Conservation Biology Question
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Course Introduction
Conservation Biology explores the scientific principles and practical approaches used to preserve biodiversity and protect endangered species and ecosystems. The course covers topics such as the causes and consequences of species extinction, the genetic and ecological factors that influence population dynamics, and strategies for habitat conservation and restoration. Students will also examine the impact of human activity on natural environments and discuss ethical, economic, and policy considerations in conservation efforts, integrating case studies from local and global contexts to develop effective biodiversity management solutions.
Recommended Textbook
Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World 2nd Edition by Jeneen InterlandI
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Chapter 1: Environmental Literacy and the Goal of
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Q1) Why are nonliving things included in the definition of an environment?
Answer: Nonliving things, like rocks, water, and oxygen, are included in the definition of an environment because, although they are not living, they still have a tremendous impact on the organic things that do live in that environment. Imagine an environment that contains several species of fish, some of which suddenly start to die off. Now let's say this die off is caused by the temperature of the water rising in this environment. If we didn't consider water to be part of an environment, we would not know to test the water for the possible cause of the fish dying.
Q2) Coal, natural gas, and oil are examples of ___________.
A) renewable resources
B) nonrenewable resources
C) alternative forms of energy
D) infinite resources
E) unlimited resources
Answer: B
Q3) What does an environment include?
Answer: An environment includes the biological (living) and physical (nonliving) surroundings in which any given living organism exists.
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Chapter 2: Science Literacy and the Process of Science-
Science and the Sky: Solving the Mystery of the Disappearing Ozone
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Q1) Which form of ultraviolet (UV) radiation is important in the formation of ozone?
A) UV-A
B) UV-B
C) UV-C
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
Answer: C
Q2) An ongoing process that allows for altering policy strategies as new information is discovered or the situation itself changes is an example of __________.
A) precautionary principle
B) peer review
C) adaptive management
D) level of certainty
E) innocent until proven guilty
Answer: C
Q3) Why is the term "ozone hole" misleading?
Answer: Ozone is still present over Antarctica and the Arctic, but it is present in reduced quantities or concentration. A thinning of the ozone layer would be a more accurate description.
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Chapter 3: Information Literacy:toxic Bottles on the Trail of
Populations and Environmental Health
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Q1) What is the difference between bioaccumulation and biomagnification?
A) Bioaccumulation is mainly fat-soluble chemicals, while biomagnification involves mostly water-soluble chemicals.
B) Bioaccumulation is mainly water-soluble chemicals, while biomagnification involves mostly fat-soluble chemicals.
C) Bioaccumulation is predominantly an aquatic problem, while biomagnification is usually a terrestrial problem.
D) Only animals lower on the food chain bioaccumulate, while all organisms can biomagnify.
E) Bioaccumulation is the buildup of substances within one organism, while biomagnification involves these substances moving up the food chain as one organism eats another.
Answer: E
Q2) What is the relationship between persistence and biomagnification?
Answer: The longer a chemical remains in its present toxic state, the more chances an organism has to pick it up. Additionally, it is more likely that it is still toxic when that organism is eaten by another organism. If a chemical has a low persistence, it is more likely to be broken down before it passes too far through the food chain.
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Chapter 4: Human Populations- One Child China Grows Up:
a Country Faces the Outcomes of Radical Population Control
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Q1) The rate at which children must be born to replace those dying in the population is called ____________.
A) positive growth
B) fertility rate
C) demographic transition
D) carrying capacity
E) replacement fertility rate
Q2) Refer to Infographic 4.3. Looking at these three age structure diagrams, explain which country will be experiencing rapid population growth during the next two decades.
Q3) The industrializing stage of the demographic transition is characterized by _______ population growth.
A) moderate
B) slow
C) very slow
D) rapid
E) declining
Q4) What is total fertility rate (TFR)? How do programs such as social security, pension plans, and Medicare affect TFR?
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Chapter
Nightmare: Human Health Is Intricately Linked to the Environment- Consumption and the Environmental
Footprint
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Q1) In 2006 the death rate from environmentally mediated diseases was how much greater in less developed countries than more developed countries?
A) 5 times
B) 8 times
C) 10 times
D) 12 times
E) 20 times
Q2) Which prevention action is likely to have the greatest effect on reducing the death rate in less developed countries?
A) diet
B) clean water
C) exercise
D) strict industrial pollution regulations
E) regular medical checkups
Q3) Why is it important to get affected community buy-in when trying to reduce environmental health hazards (or any kind of hazard, for that matter)?
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Q4) Why is the eradication of Guinea worm disease (GWD) possible?
Q5) How might washing your hands lead to a human health threat?
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Chapter
Cradle: a Leading Carpet Company
Takes a Chance on Going Green
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Q1) The true cost of an item produced in a factory includes which of the following factors?
A) social costs
B) environmental costs
C) internal costs
D) external costs
E) It includes all of the factors listed above.
Q2) Refer to Infographic 6.1. Which ecosystem service is considered to be the most valuable to us?
A) water supply
B) cultural uses
C) nutrient cycling
D) food production
E) waste treatment
Q3) Why would nutrient cycling be considered such a valuable ecosystem service to humans?
Q4) Refer to Infographic 6.5. Why is it important to consider the cost to an ecosystem when purchasing a product as well as considering the price of the object or service?
Q5) What are the internal and external costs associated with producing paper? Page 9
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Chapter
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Q1) What are the characteristics of something that is nondegradable?
A) It does not degrade in normal atmospheric conditions.
B) It is mostly synthetic molecules.
C) It is chemically stable.
D) It cannot be broken down by naturally occurring enzymes.
E) All of the above choices are characteristics.
Q2) At the grocery store, you are faced with a dilemma. Which container of milk is the most eco-friendly (plastic, paperboard, or glass)? Discuss impacts and trade-offs for each type.
Q3) Often, humans use hazardous materials without even knowing that the products they are using are harmful. What are some products that qualify as household hazardous waste? What efforts do you think should be made to make people more aware of the products they are using and how they should be properly disposed of?
Q4) Incinerators reduce the volume of solid waste by about ______________.
A) 10-20%
B) 30-40%
C) 50-60%
D) 70-80%
E) 80-90%
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Chapter 8: Ecosystems and Nutrient Cycling- Engineering
Earth: an Ambitious Attempt to Replicate Earths Life
Support Systems Goes Awry
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Q1) Consider the following scenario: A plant grows in the soil and is eventually eaten by a rabbit. The rabbit is eaten by a hawk. The hawk becomes ill, dies, and falls to the ground. Fungi and bacteria decompose the hawk. How is this scenario an example of both nutrient cycling and energy flow?
Q2) Which the following is NOT a main nutrient cycle?
A) carbon cycle
B) nitrogen cycle
C) phosphorous cycle
D) magnesium cycle
E) All of the above are main nutrient cycles.
Q3) Certain plants called legumes can fix atmospheric nitrogen thanks to a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria associated with their root systems. How does this relationship benefit the plants? How can humans take advantage of this in agriculture?
Q4) What is biomass?
A) the total weight of the Earth
B) all non-living components of an ecosystem
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C) the resulting mass of nutrients after a portion has left the system
D) all organic material that makes up an ecosystem
E) all organic material in an ecosystem minus the energy lost in production
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Chapter 9: Population Ecology- the Wolf Watchers:
Endangered Gray Wolves Return to the American West
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Q1) Numerous towns and cities in the United States have a deer population problem due to the removal of predators. How would you explain that top-down regulation would help with the overpopulation problem? In addition, are there any bottom-up regulation strategies you would suggest to the townspeople?
Q2) Bighorn sheep were introduced to an island in the Gulf of California in 2010. Originally, 75 bighorns were introduced. When a census was taken in 2011, there were 100 bighorns found. What is the growth rate of the bighorns on the island?
A) 33%
B) 3%
C) 25%
D) 4%
E) 10%
Q3) Which species' population size is closer to its carrying capacity at any given time?
A) r-selected species
B) K-selected species
C) Both r-selected species and K-selected species would be able to survive
D) Neither r-selected species and K-selected species would survive
Q4) Why would a clumped distribution be an advantage for a bee-pollinated plant?
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Everglades Reveals the Intricacies of a
Threatened Ecosystem- Biodiversity and Evolution
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Q1) Gray squirrels and fox squirrels competing for the same resources are an example of
A) predation
B) intraspecific competition
C) interspecific competition
D) commensalism
E) symbiosis
Q2) The sensitivity of a species to changes in the environment is often what makes them a useful _________________ for the management of an ecosystem.
A) keystone species
B) consumer species
C) indicator species
D) apex predator
E) edge species
Q3) How does the introduction of an exotic predator species circumvent the natural predator-prey relationship?
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Q4) What is the term given to the amount of primary productivity available for energy transfer up the food web-gross primary productivity or net primary productivity-and how do they differ?
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Chapter 11: Evolution- a Tropical Murder Mystery: Finding the Missing Birds of Guam
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Q1) Protecting biodiversity is a difficult task because ________.
A) the human population is constantly rising and demanding more from the environment
B) it is often valued less than human development
C) there are many species on Earth that we do not even know exist
D) endangered and threatened species do not always rebound, even when efforts are made to protect them
E) All of the above answers are correct.
Q2) The two main sources of genetic variation are __________.
A) genetic mutations and genetic similarity
B) genetic recombination and coevolution
C) genetic mutations and genetic recombination
D) coevolution and extirpation
E) All of the above are forms of genetic variation.
Q3) The more genetically diverse a population is the more likely ___________.
A) favorable traits will be selected for evolution
B) the population will survive
C) the population will be lost to global climate change
D) both A and B
E) All of the above are correct.
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Chapter 12: Biodiversity- Palm Planet:
Production
Household Ingredient Is Wreaking Havoc on Wildlife Across the Globe
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Q1) Take what you know about biodiversity and climate change. Which ecosystem do you think would be more resistant to the effects of climate change (to a point): one with a high level of biodiversity or one with a low level of biodiversity? Explain your answer.
Q2) Why are biodiversity hotspots important?
Q3) What is the connection between endemic species and endangered species?
Q4) What is NOT a cause of habitat destruction?
A) consumer need/want
B) water dams
C) coal mining
D) expansion of cities
E) conversion to sustainable farming
Q5) What is NOT an example of an ecosystem service?
A) fuel made from forest materials
B) water purification
C) decomposition of organic material
D) camping
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E) All of the above are examples of ecosystem services.
Q6) The population of "fast food potatoes" would lack what kind of diversity: genetic, species, or ecological? Please explain your answer.
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Chapter 13: Reserving Biodiversity- a Forest Without
Elephants: Can We Save One of Earths Iconic Species-
Water Resources
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Q1) Which strategies are included in the Endangered Species Act to protect endangered species?
A) relocation of populations
B) genetic modification
C) habitat destruction
D) privately funded habitat conservation
E) none of these answers
Q2) Biodiversity is important in a population because:
A) individuals in that population need a variety of mates.
B) it allows the population to be more resistant to disruptions.
C) it increases the populations vulnerability to extinction.
D) it increases the chances that each member of the population will be identical to each other.
E) it measures the species' richness but not the genetic diversity in the population and is therefore a great predictor of ecosystem stability.
Q3) Refer to Table 13.2. Which conservation method do you think would benefit an endangered species whose habitat is being destroyed?
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Q4) Why would DNA fingerprinting be a useful tool to monitor some populations of endangered species?
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Chapter
14: Freshwater Resources- Toilet to Tap: a
California County Is Employing a Controversial Method toSupply Drinking Water
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Q1) An aquifer that is separated by impermeable rock is called a(n) _____________ aquifer.
A) confined
B) unconfirmed
C) confirmed
D) unconfined
E) nonporous
Q2) The action by which plant roots pull water from the soil and then release some of it into the atmosphere is known as _______________.
A) evaporation
B) transpiration
C) evapotranspiration
D) infiltration
E) condensation
Q3) What is an aquifer?
A) when saltwater intrudes on freshwater supplies
B) a species of conifer that can live underwater
C) an underground region of permeable soil or rock saturated with water
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D) the very top region of an underground water reservoir
E) a manmade underground water reservoir system
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Chapter 15: Water Pollution-
Upstream- Food Resources
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Q1) What plant nutrients are found in animal waste and fertilizer that can cause eutrophication?
A) nitrogen
B) phosphorous
C) oxygen
D) carbon dioxide
E) both A and B
Q2) A watershed is:
A) a storage facility for groundwater.
B) an area of land over which rain and other sources of water flow to drain into a body of water.
C) the area in which people dig drinking water wells.
D) where a river meets the ocean.
E) the evaporation of river water.
Q3) In drought years, the size of the hypoxic zone in the Gulf and Mexico is:
A) larger.
B) smaller.
C) unchanging.
Q4) Discuss the pros and cons of using drainage pipes for agricultural fields.
Q5) Why should we care about water pollution?
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Genetically Engineered Food Help End Hunger
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Q1) What is a con of high-yield varieties of crops introduced globally during the Green Revolution?
A) faster growth cycle
B) not as much grain production as traditional varieties
C) increased vulnerability to pests
D) genetically diverse
E) None of these answers are negative attributes of high-yield crops.
Q2) _______ is an(are) organism(s) or product(s) that contains genes from another species.
A) Transgenic organisms
B) Bt corn plants
C) Roundup tolerant cotton
D) Golden rice
E) all of these answers
Q3) Why is there no clear answer to the problem of malnutrition in Africa?
Q4) Why are many European countries opposed to the use of GMOs?
Q5) How might the recent Ebola outbreaks in Africa affect the food security of affected countries?
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Q6) What are some of the major concerns associated with genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?
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Chapter
Creative Solutions to Feeding the World- Conventional Energy: Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Modern industrial agriculture methods __________________.
A) rely on renewable energy sources to power modern farming equipment
B) maintain and enrich ecosystem services
C) focus all resources on a single crop
D) avoid the use of chemical fertilizers
E) are referred to as organic
Q2) Which kind of pest management system falls more in line with the methods of sustainable farming?
A) cultural
B) mechanical
C) biological
D) chemical
E) A, B, and C are all pest control methods used in sustainable farming.
Q3) ________ is farming without the use of synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, and other chemical additives.
A) Synthetic farming
B) Organic agriculture
C) The Green Revolution
D) Industrialized agriculture
E) Symbiotic agriculture
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Chapter
Rubble, the True Costs of Coal
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Q1) How is acid mine drainage formed, and what are its effects on the environment?
Q2) What are the different types of pollution created in burning coal to generate electricity?
Q3) Pollution from U.S. coal power plants include all of the following except?
A) ash
B) particulates
C) nitrogen oxides
D) ozone
E) mercury
Q4) Refer to Infographic 18.7. Explain how carbon dioxide can be captured.
Q5) Which of the following choices is NOT true about coal?
A) It has a high energy content.
B) It is a renewable resource.
C) Mining coal causes environmental damage.
D) Burning coal creates pollution.
E) It is formed over time by the compression and heating of peat.
Q6) Refer to Infographic 18.6. Discuss some of the health affects of mining and using coal to generate electricity.
Q7) Which type of mining, surface or subsurface, has a greater impact on the environment, and why? Page 27
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Consequences of Using Fossil Fuels
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Q1) Refer to Infographic 19.2. Which area has both the most natural gas and oil reserves?
A) United States
B) Russia
C) Middle East
D) Libya and western Africa
E) Venezuela
Q2) What is the sequence used for extracting oil from the petroleum reservoirs?
Q3) How does the preliminary search for oil reserves cause environmental degradation?
A) Drilling to try to find oil may release oil from reserves that then affects ecosystems.
B) Searching for oil can often cause spills that negatively affect ecosystems.
C) When searching for oil, companies often have to clear-cut areas of forest.
D) Seismic waves sent into the ground by companies searching for reserves can disorient marine and other wildlife.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q4) What are the stages in the production of oil after a new well is drilled?
Q5) What is energy security, and why is it an important issue for many countries?
Q6) Compare and contrast oil sand and oil shale.
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Chapter 20: Air Pollution- the Youngest Scientists: Kids on the Frontlines
of Asthma Research
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Q1) Why is looking at the local air pollution level not a good indicator of the health of various ecosystems in that area?
Q2) Which of the following would be part of a technological solution to reducing air pollution?
A) providing tax credits for commuters who ride buses that run on compressed natural gas
B) installing a carbon monoxide detector in your home
C) pricing the pollution-generating product or service such that costs associated with pollution and resource depletion are accounted for
D) allowing polluters to sell their excess pollution credits for a profit
E) installing smokestack scrubbers to keep air pollutants from being released
Q3) Why is ground-level ozone considered to be an air pollutant while stratospheric ozone is not? How is it formed?
Q4) U.S. law authorizes _____ to set standards for dangerous air pollutants.
A) the Environmental Protection Agency
B) states
C) the Department of Environmental Protection
D) the Food and Drug Administration
E) the World Health Organization
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Chapter 21: Climate Change- When the Trees Leave:
Scientists Grapple With a Shifting Climate- Alternatives to Fossil Fuels
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Q1) What could happen to the boreal forests of northern Minnesota within the next century?
A) Warmer soil could lead to fewer paper birch trees.
B) There could be an increased presence of temperate species such as the red maple.
C) There could be a northward migration of spruce trees.
D) They could vanish.
E) All of these answers are correct.
Q2) Which is FALSE regarding positive feedback loops?
A) They are changes caused by an initial event that then accentuates that original event.
B) An example is melting sea ice in the Arctic.
C) They can cause rapid changes.
D) They always indicate a "positive" or beneficial event.
E) None of these answers are false.
Q3) Refer to Infographic 21.3. Describe how the greenhouse effect works. What is different with the enhanced greenhouse effect, and what are the main causes of it?
Q4) How is a positive feedback loop different from a negative feedback loop? Provide an example of each.
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Chapter
Nuclear Energy Overcome Its Bad Rep
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Q1) Congress authorized a controversial, long-term storage facility but construction was stopped after 15 years. What stopped the construction?
A) A better site was found.
B) An act of Congress stopped construction.
C) The local people protested and wouldn't allow construction to continue.
D) President Obama halted construction, though the problem and controversy remain.
E) A tsunami made the site unsuitable.
Q2) An atom that spontaneously emits subatomic particles and/or energy is called ______________.
A) radioactive
B) isotopic
C) fissionary
D) fusionary
E) none of these answers
Q3) Disposal of radioactive waste from the generation of nuclear power is a controversial topic. Given what you know about radioactive decay, why would environmentalists be concerned about the generation of all this waste?
Q4) What is the half-life of a radioactive isotope, and how long is it?
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Chapter
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Q1) How much of Samsø's electric power is produced from the burning of fossil fuels?
A) 40%
B) 30%
C) 25%
D) 10%
E) 0%
Q2) According to energy advisors, what produces the "greenest" kilowatt of electricity?
A) photovoltaic cells
B) run-of-the-river hydroelectric systems
C) geothermal heat pumps
D) wind turbines
E) an "unused" kilowatt
Q3) What do energy advisors mean by the phrase "the greenest kilowatt is the one you never use?"
Q4) Why is the unit "barrels of oil equivalents" (BOE) used in examining energy patterns?
Q5) What is the "take-home message" Samsø is sending to other communities?
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Q6) Explain why wind and water energy sources are considered an indirect form of solar energy.
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Chapter
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Q1) An advantage of an economic policy tool approach to protecting the environment is the:
A) simplicity of the concept and ability to achieve desired goals quickly.
B) ability to change the behavior of the regulated industry directly.
C) potential to ban extremely toxic substances through authorization permits.
D) widespread citizen support for spending tax dollars to impose emission limits.
E) encouragement of innovation for reducing environmental impacts.
Q2) Which of the following is an example of a transboundary problem?
A) pollution in Mexico's Tijuana River closing beaches in San Diego where the river empties into the sea
B) acid rain falling in Canada because of industrial emissions from the United States
C) currents concentrating garbage in areas of the Atlantic Ocean
D) A, B, and C
E) only B and C
Q3) Compare command and control regulation with market-based approaches that create economic incentives. What are some advantages and disadvantages of these policy tools?
Q4) Explain the role of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
Page 35
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Chapter 25: Environmental Policy
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Q1) In the New York case study, the South Bronx handled ______ of the entire city's waste.
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 40%
E) 80%
Q2) All of the following statements are true about the movement of the world's population EXCEPT _________________.
A) more people live in urban areas than in rural areas
B) the rate of population growth has increased since the end of the twentieth century
C) urbanization is occurring in developed, developing, and non-developed countries
D) A, B, and C
E) none of these answers
Q3) Refer to Table 25.1. Explain the causation of the urban heat island effect and the issues it leads to.
Q4) Explain the patterns in the development of megacities from midcentury to 2030.
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Chapter 26: Counterfeit Cooling:
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Q1) A mining operation extracts copper ore from the ground. Without access to modern smelters, they dig pits and use them as open-air smelters. They harvest nearby trees for fuel in order to produce the high temperatures required for separating the copper metal from other components of the ore, such as sulfur. Describe some environmental consequences of such an operation.
Q2) Despite the development of safer techniques to process ores containing gold and silver, many areas of Africa, South America, and Asia still use toxic chemicals in their smelting process. Describe why this situation exists in those countries.
Q3) Which characteristics of indium make it such a desirable ingredient in touchscreens and liquid crystal displays?
A) hard and flexible
B) high melting and boiling points
C) soft and malleable
D) renewable and plentiful
E) all of these answers
Q4) Name four mining techniques discussed in the chapter. Describe the nature of a mineral deposit appropriate for each technique.
Q5) Describe how geologists help determine the location of mineral deposits.
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Chapter 27: Learned After the Fact
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Q1) How does a prairie grass access water during a drought?
A) It has many shallow roots covering a large area to reach nearby rivers or streams.
B) It has long deep roots allowing it to reach water supplies.
C) It has long deep roots to hold the soil in place, thus producing a more porous soil.
D) It stays shorter in a drought, thus not losing as much water through transpiration.
E) Grasses are not adapted to drought, so they usually die.
Q2) Which of the following does NOT explain how grazing can be beneficial to a grassland?
A) Clipping off the top part allows the sun to get to the new shoots.
B) Hooves can break up soil, allowing water to penetrate.
C) Breaking up soil with hooves allows new seeds to germinate.
D) Defecation and urination from grazers adds phosphorus and nitrogen to the soil.
E) Chewing a grass down to its roots helps it rejuvenate.
Q3) How does undergrazing reduce the biodiversity of grasslands?
Q4) What are the challenges of a planned grazing approach to grassland management?
Q5) How does overgrazing lead to soil erosion?
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Chapter 28: Optional Chapters Available in Launchpad
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Q1) Deforestation in less-developed countries can best be described as ___________________.
A) a vicious cycle that results in even further environmental degradation, poverty, and other social issues
B) a problem caused by lack of education among poor people
C) the result of developed nations' dependence on charcoal
D) the only cost-effective way developing nations can meet their energy needs
E) an unsolvable problem
Q2) What is the Multiple-Use Sustained-Yield Act?
A) an act created in 1960 that mandated the management of national forests in a way that balances a variety of uses
B) the key act that drove the establishment of the National Forest Service in 1905
C) the act that went against Gifford Pinchot's concept of inexhaustible forest resources
D) the act that was created to support sustainable business development so that economic benefits from forests could be ranked with more value than recreational benefits from forests
E) the act that supported maximizing the yields of specific forestry products
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Chapter 29: Mineral Resources and Mining
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Q1) Changes caused by an initial event trigger events that then reverse the response. For example, changes brought on by warming lead to cooling. This is an example of a(n)
A) negative feedback cycle
B) positive feedback cycle
C) amplification
D) dissolution
E) balanced feedback cycle
Q2) What are the causes of algal blooms, and how do algal blooms affect coral reefs?
Q3) You have been given the task of monitoring the health of a coral reef. Over the years, you have documented a decrease in the biodiversity of life in the reef. What could be some of the reasons why the reef is suffering?
Q4) What is ocean acidification? How are humans contributing to ocean acidification?
Q5) Nutrient-rich areas where shallow rivers meet the ocean are known as ______.
A) intertidal zones
B) estuaries
C) coral reefs
D) abyssal zones
E) open ocean
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Chapter 30:
Earth Elements:
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Q1) According to journalist and sustainable-food advocate Michael Pollan, "Cheap food is dishonestly priced. It is, in fact, unconscionably expensive." What does this mean for beef production and consumption in the United States, and what can be done about it?
Q2) By some estimates, 17 to 34 acres worth of grain crop are required to produce a ton of beef (about four cows). This same amount of land could have been used to grow food to feed ____________ more people than the ton of beef can feed.
A) 1 to 2 times
B) 5 to 10 times
C) 10 to 20 times
D) 30 to 40 times
E) 90 to 100 times
Q3) According to researchers at the Harvard School of Public Health, increased consumption of __________ increases one's risk of dying.
A) chicken
B) tuna
C) red meat
D) turkey
E) nonmeat sources of protein
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Chapter
and Grassland Resources
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Q1) Which of the following is an obstacle that recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) will need to overcome if they are to become more widespread?
A) efficiency
B) expensive start-up costs
C) productivity
D) sustainability
E) all of these answers
Q2) The Marine Stewardship Council defines a sustainable fishery as one that ensures that __________________.
A) fish stocks are maintained at healthy levels
B) the ecosystem is fully functional
C) fishing activity does not threaten biological diversity
D) A, B, and C
E) only A and C
Q3) What role do fish play in human diets? What drives consumption of fish in poorer and wealthier countries?
Q4) Compare and contrast fishing and open-water aquaculture. Discuss the benefits and challenges of both approaches in obtaining fish protein for our diets.
42
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Chapter 32: Restoring the Range: the Key to Recovering the
Grasslands May Be a Surprising One
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a concern when it comes to the conversion of natural lands into farmland for biofuel production?
A) displacement of food crops that would normally be grown there
B) endangerment of native species around the area
C) increase in price for food crops
D) job losses for native workers
E) none of these answers
Q2) Which of the following is a concern regarding early corn ethanol projects?
A) Corn production requires energy inputs like fertilizers and pesticides.
B) Considerable water is required to produce ethanol from corn.
C) The projects used as much (or almost as much) energy as they produced.
D) A, B, and C are concerns
E) None of these answers are concerns.
Q3) Choose the form of biomass that is easiest to ferment into bioethanol.
A) switchgrass
B) crop waste
C) corn
D) forestry waste
E) manure
Q4) What is biowaste? Describe the benefits of converting waste into energy.
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