest x-ray consistent with atelectasis and mucus plugging,rhonchi suggesting secretions in the airways,and excessive sputum production would establish the need for:
A) positioning.
B) postural drainage therapy.
C) chest clapping.
D) bronchodilator therapy.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
18
Chapter 17: Hyperinflation Therapy
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40351
Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory care department puts you in charge of the hyperinflation monitoring committee.What should be monitored to determine the type and the effectiveness of the hyperinflation therapy?
Q2) Which of the following is an absolute contraindication of IPPB therapy?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Radiographic evidence of blebs
C) Pneumothorax with a functioning chest tube
D) a and c
Q3) Which control would increase the tidal volume delivered to the patient on a pressure ventilator (e.g.Bird Mark 7)?
A) Tidal volume
B) Flow rate
C) Pressure
D) Sensitivity
Q4) During IPV how is the peak inspiratory pressure determined?
A) Measuring the heart rate
B) Measuring the respiratory rate
C) Observing the pressure manometer
D) Auscultate the breath sounds
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 19
Chapter 18: Bronchoscopy Assisting
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40352
Sample Questions
Q1) Bronchoscopy is commonly performed for two reasons:
A) identification and assessment.
B) bronchoscopic and radiographic.
C) therapeutic and diagnostic.
D) cytological and infection control.
Q2) Which of the following are indications of fiberoptic bronchoscopies?
I.The need to reevaluate persistent pulmonary infiltrates
II.The need for aid in difficult intubations
III.The need to obtain upper respiratory tract secretions
IV.Negative sputum cytology results with diagnosed cancer elsewhere in the body
A) III and IV
B) II only
C) I and II
D) I, II, III, and IV
Q3) A patient has just had a bronchoscopy procedure performed.What precautions and instructions should you give the patient following the procedure?
Q4) The practitioner being oriented on the pediatric unit finds that one of the duties she will be performing will be helping with bronchoscopy procedures.Why would bronchoscopies be performed on pediatric patients?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 20
Chapter 19: Equipment Processing and Surveillance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40353
Sample Questions
Q1) How should equipment flow through an equipment processing facility?
A) Flow through the facility is only one directional
B) Flow should in and out through the same door
C) Flow of equipment should be from the storage side to the cleaning side of the facility
D) Flow should go from a room on a lower level to a room on a higher level
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a main area of an equipment processing facility?
A) Decontamination
B) Processing
C) Storage
D) Manufacture
Q3) Which sterilization/disinfection method requires an aeration times period after the method?
A) Ethylene oxide
B) Pasteurization
C) Steam autoclave
D) Glutaraldehyde
Q4) A serious H1N1 influenza outbreak takes place in a skilled care facility.Outline the isolation methods and treatments that should be implemented to help prevent the spread of the virus.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 21
Chapter 20: Emergency Airway Management
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40354
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient requires an airway to prevent the tongue from occluding the airway.The patient lapses in and out of conscious periodically.Which airway would be best to use for the patient?
A) Oropharyngeal airway
B) Combitube airway
C) Nasopharyngeal airway
D) Laryngeal mask airway
Q2) All of the following are conditions requiring management of the airway EXCEPT
A) secretions in the airway.
B) respiratory failure.
C) airway compromise.
D) the need to protect the airway.
Q3) What is the most important consideration in determining endotracheal tube position?
A) Depth of the endotracheal tube
B) Bilateral breath sounds
C) Symmetrical chest movement
D) Detection of esophageal intubation
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 22
Chapter 21: Artificial Airway Care
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40355
Sample Questions
Q1) Before suctioning a patient,you notice that no suction pressure is being generated at the end of the suction catheter when you attempt to suction sterile water through the catheter.What could be causing the problem?
Q2) A patient on mechanical ventilation is suctioned.The patient's heart rate decreases from 120/minute before the procedure to 66/minute after the procedure.What is the cause of this decrease in the heart rate?
A) Tissue trauma
B) Vagus nerve stimulation
C) Hyperventilation of the patient
D) Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
Q3) When using a fenestrated tracheostomy tube to facilitate weaning the patient from the tracheostomy tube,what procedure(s)should be performed?
A) The cuff should be deflated
B) The inner cannula should be removed
C) The minimum occluding volume should be done
D) a and b
Q4) You cannot pass the suction catheter down the endotracheal tube on an intubated patient.What should you do and how would you correct the problems?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 23
Chapter 22: Chest Tubes
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40356
Sample Questions
Q1) If the water level in the water seal chamber is too low,what can be the hazard to the patient?
A) More vacuum is applied to the patient's thoracic cavity
B) Increases the risk of entry of atmospheric air into the patient's thoracic cavity
C) It makes it more difficult for air or fluid to drain
D) A leak can occur in the drainage system
Q2) After insertion of a chest tube,how should the position of the chest tube be assessed?
A) By auscultating the patient's chest
B) By percussing the patient's thoracic cavity
C) By having the patient cough and observing the drainage chamber bottle
D) By obtaining a chest radiograph
Q3) Which part/chamber of the chest tube regulates the vacuum to the patient's chest to drain an empyema?
A) Collection chamber
B) Water seal chamber
C) Chest tube tubing
D) Suction control chamber
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 23: Insertion and Maintenance of Intravenous Lines
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40357
Sample Questions
Q1) A 0.225% NaCl solution is classified as which type of solution?
A) Hypotonic solution
B) Hypertonic solution
C) Isotonic solution
D) Lactated Ringer's solution
Q2) What is inflammation of the vein called?
A) Phlebitis
B) Cellulitis
C) Thrombosis
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q3) If a blood pressure cuff is used as a tourniquet,how should the cuff be inflated?
A) To the maximum pressure of the cuff.
B) It is inflated to a pressure 20 to 30-mm Hg below the systolic pressure.
C) The same as the patient's diastolic pressure.
D) To 20 to 30 mmHg.
Q4) What happens to the small air bubbles that pass through the IV tubing and enter into the patient?
Q5) You are asked to start an IV on a 94 year-old,115 lb (52.3 kg)patient.What precautions,if any,should you take with this geriatric patient?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 25
Chapter 24: Noninvasive Positive-Pressure Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40358
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a nasal mask for NPPV?
A) Improved verbal communication
B) Decreased risk of aspiration
C) Ability to eat and drink
D) Improved humidification
Q2) A patient on a full face mask on noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV)is swallowing air and having trouble exhaling due to a leak around the naso-gastric (NG)tube.What can be done?
Q3) A patient is placed on noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation (NPPV).The patient is on a nasal mask and is having trouble keeping his mouth closed due to tachypnea and dyspnea.Breath sounds are diminished bilaterally.The patient is also complaining of nasal dryness.What should be done to help the patient?
Q4) A patient develops a bronchospasm during NPPV.What will happen to the delivered Vt if the set pressure remains the same?
A) It will remain the same
B) It will decrease
C) It will increase
D) The set Vt will vary inversely with the delivered Vt
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 26
Chapter 25: Continuous Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40359
Sample Questions
Q1) Myasthenia gravis,amyotrophic lateral sclerosis,Gullain-Barre syndrome,spinal cord injuries,and multiple sclerosis may all lead to respiratory failure due to
A) interference with the neurotransmission to the ventilatory muscles.
B) failure of the respiratory pump.
C) loss of nervous signals to contract for ventilation.
D) all of the above.
Q2) How does a practitioner measure airway resistance on a ventilator?
Q3) The high and low minute volume alarm is used to ______________________
A) identify hypoventilation and hyperventilation.
B) prevent changing of the tidal volume setting.
C) measure the patient's spontaneous respiratory efforts.
D) alert the staff when there is a change of 5-10 lpm.
Q4) A practitioner should not use the assist ventilation mode in which of the following conditions?
A) Asthmatic patient prior to extubation
B) Congestive heart failure after delivery of diuretics
C) Resolving pneumonia
D) Post-operative abdominal surgery with sedation
Q5) How is tubing compliance determined?
Page 27
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 26: Advanced Modes of Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40360
Sample Questions
Q1) Which primary control variable will result in flow and pressure being variable in the presence of changing airway resistance or lung compliance?
A) Pressure
B) Volume
C) Flow
D) Time
Q2) Current guidelines for use of inverse ratio ventilation recommend which of the following?
A) Hypoinflation of the alveoli should be managed with 300 mL tidal volume
B) Do not use more than 50% O to avoid hyperoxygenation
C) Keep PIP less than 30 cmH2O to avoid ventilator induced lung injury
D) Avoid respiratory rates above 20 bpm to allow reduction of PIP
Q3) Mandatory minute volume is described by which of the following?
A) It is a totally assist mode used to wean a patient from the ventilator.
B) If patient does not breathe target minute volume ventilator will make up difference.
C) It is a control mode that requires the patient to breathe a target minute volume.
D) It uses set mandatory breaths with spontaneous tidal volume breaths.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Chapter 27: Wave Form Analysis
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40361
Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory care practitioner is unable to determine by watching the chest if a patient has spontaneous breath efforts.On the graphic display,the practitioner can note that ___________________
A) mandatory breaths are often smaller and inconsistent.
B) spontaneous breaths have square wave pressure curves.
C) spontaneous breaths are more variable and have smaller pressures.
D) mandatory breaths have an oscillating wave form.
Q2) A breath that rises and then remains at a specific cmH O pressure for varying lengths of inspiratory is which type of breath?
A) Spontaneous
B) Volume control
C) Pressure support
D) Pressure control
Q3) Positive end expiratory pressure is identified on a pressure-time display by
A) noting the amount below the baseline pressure.
B) the rise in the baseline pressure.
C) using inspiratory hold.
D) checking the amount on the ventilation record.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.
Page 29
Chapter 28: Weaning and Discontinuance of Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40362
Sample Questions
Q1) How do respiratory conditions result in ventilator dependence?
Q2) The respiratory therapist notices the mechanically ventilated patient's work of breathing is increased due to the resistance caused by the artificial airway.This problem can be reduced using _______________
A) BiPAP.
B) ATC.
C) PRVC.
D) PEEP.
Q3) Which of the following are factors that affect the respiratory system's ability to do work?
I.Airway resistance
II.Respiratory muscle function
III.Lung compliance
A) I, II and III
B) I and III
C) II only
D) II and III
Q4) How do cardiovascular problems result in ventilator dependence?
Page 30
Q5) What should the respiratory therapist do if the patient does not pass the SBT?
Q6) How do neurological problems result in ventilator dependence?
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 31
Chapter 29: Neonatal Mechanical Ventilation
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/40363
Sample Questions
Q1) When mechanically ventilating a neonate,traditionally how is inspiration terminated?
A) After a preset volume is delivered
B) After a preset time interval has passed
C) After a preset pressure is reached
D) Once flow decreases to 25% of initial peak flow
Q2) Transillumination is which of the following?
A) Used to reduce bilirubin
B) A technique to detect a pneumothorax in newborns
C) The light reflecting from the ventilator
D) Used to identify pulmonary secretions
Q3) Which of the following is a complication due to high PaO levels?
A) Barotrauma
B) Retinopathy of prematurity
C) Reduced intracranial pressure
D) Subcutaneous emphysema
Q4) Describe how the initial newborn ventilator setting are determined for mode,rate and flow rate.
Q5) Describe how the initial newborn ventilator alarm setting are determined.
Q6) Describe the 5 characteristics of the Apgar scoring system.
Page 32
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above.