

Contemporary Environmental Issues
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Contemporary Environmental Issues examines current challenges impacting the Earth's environment, including climate change, pollution, biodiversity loss, resource depletion, and urbanization. The course explores scientific, political, economic, and ethical perspectives on these issues, encouraging students to analyze causes, consequences, and potential solutions at local, national, and global levels. Through case studies, discussions, and critical analysis, students will develop an understanding of the interconnectedness of human activities and natural systems, as well as the role of policy, technology, and society in building a more sustainable future.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Jeneen InterlandI
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Page 2

Chapter 1: Environmental Literacy and the Goal of
Sustainability - on the Road to Collapse: What Lessons Can We Learn From a Vanished Viking Society
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Q1) Which situation best describes the tragedy of the commons?
A) A fisherman uses his net to catch a large quantity of fish.
B) Increasing amounts of pesticides need to be used over time to maintain the same effect on pests.
C) An oil pipeline leaks.
D) Sustainable forestry practices are applied to a plot of land in the rainforest.
E) Herders put too many sheep in a public field because they think "If I don't use this available resource, someone else will."
Answer: E
Q2) How would you go about convincing a company to switch to renewable sources of energy?
Answer: There are a growing number of companies that are obtaining more of their energy from renewable sources of energy. You would need to explain how switching to renewable sources of energy will save money over the long term and also how the switch will result in less pollution and improvement to the health of the workers and the environment.
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Chapter 2: Science Literacy and the Process of Science-
Science and the Sky: Solving the Mystery of the Disappearing Ozone
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Q1) When it rains, you often notice people outside holding open umbrellas. You hypothesize that opening an umbrella causes rain to fall. What type of experiment can be used to test this? Explain what is meant by the phrase "correlation is not causation."
Answer: Although the appearance of rain and open umbrellas is correlated, it is not clear yet if one variable is causing the other to happen. We need an experimental study to test if rain is causing people to open umbrellas or if opening an umbrella causes rain to fall. "Correlation is not causation" means that just because two things happen at the same time does not mean that one is caused by the other.
Q2) Explain what the precautionary principle is and how it was applied during the formation of the Montréal Protocol?
Answer: The precautionary principle is acting in the face of uncertainty when there is a chance that serious consequences might happen. The Montréal Protocol used the precautionary principle to outline a series of deadlines for reducing the production of CFCs before definitive studies were published explaining the harmful effects of CFCs on ozone.
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Page 4

Chapter 3: Information Literacy:toxic Bottles on the Trail of
in Our Everyday Lives- Human Populations and Environmental Health
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Q1) The claims that BPA must be completely avoided or it is totally safe for everyone are which type of common logical fallacy?
A) hasty generalization
B) red herring
C) ad hominem attack
D) false dichotomy
E) appeal to ignorance
Answer: D
Q2) Refer to Infographic 3.2. What is biomagnification? Use the figure to explain how predatory fish higher on the food chain are more likely to suffer health problems compared to organisms lower on the food chain.
Answer: Biomagnification is the process by which animals that are higher up on the food chain eat other animals that have accumulated toxins in their bodies. The higher organisms consume their prey's entire lifetime dose of toxins. The predatory fish ends up with a much higher dose of the toxin than it would have bioaccumulated directly from the water.
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Chapter 4: Human Populations- One Child China Grows Up:
a Country Faces the Outcomes of Radical Population Control
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Q1) What is the "4-2-1" conundrum, and why do demographers fear it?
A) Compared with the top, there are four times as many people on the bottom of the age pyramid and two times as many in the middle. Demographers fear that that the population will explode.
B) In China there are four grandparents and two parents but only one child to support them all when they retire.
C) In China in 1982, 1% of the population was over 65. In 1996 it was 2%, and now 4% of the population is over 65. The result is that there are more older people to support.
D) In China, 4% of the population works, 2% are underage, and 1% are retired. Demographers fear this will reverse.
E) Worldwide, one in four females gets an education and one in two males gets an education. Demographers fear that women will have no other option then to have children.
Q2) Why would airlifting crates of condoms and dropping them over African countries with high total fertility rates not be a successful strategy at slowing global population growth rates? What factors need to be considered, beyond making contraceptives available?
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Chapter 5: Environmental Health- Eradicating a Parasitic
Nightmare: Human Health Is Intricately Linked to the Environment- Consumption and the Environmental
Footprint
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Q1) What is one way to prevent Guinea worm disease (GWD)?
A) Educate the human population about GWD and ways to prevent it.
B) Kill copepods with pesticides.
C) Drink filtered water.
D) Avoid immersing GWD blisters in water.
E) All of the above are ways to prevent GWD.
Q2) Why does urbanization sometimes lead to the increased incidence of waterborne pathogen infections?
Q3) What might be some reasons why diarrheal disease is not one of the top 10 causes of death in high-income countries?
Q4) Why is it difficult to map cause-and-effect relationships of human hazards and disease?
Q5) Unfortunately, many environmental hazards are not modifiable.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Refer to Infographic 5.5. Of the prevention methods mentioned in the graphic, which do you think would have the largest impact on Guinea worm disease (GWD) Page 7
Q7) Why is Guinea worm disease (GWD) not a zoonotic disease?
Q8) Why do you think 75% of all emerging infectious diseases are zoonotic?
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8

Cradle: a Leading Carpet Company
Takes a Chance on Going Green
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Q1) What is the monetary value attributed to essential ecosystem services? Who calculated this value, and how can it be useful to place a monetary value on ecosystem services?
Q2) A(n) ________ for a country is the amount of land needed to provide its resources and assimilate its waste.
A) closed-loop system
B) external cost
C) ecological footprint
D) ecolabel
E) ecosystem service
Q3) Refer to Infographic 6.5. Why is it important to consider the cost to an ecosystem when purchasing a product as well as considering the price of the object or service?
Q4) _________ include manufacturing costs, labor, taxes, utilities, insurance, and rent.
A) Internal costs
B) External costs
C) Safety costs
D) Potential costs
E) True costs
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Chapter 7: Managing Solid Waste- a Plastic Surf: Are the Oceans
Teeming With Trash- Ecology
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Q1) One of the cheapest and most common methods of handling solid wastes in developing countries is _________.
A) sanitary landfills
B) incinerators
C) recycling
D) open dumps
E) composting
Q2) Refer to Infographic 7.2. From the diagram of a sanitary landfill, describe potential environmental issues associated with landfills and what steps are taken to protect the environment.
Q3) _________ require(s) manufacturers to take back some of their products after consumers are finished with them.
A) Cradle-to-cradle laws
B) Take back laws
C) De-manufacturing
D) Reuse laws
E) Reduction laws
Q4) Waste that is not disposed of correctly may end up in the oceans. How can we reduce the amount of waste that ends up in the oceans?
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Ecosystems and Nutrient Cycling- Engineering
Earth: an Ambitious Attempt to Replicate Earths Life
Support Systems Goes Awry
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Q1) In the carbon cycle, photosynthetic organisms use carbon dioxide to produce
A) sugar molecules
B) lipid molecules
C) protein molecules
D) nucleic acids
E) protons
Q2) The zone of __________ is the portion of an environmental gradient within which the species survives, grows, and reproduces the best.
A) intolerance
B) tolerance
C) optimum range
D) physiological stress
E) limiting factors
Q3) How have humans impacted the carbon cycle, and how can humans use nature to address this issue?
Q4) As you hike up a mountain, you observe that the vegetation changes. What are some of the limiting factors that are determining what vegetation you observe on the mountain?
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Chapter 9: Population Ecology- the Wolf Watchers:
Endangered Gray Wolves Return to the American West
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Q1) The minimum viable population is _____________.
A) the smallest number of individuals that allows the population to survive long term
B) the smallest number of populations required to make up an ecosystem
C) the same number of individuals for each population
D) the smallest area required for a mating ritual
E) the smallest flock size that would protect against predators
Q2) Fire can be an effective bottom-up regulator.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A population at low density is more likely to _____________.
A) undergo high intraspecific competition
B) lose genetic variability
C) be randomly distributed
D) show rapid rates of disease spread
E) adapt to environmental changes
Q4) How might the fact that a threatened prairie plant you are in charge of managing is an r-selected species influence the way you manage the population?
Q5) Why is weather considered to be a density-independent factor?
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Q6) Why would a clumped distribution be an advantage for a bee-pollinated plant?

Reveals the Intricacies of a
Threatened Ecosystem- Biodiversity and Evolution
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Q1) What is the term given to the amount of primary productivity available for energy transfer up the food web-gross primary productivity or net primary productivity-and how do they differ?
Q2) Phytoplankton live on the ocean surface, capturing sunlight and converting it to energy. Tiny shrimp eat the phytoplankton as a food source. Small fish eat the shrimp as food. The interaction between the phytoplankton, shrimp, and fish is a good example of
A) a food web
B) a food chain
C) trophic levels
D) both b and c
E) none of the above
Q3) Human impact has reduced the original Everglades by approximately _____.
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 90%
Q4) Why are invasive species so damaging to ecosystems?
Q5) Why are decomposers and detritivores essential members of any ecosystem? Page 13
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Page 14

Chapter 11: Evolution- a Tropical Murder Mystery: Finding the Missing Birds of Guam
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Q1) The nation of Guam used to be home to 18 native avian species. By the 1980s, four species of birds had gone extinct and 10 others were in danger of extinction. What caused this to happen? What evidence was found to support this?
Q2) Which type of natural selection would favor the norm of a population and select against extremes?
A) stabilizing selection
B) directional selection
C) disruptive selection
D) individual selection
E) unnatural selection
Q3) ________ are stretches of DNA that influence traits of an individual.
A) Proteins
B) Imprints
C) Genes
D) Founders
E) Constraints
Q4) Why is the sixth mass extinction event different from previous mass extinction events, and why is it so important?
Q5) What are four observations that natural selection is based on?
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Chapter

Ingredient Is Wreaking Havoc on
Wildlife Across the Globe
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Q1) Why are biodiversity hotspots important?
Q2) Why is increased genetic diversity tied to an increased chance of survival for populations?
Q3) Habitat fragmentation can be detrimental to species because:
A) populations of the same species may be separated and would no longer be able to mate.
B) there are no livable habitats left after fragmentation.
C) it increases the chance that species will breed with other species out of necessity.
D) it decreases the isolation of particular populations.
E) it encourages genetic diversity, which leads to species diversity.
Q4) Habitat destruction only affects the species that live in that habitat.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the largest human-caused threat to biodiversity?
A) pollution
B) introduction of invasive species
C) illegal trade of animal body parts
D) habitat destruction
E) fair trade practices
Page 16
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Page 17

Chapter 13: Reserving Biodiversity- a Forest Without
Elephants: Can We Save One of Earths Iconic Species-
Water Resources
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Q1) The loss of nearly one-third of all plants and animal species on Earth would directly affect human societies.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) protects endangered species through conservation of natural habitats.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is one way a consumer might impact the conservation of species and their habitats?
A) being educated about local and global conservation issues
B) buying sustainably produced products
C) using fewer resources
D) reducing carbon emissions
E) all of these answers
Q4) What information can be obtained through DNA fingerprinting, and why is it important that DNA fingerprinting be done using microsatellite DNA regions? What is special about these regions?
Q5) In which protected area do you think an endangered species would best thrive? Page 18
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Page 19

Chapter
14: Freshwater Resources- Toilet to Tap: a
California County Is Employing a Controversial Method toSupply Drinking Water
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Q1) Desalination, the process that removes ________________ from water, is
A) bacteria; cheap
B) salt and other minerals; expensive
C) pollution; a biomimicry process
D) sewage; mandated by the federal government
E) organic matter; facilitated by reverse osmosis
Q2) Refer to Table 14.1. Explain how using less energy saves water.
Q3) To ensure an ongoing water source, communities construct _____________, which in turn create ______________.
A) wetland sewage filtration systems; reservoirs
B) reservoirs; aquifers
C) dams; reservoirs
D) water tables; aquifers
E) reverse osmosis plants; dams
Q4) Predict whether the water table would be higher or lower in New Mexico at the height of summer.
A) higher
B) lower
Q5) Why are two sets of marshes used in the Arcata wetland sewage treatment system? Page 20
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Page 21

Chapter 15: Water Pollution-
Zone, Far Upstream- Food Resources
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Q1) What do healthy riparian areas provide?
A) a quick path for water to enter the river or lake
B) filtration of runoff water before it enters the river or lake
C) excellent surfing conditions
D) optimal areas for industrial construction
E) increased hypoxic conditions
Q2) Let's say you become interested in studying the amount of water pollution in a stream that runs through your backyard. Without special equipment, how could you perform a biological assessment on the stream?
Q3) The difference between point source and nonpoint source pollution is that:
A) point source pollution sources can be identified while nonpoint source pollution sources are more obscure.
B) point source pollution sources can always be remedied.
C) nonpoint source pollution is due to improper chemical storage.
D) nonpoint source pollution is located next to the body of contaminated water.
E) None of the above are correct.
Q4) Is eutrophication typically a point source or nonpoint source pollution type?
A) point source
B) nonpoint source
C) It is neither.
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Food
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Q1) What is the relationship between the Green Revolution and industrial agriculture?
A) The Green Revolution focuses on sustainable, organic farming methods while industrial agriculture focuses on chemicals and technology.
B) The Green Revolution increased food production in less developed nations while industrial agriculture increased food production in more developed nations.
C) The Green Revolution focuses only on naturally available crops while industrial agriculture focuses on high-yield varieties of crops.
D) The Green Revolution took practices from industrial agriculture-like pesticide use, irrigation technologies, and high-yield crops-and brought them to developing nations like China and India.
E) The Green Revolution focuses on small-scale, family-owned farms while industrial agriculture focuses on multi-farm corporate companies.
Q2) Even though it is counterintuitive, how can overnutrition, the consumption of too many calories, be a problem for people of lower economic means?
Q3) Why are many European countries opposed to the use of GMOs?
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Page 23

Chapter 17: Agriculture- Farming Like an Ecosystem:
Creative Solutions to Feeding the World- Conventional Energy: Fossil Fuels
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Q1) As the human population continues to grow, we increase our demand for food.
Describe how we can meet increased food demand in a way that is sustainable for the long term.
Q2) What is an advantage of growing perennial crops?
A) increased soil erosion
B) increased soil fertility
C) decreased irrigation need
D) the ability to grow in any environment
E) There are no advantages over growing annual crops.
Q3) In sustainable agriculture _________ is to soil erosion as ____________ is to soil fertility.
A) strip cropping; contour farming
B) terrace farming; crop rotation
C) cover cropping; reduced tillage
D) contour farming; terrace farming
E) crop rotation; windbreaks
Q4) Refer to Infographic 17.4. Use the infographic to describe integrated farming at Takao Furuno's duck/rice farm.
Q5) Refer to Infographic 17.6. Which methods increase soil fertility, and why? Page 24
Q6) What are some potential hazards to using biological methods of pest control?
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Chapter

Rubble, the True Costs of Coal
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Q1) The first form of coal that is created from submerged vegetation, pressure, and heat is ____________________.
A) peat
B) anthracite
C) lignite
D) bituminous
E) none of these answers
Q2) Which type of mining, surface or subsurface, has a greater impact on the environment, and why?
Q3) Which of the following choices has the highest energy return on energy investment ratio?
A) coal
B) oil
C) nuclear energy
D) natural gas
E) wind
Q4) Even though coal is produced by natural processes of the Earth, why is it classified as a "nonrenewable resource'?
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Q5) How is acid mine drainage formed, and what are its effects on the environment?
Consequences of Using Fossil Fuels
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Q1) If all sources of oil, unconventional or not, in the United States were equally economically feasible to harvest, which source would be most profitable?
A) conventional oil
B) conventional natural gas
C) fracking natural gas
D) oil sands
E) kerogen shale
Q2) Natural gas is similar to oil in that it _________________.
A) has a similar extraction method
B) contains impurities before it is refined
C) has a similar processing method
D) is found deep under the ground
E) all of these answers
Q3) Explain what an oil shale is and what its potential is as an energy source.
Q4) What are some of the chemicals used in fracking?
A) antifreeze
B) disinfectants
C) acetaldehyde
D) hydrochloric acid
E) all of these answers

Page 27
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Chapter 20: Air Pollution- the Youngest Scientists: Kids on the Frontlines
of Asthma Research
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Q1) Which statement about acid deposition is TRUE?
A) Acid deposition is a local problem in that only areas that produce air pollution feel the effects of acid deposition.
B) Acid deposition only occurs through rain, snow, or fog.
C) Acid deposition causes plants to take up the now available aluminum, which is detrimental to the plant.
D) Acid deposition causes the pH level to rise in affected lakes.
E) All of these answers are true statements.
Q2) According to Kirk Smith, a professor of environmental health at the University of California, Berkeley, "Current estimates are that indoor fires cause the premature death of 1.5 to 2 million women and children per year." What simple solution is being widely promoted to reduce this risk of death?
A) preparing meals using solar cookers
B) switching from wood to burning crop waste as a fuel source
C) adding more windows to houses as a source of ventilation
D) passing a green tax to make homeowners pay for their pollution
E) providing asthma inhalers to children under the age of 12
Q3) Why is ground-level ozone considered to be an air pollutant while stratospheric ozone is not? How is it formed?
Page 29
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Chapter 21: Climate Change- When the Trees Leave:
Scientists Grapple With a Shifting Climate- Alternatives to Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Since climatologists started keeping records in 1850, the warmest decade globally was:
A) 1850 to 1860.
B) 1950 to 1960.
C) 1980 to 1990.
D) 1990 to 2000.
E) 2000 to 2010.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT directly contribute to sea level rise?
A) melting of land-based ice
B) melting of sea ice
C) thermal expansion of water
D) melting of glaciers
E) all of these answers
Q3) Which of the following choices is NOT evidence for the recent changes in global climate?
A) a single weather event like a hurricane.
B) prairies giving way to deserts in Africa and the American West.
C) coral reefs dying off.
D) earlier springs and later winters.
E) more and longer heat waves.

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Chapter

Nuclear Energy Overcome Its Bad Rep
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 22.6. Three types of radiation are given off by radioactive isotopes. Name each one, describe their penetration ability, and explain if and how they are hazardous to humans.
Q2) Which of the following choices could be composed of 92 protons and 146 neutrons?
A) uranium-235
B) uranium-238
C) plutonium-241
D) none of these answers
E) plutonimum-236
Q3) The time it takes for half of the radioactive isotopes in a sample to decay to a new form is known as its ___________________.
A) isotope
B) radioactivity
C) radioactive half-life
D) nuclear energy
E) none of these answers
Q4) What is the half-life of a radioactive isotope, and how long is it?
Q5) Explain how using uranium as a fuel to produce energy is an advantage as far as availability goes versus the availability of fossil fuels.
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Chapter 23: Sustainable Energy for Stationary Sources-

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Q1) __________________ cells convert solar energy directly into electricity.
A) Passive
B) Photovoltaic
C) Active
D) Thermoelectric
E) None of these answers
Q2) Refer to Table 23.2. What does "payback time" mean in terms of conservation of energy?
A) how long it takes to pay for an appliance or new technology at today's interest rates
B) how long it takes for the savings to equal the original cost of the technology
C) how long it takes to find investors for the new technology
D) the amount of money required for the development of the technology
E) the amount of time before the manufacturer starts to make a profit
Q3) What are the advantages and disadvantages to using straw to heat homes versus other more conventional heating fuels?
Q4) Currently, fossil fuels meet most of the energy needs of the United States. Why do experts say that in the future no one renewable source will dominate as fossil fuels do today?
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Chapter

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Q1) In the 1960s and 1970s:
A) it became more difficult to demonstrate that a toxin from a particular source was responsible for harming life.
B) federal legislators saw regulation as an impediment to economic growth.
C) most environmental problems were addressed after the fact through litigation.
D) oil release into coastal waters was first banned.
E) environmental problems in one state started affecting other states more often.
Q2) In the United States, government officials selected to regulate an industry are often chosen from a pool of industry executives because they possess detailed knowledge of that industry that other candidates lack and therefore can best regulate it. What unintended consequences might this arrangement result in?
Q3) A(n) _____________ problem is one that extends across state and national boundaries.
A) transboundary
B) environmental
C) adaptive
D) national
E) political
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Chapter 25: Environmental Policy
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Q1) ________________, which promotes the creation of compact, mixed-use communities, with all of the amenities for day-to-day living close by and accessible, can _______________ urban residents.
A) Infill development; improve environmental justice for B) Green building; increase energy efficiency and thus reduce CO emissions of C) Environmental justice; ensure affordability, even in the face of increasing property values, for
D) New urbanism; reduce the ecological footprint of E) Smart growth; reduce traffic congestion and thus improve air quality for
Q2) In the 1960s urban flight resulted in many banks ruling certain sections of cities off-limits to any type of investment. What was this practice called?
A) bluelining
B) redlining
C) greenlining
D) urban planning
E) rezoning
Q3) Refer to Infographic 25.6. Explain at least three of the ways to create a sustainable city.
Q4) Explain the patterns in the development of megacities from midcentury to 2030.
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Chapter

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Q1) Compared with surface mining techniques, subsurface mining:
A) disturbs more land.
B) produces larger amounts of solid waste.
C) targets renewable resources.
D) is more dangerous.
E) targets horizontal seams located near the surface.
Q2) Which of the following correctly lists the layers of Earth, starting with the core?
A) lithosphere - mantle - asthenosphere
B) asthenosphere - mantle - lithosphere
C) mantle - lithosphere - asthenosphere
D) mantle - asthenosphere - lithosphere
E) lithosphere - asthenosphere - mantle
Q3) From Infographic 26.4, list and explain which mining technique would be considered most dangerous to the miner.
Q4) illustrates how rocks constantly form and are transformed in the rock cycle. Since minerals are the building blocks of rocks, why are minerals considered nonrenewable resources?
Q5) Explain why minerals are not distributed evenly throughout the planet's lithosphere.
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Chapter 27: Learned After the Fact
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Q1) Which of the following statements are correct?
A) Grasslands are not found in Antarctica.
B) Grasslands are found in every continent.
C) Grasslands vary based on climate.
D) Both A and C are correct.
E) Both B and C are correct.
Q2) Humans rely upon grasslands to graze domestic livestock. How would degradation of grasslands impact grazing, and what affect would this have on humans?
Q3) Live stock ranchers often reach legal agreements with governments that permit them to use an area of land in a defined manner. These agreements are known as
A) reserves
B) shelter belts
C) rotational grazing permits
D) conservation easements
E) none of these answers
Q4) Human activity has caused the degradation of grasslands. How has grassland degradation in turn affected humans?
Q5) What are some of the important ecosystem services provided by grasslands?
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Chapter 28: Optional Chapters Available in Launchpad
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 28.2. Which of the following would NOT be an effect of a tree falling down in the local forest?
A) Increased sunlight could cause saplings to quickly grow, trying to take its place.
B) More niches would be opened up.
C) Decomposers and scavengers would make a home in the fallen tree.
D) Wildflowers would not bloom.
E) Shade-adapted species might be detrimentally affected.
Q2) The term for trees that lose their leaves on an annual basis is __________________.
A) emergent
B) temperate
C) deciduous
D) boreal
E) coniferous
Q3) Why might forest management be considered a "wicked problem"?
Q4) The United States was one of a few countries that had a net increase in forested areas between the years 2005 and 2010. What are some of the reasons why the United States saw an increase, and how could this increase have had a negative impact on other countries?
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Chapter 29: Mineral Resources and Mining
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Q1) When lionfish invade a coral reef, the survival rate of native fish can decline by as much as ______.
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 40%
D) 60%
E) 80%
Q2) Lower pH affects which coral developmental stage/process?
A) fertilization
B) larval development
C) settlement
D) A, B, and C
E) none of these answers
Q3) It is estimated that ______ of all ocean species spend some portion of their life in a coral reef.
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
E) 90%
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Chapter 30: Rare Earth Elements: a Bevy of Unfamiliar
Minerals Are Crucial for Our Everyday
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Q1) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) oversees which aspect of agriculture?
A) the administration of antibiotics to animals
B) pesticide application
C) greenhouse-gas emissions from livestock
D) subsidies for grain purchased by feedlots
E) the regulation of wastewater treatment
Q2) According to Infographic 30.2, what is the relationship between income and consumption of meat for most nations? How is Japan different? Why do you think Japan is an outlier?
Q3) In terms of how much energy input is required to produce food, it is more energetically efficient to consume which of the following?
A) steak
B) milk
C) tuna
D) eggs
E) broccoli
Q4) What was the rationale for the original U.S. Farm Bill? What was it designed to do?
Q5) List and describe several ethical issues involved with raising animals in CAFOs.
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Q6) Do sustainable animal rearing methods address the disadvantages of CAFOs?
Chapter

and Grassland Resources
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with net pen and pond aquaculture?
A) use of antibiotics and pesticides
B) disruption of human life in coastal communities
C) escape of non-native or GMO species
D) large amounts of waste released into the environment
E) increased rates of disease and parasites relative to wild fish
Q2) What role do fish play in human diets? What drives consumption of fish in poorer and wealthier countries?
Q3) Which of the following is an obstacle that recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) will need to overcome if they are to become more widespread?
A) efficiency
B) expensive start-up costs
C) productivity
D) sustainability
E) all of these answers
Q4) How is aquaculture similar to a tree plantation?
Q5) Explain the difference between a marine-protected area and a marine reserve.
Page 41
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Chapter 32: Restoring the Range: the Key to

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Q1) Bioethanol that is produced by breaking down cellulose in plants is called
A) cellulosic ethanol
B) starch ethanol
C) plant ethanol
D) cellulose sequestering
E) cellulosic sequestering
Q2) What unintended consequence(s) could arise from government subsidies, tax breaks, or mandates that support biofuel production?
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a benefit of switching from corn ethanol to cellulosic ethanol?
A) the potential to circumvent the food controversy by not occupying land that could support food crops
B) the resistance to many pests and plant diseases
C) the requirement of less fertilizer
D) the consumption of less energy for production
E) the ease of scaling up production
Q4) Explain why there is a critical need for development of biofuels.
Q5) What is biowaste? Describe the benefits of converting waste into energy.
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