Computer Systems Fundamentals
Test Bank
Course Introduction
Computer Systems Fundamentals provides an in-depth introduction to the foundational concepts underlying modern computing systems. This course covers the architecture and organization of computer hardware, the role and functioning of operating systems, instruction sets, memory hierarchies, input/output mechanisms, and data representation. Students will explore how hardware and software interact at the system level, learn about processes, file systems, and networking basics, and develop skills for diagnosing and optimizing system performance. The course lays the groundwork for advanced study in computer science and engineering fields, emphasizing practical understanding through hands-on labs and real-world problem-solving exercises.
Recommended Textbook
Mike Meyers' CompTIA A+ Guide to Managing and Troubleshooting PCs 5th Edition by Mike Meyers
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Chapter 1: The Path of the PC Tech
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Q1) Which CompTIA A+ exam puts a lot of emphasis on operational procedures, such as safety and environmental issues, communication, and professionalism?
A)220-901
B)220-902
C)220-903
D)220-904
Answer: B
Q2) Microsoft released the _______________ operating system after CompTIA announced the objectives for the 220-901 and 220-902 exams, but before the exams went live in December 2015.
Answer: Windows 10
Q3) What is the name of the pre-CompTIA A+ certification?
A)CompTIA Network Security+
B)CompTIA IC³ certification
C)CompTIA Certified Network Associate (CCNA)
D)CompTIA IT Fundamentals
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Operational Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) While attempting to identify the problem, you should _______________ the user and identify user changes to the computer.
Answer: question
Q2) Is EMI more dangerous than ESD? Explain.
Answer: No.EMI (electromagnetic interference) is not nearly as dangerous as ESD (electrostatic discharge).Although EMI can cause damage, ESD is the greatest killer of PCs and components.
Q3) _______________ means to tell the truth and _______________ means to do the right thing.
Answer: Honesty, integrity
Q4) What is a critical preventive measure to consider in almost every case?
Answer: Educate the user.Take advantage of the time with the user to informally train him about the problem.
Q5) Taking a moment to touch the power supply before working on a computer and every once in a while as you work to keep yourself at the same electrical potential as the computer is a method of _______________.
Answer: self-grounding
Q6) _______________ bags help prevent ESD while parts are stored.
Answer: Antistatic
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Visible Computer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Almost every operating system stores files in folders in a(n) _______________ pattern.
Answer: tree
Q2) Briefly describe the processing stage of the computer process.
Answer: The parts inside the device or case take over after input as the operating system tells the hardware to do what you've requested.This is processing.
Q3) What is the purpose of the Windows notification area?
Answer: The notification area shows programs running in the background.
Q4) How many directory structures for program files are created by the 64-bit edition of Windows?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
Answer: B
Q5) Describe how to access System Tools in Windows Vista/7.
Answer: To access System Tools in Windows Vista/7, go to Start | All Programs | Accessories | System Tools.
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Chapter 4: Microprocessors
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of RAM is used for main system memory?
A)DRAM
B)SRAM
C)BRAM
D)CRAM
Q2) What results from a catastrophic error on a PC?
A)Sudden reboot
B)Red Screen of Death
C)Pin Wheel error
D)Windows Stop error
Q3) The _______________-bit address bus can address 16 EB of RAM.
Q4) What is the purpose of CPU code names?
Q5) Which CPU is targeted at the mobile device platform?
A)Intel Atom
B)AMD Opteron
C)Intel Xeon
D)Intel Pentium
Q6) In the _______________ system, the number 1 represents the On state and the number 0 represents the Off state.
Q7) What are two limitations of multithreading?
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Chapter 5: Ram
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Q1) Because RDRAM could be used only with Intel components, AMD and many major system and memory makers threw their support behind an alternative to RDRAM called
Q2) What is Microsoft's minimum system RAM requirement for 32-bit versions of Windows?
A)1 GB
B)2 GB
C)4 GB
D)8 MB
Q3) As CPU data bus sizes increased, DRAM manufacturers responded by creating wider DRAM chips, such as ×4, ×8, and ×16, and putting multiples of them on a small circuit board called a(n) _______________ or module.
Q4) Memory manufacturers offer a low-voltage version of DDR3, most commonly labeled _______________ that provides substantial cost savings when used in massive RAM applications.
Q5) Intel has proposed a memory standard called _______________ as of this writing that would bridge the gap between DDR3 and DDR4.
Q6) What precautionary measures should be taken while installing SO-DIMM in a laptop?
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Chapter 6: Bios
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Q1) A(n) _______________ chip stores the information that describes specific device parameters.
Q2) When the computer is turned on or reset, it initiates a special program stored on the ROM chip, called the _______________.
Q3) How can you easily clear CMOS settings and change them back to factory defaults?
A)Unplug the PC and then restart within 10 seconds.
B)Change the positions of the CMOS clear wires.
C)Issue a CMOS command from the command line.
D)You cannot clear the CMOS back to factory settings.
Q4) The phrase "_______________ the BIOS" refers to updating the system BIOS.
Q5) What should be done to resolve a CMOS configuration mismatch error?
Q6) After a computer is turned on and power supply circuitry tests are completed, which electrical component "wakes up" first?
A)CPU
B)Keyboard
C)Mouse
D)RAM
Q7) Briefly describe hardware-assisted virtualization.
Q8) A bootable disk is also called a(n) _______________ disk.
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Chapter 7: Motherboards
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Q1) All motherboards come with a technical manual, better known as the _______________ book.
Q2) In Device Manager, what does black downward-pointing arrow on a white field indicate?
Q3) Briefly explain what is meant by the term daughter boards.
Q4) What is the smallest motherboard version in the ATX standard?
A)AT
B)FlexATX
C)MicroATX
D)LPX
Q5) Optimally, an expansion card should always be in one of two places: in a computer or in a(n) _______________ bag.
Q6) Cases come in many sizes; _______________ and desktop models generally sit on the desk, beneath the monitor.
Q7) The last of the 32-bit versions of Windows had support for _______________ drivers, which were essentially drivers that had not gone through the Windows Certification Program (as it was called then) such that their software did not get a digital signature from Microsoft.
Q8) With a(n) _______________ failure, the computer just will not boot.
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Chapter 8: Power Supplies
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Q1) The pressure of electrons in a wire is called _______________.
Q2) What is the purpose of the P4 12-V connector?
Q3) The _______________ test by a multimeter checks whether electrons can flow from one end of the wire to the other.
Q4) The _______________ power supply has a 24-pin main motherboard that resembles a 20-pin ATX connector.
A)EPS12 V
B)Molex
C)mini
D)P4 21 V
Q5) How do the electrons flow in DC current versus AC current?
Q6) What is the correlation between volts, amperes, and wattage?
Q7) Which power supply never turns off?
A)ATX
B)AT
C)P8, P9
D)P1
Q8) What is a watt?
Q10) What is the purpose of slot covers? Page 10
Q9) What will occur if a mini connector is inserted incorrectly?
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Chapter 9: Hard Drive Technologies
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Q1) What are the factors that make either software or hardware RAID the best choice?
Q2) What is the purpose of the Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI)?
Q3) What items can impede airflow?
Q4) Which version of SATA ties capable drives directly into the PCI Express bus on motherboards?
A)SATA 1.0
B)SATA 2.0
C)SATA 3.0
D)SATAe
Q5) _______________ extends the SATA bus to external devices.
Q6) Which SATA variety runs up to 16 GBPS?
A)SATA 1.0
B)SATA 2.0
C)SATA 3.0
D)SATA 3.2
Q7) The process of reading and writing data at the same time to two drives is called
Q8) What advanced SATA features does Advanced Host Controller Interface ?(AHCI) usage unlock?
Q9) Where is the obvious place to start when implementing RAID? Page 12
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Chapter 10: Implementing Hard Drives
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Q1) Briefly describe FAT64.
Q2) What Windows 8 graphical utility finds bad clusters?
A)Disk Utility
B)Disk Defragmenter
C)Error checking
D)ScanDisk
Q3) Microsoft calls a hard drive that uses either the MBR partitioning scheme or the GPT partitioning scheme a(n) _______________ disk.
Q4) What are the different types of volumes in dynamic disks?
Q5) FAT32 does not work on drives larger than _______________ TB.
Q6) What Windows function is similar to a swap partition in Linux/Unix systems?
A)Page file
B)Recovery partition
C)Hidden partition
D)Reassembled file
Q7) The _______________ directory provides the foundation upon which the OS builds files and folders.
Q8) What is the purpose of high-level formatting?
Q10) List any two advantages of NTFS over other file systems. Page 14
Q9) The encryption capability in NTFS is called _______________.
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Chapter 11: Essential Peripherals
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Q1) How much data can the lowest capacity DVDs of today hold?
Q2) Identify the two families of flash memory.
Q3) The CD-RW format essentially takes CD-media to the functional equivalent of a(n) _______________flash-media drive.
A)650-MB
B)700-MB
C)850-MB
D)4.37 GB
Q4) What are some good ways to clean a dirty keyboard?
Q5) What is another term for FireWire?
A)eSATA
B)CDFS
C)IEEE 1394
D)Thunderbolt
Q6) Explain how to check the USB power usage in Windows.
Q7) Describe the two physical sizes of DVDs and explain where you will most often find them.
Q8) Describe the features of the Intel High Definition Audio (HDA) sound standard.
Q9) Briefly define the term sampling.
Q10) List the five distinct standards of recordable DVD-media. Page 16
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Chapter 12: Building a PC
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Q1) OEM computer manufacturers such as Dell or HP sometimes include a special _______________ on their hard drives to help you restore a system to its factory settings.
Q2) A(n) _______________ file tracks any errors during a phase of an installation.
Q3) What are three basic principles when migrating or retiring a computer?
Q4) Which type of system is designed to handle only very basic applications that require a minimum amount of hardware?
A)Video workstation
B)Virtualization workstation
C)Thick client
D)Thin client
Q5) _______________ is a Windows tool that enables one to quickly move a small number of user data and personalizations.
Q6) What are hardware considerations on a virtualization workstation?
Q7) _______________ allows the running of more than one OS at the same time on a single machine.
Q8) When multibooting Windows and Linux, which of the two should be installed first, or does it matter?
Q9) What is the disadvantage of performing a clean installation?
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Chapter 13: Windows Under the Hood
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Q1) Which command is a full-featured command-line Registry editor?
A)Regedt32
B)Regsrv32
C)Reg
D)Regedit
Q2) What are the four most common types of key values?
Q3) The _______________ tab of Task Manager enables you to log off or log off other users if you have the proper permissions.
Q4) What command enables you to view running processes on a local or remote system?
A)Taskview
B)Control Panel
C)Tasklist
D)Services
Q5) _______________, a free tool, gives you the ability to see which processes depend on others.
Q6) A process started by Windows has the user name _______________.
Q7) Registry files are called _______________.
Page 19
Q8) _______________ data types are very common and offer the most flexible type of value.
Q9) What is the reg command?
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Chapter 14: Users, Groups, and Permissions
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Q1) On every Windows system, each record in an encrypted database of user names and passwords is called a(n) _______________.
A)Group account
B)Single account
C)Specialized account
D)Local user account
Q2) Which term refers to a unique combination of a user name and an associated password?
A)user authorization
B)user account
C)user authentication
D)user identity
Q3) A(n) ____________________ disk should be created and used at a later time to help users if they forget a password.
Q4) Clicking the _______________ checkbox for a particular NTFS permission tells Windows to overrule inheritance and stop that particular NTFS permission.
Q5) Provide a brief overview of the concept of permission propagation.
Q6) What are two ways Groups make Windows administration much easier?
Q7) What happens if administrative shares are deleted?
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Chapter 15: Maintaining and Optimizing Operating Systems
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Q1) Full system backups in Mac OS X are created by the _______________.
Q2) In any version of Windows, you can manually start the Add Hardware Wizard by entering _______________ in the Search feature.
Q3) What tool works in the background to stop viruses and other malware from taking over programs loaded in system memory?
A)Data Execution Prevention
B)Task Manager
C)System Monitor
D)Performance Console
Q4) What is the purpose of the Visual Effects tab in the Performance Options tool of Windows?
Q5) A(n) _______________ update is an added feature or enhancement that is not critical.
Q6) What function does the Disk Cleanup utility perform?
Q7) The _______________ tool will scan the drive for bad sectors, lost clusters, and similar problems, and repair them if possible.
Q8) What does Déjà Dup in Ubuntu Linux do?
Page 22
Q9) What are the three main tabs in the System Information tool?
Q10) How should drivers be updated in Max OS X if the system has third-party devices?
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Chapter 16: Working With the Command-Line Interface
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Q1) The cipher command works on _______________.
A)attributes
B)directories
C)disk drives
D)tables
Q2) What is the exact location of a file called?
Q3) The Windows _______________ command will not delete a directory if it contains files or subdirectories.
Q4) The cd \ command in Windows always navigates back to the _______________.
Q5) Which Windowscommand will power down a local or remote computer?
A)restart
B)poweroff
C)shutdown
D)reboot
Q6) Because xcopy works on directories, you do not have to specify _______________ as you would in copy.
Q7) How is the wildcard character "?" used?
Q8) The user can delete all the files in a directory by typing _______________ at the Command Prompt.
Q9) How can a user list all the switches for a command? Page 23
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Chapter 17: Troubleshooting Operating Systems
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Q1) Windows looks for a file called ______________ when removable media are inserted into a computer.
Q2) What are the risks of the typical recovery options?
Q3) What key is pressed during boot-up to boot directly into Safe Mode?
A)F1
B)F3
C)F5
D)F8
Q4) Which setting in Windows 7's Compatibility tab disables all display features such as Aero?
A)Disable advanced features
B)Disable display scaling on high DPI settings
C)Disable desktop composition
D)Disable Aero desktop
Q5) Which command rebuilds the boot sector for the active system partition?
A)bootrec /fixmbr
B)bootrec /scanos
C)bootrec /fixboot
D)bootrec /rebuildmbr
Q6) How can the Recovery Console be used to resolve boot problems?
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Chapter 18: Virtualization
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Q1) Full virtualization requires an extra layer of sophisticated programming called a(n) _______________ to manage vastly more complex interactions.
Q2) What is another name for a bare-metal hypervisor?
A)Virtual machine manager
B)Type-1 hypervisor
C)Platform
D)Type-2 hypervisor
Q3) Microsoft's hypervisor is known as _______________.
Q4) The term "bare-metal" virtualization software refers to _______________.
A)hypervisors
B)cloud computing
C)virtual switches
D)hardware consolidation
Q5) A(n) _______________ environment is called a virtual machine (VM).
Q6) What is another term for a virtual machine?
A)Host
B)Guest
C)Emulator
D)Environment
Q7) Describe the role of a supervisor in the context of single-OS machines.
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Chapter 19: Display Technologies
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Q1) How should a monitor be cleaned?
Q2) The _______________ subset of the DirectX protocol, supports direct access to the hardware for MIDI devices.
Q3) What is the single most important feature that separates DRAM from video RAM?
Q4) Describe the twisted nematic (TN) technology.
Q5) What fast expansion card standard has replaced PCI and AGP?
A)LCD
B)DirectX
C)PCIe
D)DVI
Q6) Which video mode is used in larger CRT monitors?
A)XGA
B)UXGA
C)SXGA
D)WUXGA
Q7) The majority of video cards, especially once you get into gaming-oriented cards, sport _______________ SDRAM.
Q8) An LCD panel's _______________ is the amount of time it takes for all of the subpixels on the panel to go from pure black to pure white and back again.
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Chapter 20: Essentials of Networking
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Q1) Which connector is typically used in Ethernet?
A)RJ-45
B)RJ-11
C)RG-58
D)AWG 22-26
Q2) _______________ is the process by which routers sort frames and send them along to the proper LAN.
Q3) The _______________ address is 48 bits long, providing more than 281 trillion MAC addresses.
Q4) Describe RJ-11.
Q5) The most common type of patch panel today uses a special type of connecter called a(n) _______________.
Q6) A LAN is almost always a _______________.
A)homegroup
B)broadcast domain
C)workgroup
D)bridge
Q7) What is a crossover cable and why would you use one?
Q8) What is plenum grade cable?
Page 28
Q9) How does Ethernet's star-bus topology help a network keep functioning?
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Chapter 21: Local Area Networking
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Q1) A(n) _______________ sends data out of the NIC and checks to see if it comes back.
Q2) IPv4 addresses in the range 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254 represent which feature?
A)Domain Name Service
B)Dynamic Host Control Protocol
C)Automatic Private IP Addressing
D)Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
Q3) The Windows _______________ utility shows the route that a packet takes to get to its destination.
Q4) When activating an NIC, the Windows operating system makes a(n) _______________ value for the last _______________ bits of an IPv6 address.
Q5) Describe the features of a network domain.
Q6) What is the purpose of the tracert utility?
Q7) How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
A)32
B)64
C)16
D)128
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Chapter 22: Wireless Networking
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Q1) Which standard or protocol provides a security improvement that WPA addresses over WEP?
A)EAP
B)IrDA
C)SWAP
D)TCP/IP
Q2) What are the throughput, range, and frequency of the 802.11g wireless standard?
Q3) The 802.11g standard is backward-compatible with ______________.
Q4) A(n) ______________ enables you to connect to the Internet through a network-aware smartphone, tablet, or other mobile device.
Q5) WPS has a security flaw that allows a hacker to repeatedly guess the ______________ -digit numeric code.
Q6) ______________ is designed to create small wireless networks preconfigured to do very specific jobs.
Q7) When adjusting the radio power levels of your wireless antenna, decrease the radio power until you can get reception at the furthest point ______________ the target network space.
Q8) What are the only two requirements for an ad hoc wireless network?
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Q9) A(n) ______________ enables Ethernet network communication using IrDA.
Chapter 23: The Internet
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Q1) What term refers to the amount of time a packet takes to get to its destination?
A)Latency
B)Handshaking
C)TTL
D)PTS
Q2) What is the most widely used standard for receiving e-mail?
A)SMTP
B)HTTP
C)IMAP4
D)POP3
Q3) How is phone line speed measured and what is the fastest rate a phone line can achieve?
Q4) ______________ connections to ISPs use a standard telephone line with special equipment on each end to create always-on Internet connections at speeds much greater than dial-up.
A)FTTN
B)ISDN
C)DSL
D)Broadband cable
Q5) The ______________ protocol is Windows' network file and print sharing protocol.
Page 32
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Chapter 24: Portable Computing
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Q1) What type of screen does a portable device use?
A)CRT
B)LCD
C)LED
D)Plasma
Q2) What is the most common battery used in laptops today?
Q3) Batteries should be charged to at least how much when in storage?
A)70-80 percent
B)10-20 percent
C)80-100 percent
D)0-10 percent
Q4) Describe the ACPI G3 state.
Q5) If you replace a portable battery due to power or charging issues and the problem persists, what else could the problem be?
Q6) The _______________ mode takes everything in active memory and stores it on the hard drive.
Q7) What are portable-specific expansion slots?
Q8) How do you replace a hard drive in a laptop?
Page 33
Q9) What is the main advantage of a touchpad over other pointing device options for laptops?
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Chapter 25: Understanding Mobile Devices
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Q1) _______________ is the capability to make both audio and video calls over Wi-Fi networks.
Q2) What is the screen size for a typical smartphone?
A)Three inches
B)Four inches
C)Five inches
D)Six inches
Q3) The IMEI number can be used to identify a specific mobile device and even to _______________ that device from accessing the carrier's network.
Q4) Mobile devices connect to the outside world through the cellular networks or through various _______________ Wi-Fi standards.
A)802.10
B)802.11
C)803.10
D)803.11
Q5) To keep files and data up-to-date, smartphones and tablets can synchronize, or synchronize, with local machines or with cloud-based servers over the _______________.
Q6) What three operating systems do most smartphones run?
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Chapter 26: Care and Feeding of Mobile Devices
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Q1) What is the knowledge factor when talking about authentication?
Q2) What type of authentication is a username and a password?
A)Blind authentication
B)Multifactor authentication
C)Single-factor authentication
D)Double-factor authentication
Q3) Having a user logon at a certain time of day, or even within so many seconds or minutes of another event, is known as a(n) _______________ factor.
A)knowledge
B)ownership
C)temporal
D)possession
Q4) Moisture on a mobile device can cause internal _______________, and lingering liquid can cause _______________ to behave in strange ways.
Q5) What is the most accurate way to get a device's location?
A)GPS
B)Wi-Fi
C)Cellular network
D)IP address
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Chapter 27: Printers and Multifunction Devices
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Q1) The term sublimation means to cause something to change from a solid into a _______________ form and then back into a solid.
A)vapor
B)viscous
C)liquid
D)crystal
Q2) What are the steps of the laser printing process?
Q3) Which type of printer creates an image on paper by physically striking an ink ribbon against the paper's surface?
A)Dot-matrix
B)Inkjet
C)Impact
D)Laser
Q4) What is an MSDS?
Q5) Mostly composed of plastic, ______________ particles can be melted on to the paper.
Q6) What is print resolution?
Q7) ______________ starts the physical part of the printing process.
Q8) What is the purpose of the roller in an inkjet printer?
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Chapter 28: Securing Computers
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
89 Verified Questions
89 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/43825
Sample Questions
Q1) Define malware and list some types of malware.
Q2) Surprise browser windows that appear automatically when you visit a Web site are known as _______________.
Q3) A digital certificate is signed by a trusted _______________ that guarantees that the public key you are about to get is actually from the Web server and not from some evil person trying to pretend to be the Web server.
Q4) The authentication encryption used in Windows network operating systems is _______________.
Q5) The tool used to apply policy settings to multiple computers in an Active Directory domain is _______________.
Q6) Physical security, authentication, users and groups, and security policies are all aspects of _______________.
A)access control
B)environmental controls
C)database management
D)network locks
Q7) Security _______________ are devices that store some unique information that the user carries on his or her person.
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