Computer Security Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Computer Security is the study and practice of protecting computer systems, networks, and data from unauthorized access, attacks, damage, or theft. This course covers foundational concepts including cryptography, authentication, access control, system and network vulnerabilities, malware, and security policies. Students will learn about common threats such as viruses, worms, and phishing, as well as defensive techniques like firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and secure software development. Through practical assignments and case studies, the course emphasizes understanding both offensive and defensive perspectives in designing robust and resilient computing environments.
Recommended Textbook
CompTIA Security+ Guide to Network Security Fundamentals 5th Edition by Mark Ciampa
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15 Chapters
750 Verified Questions
750 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) List three of the federal and state laws that have been enacted to protect the privacy of electronic data.
Answer: 1. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)
2. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (Sarbox)
3. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
4. The California Database Security Breach Act (2003)
Q2) Today's software attack tools do not require any sophisticated knowledge on the part of the attacker.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q3) The CompTIA Security+ Certification is aimed at an IT security professional with the recommended background of a minimum of two years experience in IT administration, with a focus on security.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Malware and Social Engineering Attacks
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Sample Questions
Q1) A virus that infects an executable program file is known as?
A)macro virus
B)program virus
C)companion virus
D)boot sector virus
Answer: B
Q2) Software keyloggers are programs that silently capture all keystrokes, including passwords and sensitive information.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Of the three types of mutating malware, what type changes its internal code to one of a set number of predefined mutations whenever it is executed?
A)Oligomorphic malware
B)Polymorphic malware
C)Metamorphic malware
D)Statimorphic malware
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Application and Networking-Based Attacks
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Sample Questions
Q1) A TCP/IP communication begins with a control message, known as a ________________, to initialize the connection.
Match the following terms to the appropriate definitions.
a.Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
b.ARP Poisoning
c.Buffer overflow attack
d.Command injection
e.Cross-site scripting (XSS)
Answer: synchronize message, or SYN
Q2) Which type of attack below is similar to a passive man-in-the-middle attack?
A)replay
B)hijacking
C)denial
D)buffer overflow
Answer: A
Q3) The predecessor to today's Internet was a network known as ____________________.
Answer: ARPAnet
Q4) What are zero-day attacks?
Answer: Zero day attacks are previously unknown vulnerabilities that are exploited.
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Host, Application, and Data Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Keyed entry locks are much more difficult to defeat than deadbolt locks.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most portable devices, and some computer monitors, have a special steel bracket security slot built into the case, which can be used in conjunction with a:
A)U-lock
B)safe lock
C)shield lock
D)cable lock
Q3) What type of filtering utilizes a an analysis of the content of spam messages in comparison to neutral / non-spam messages in order to make intelligent decisions as to what should be considered spam?
A)Blacklist filtering
B)Whitelist filtering
C)Bayesian filtering
D)Extension filtering
Q4) Describe a mantrap.
Q5) What is the difference between deterrent controls and preventive controls?
Q6) What are the three states of data that DLP typically examines?
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Chapter 5: Basic Cryptography
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not one of the functions of a digital signature?
A)Verification of the sender
B)Prevention of the sender from disowning the message
C)Prove the integrity of the message
D)Protect the public key
Q2) An algorithm that uses elliptic curves instead of prime numbers to compute keys
A)Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
B)Block cipher
C)Ciphertext
D)Data Encryption Standard (DES)
E)Diffie-Hellman (DH)
F)Elliptic curve cryptography (ECC)
G)Ephemeral key
H)Private key
I)Public key
J)Stream cipher
Q3) Explain hashing.
Q4) The Data Encryption Standard is a(n) ______________ cipher.
Q5) Discuss how HMAC works.
Q6) Describe how a block cipher works.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Advanced Cryptography
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) protocol ensures IPsec's confidentiality.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the SSH suite, the ____________________ command allows a user to copy files between remote computers. Match the following terms to the appropriate definitions.
a.Bridge trust model
b.Certificate Authority (CA)
c.Certificate Repository
d.Digital certificate
e.Distributed trust model
Q3) Digital signatures actually only show that the public key labeled as belonging to the person was used to encrypt the digital signature.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List and describe the entities for which IPsec is transparent.
Q5) Explain how digital certificates are managed.
Q6) Discuss the three areas of protection that are provided by IPsec.
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Chapter 7: Network Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) Searching incoming web content to match keywords
A)Application-aware firewall
B)Application-aware IPS
C)Content inspection
D)Heuristic monitoring
E)Malware inspection
F)Network address translation (NAT)
G)Router
H)Switch
I)Virtual LAN (VLAN)
J)VPN Concentrator
Q2) Which network address below is not a private IP address network?
A)10.4.5.0
B)172.63.255.0
C)192.168.255.0
D)172.17.16.0
Q3) Discuss the two advantages that NAT provides.
Q4) A network _________________ isolates connected devices by learning MAC addresses and only sending frames intended for specific MAC addresses to the ports they're connected to, unless the MAC address is unknown.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Administering a Secure Network
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Sample Questions
Q1) List the steps in an 802.1x authentication procedure.
Q2) Port-based authentication, in which users are authenticated on a per-switch port basis, is a function of what standard below?
A)IEEE 802.3ad
B)IEEE 802.11n
C)IEEE 802.1x
D)IEEE 802.1z
Q3) DNS poisoning can be prevented using the latest edition of what software below?
A)BIND
B)DHCP
C)WINS
D)finger
Q4) An administrator needs to examine FTP commands being passed to a server. What port should the administrator be monitoring?
A)19
B)20
C)21
D)22
Q5) Why is the Physical Layer omitted in the TCP/IP model?
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Chapter 9: Wireless Network Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a wireless device looks for beacon frames it is known as
Q2) What is the role of the IEEE in computer networking and wireless communications?
Q3) How can an administrator force wireless clients to use a standard web browser to provide information, and require a user to agree to a use policy or present valid login credentials?
A)Gateway access point
B)Captive portal access point
C)Wireless device probe
D)AUP Enforcement access point
Q4) Select the EAP protocol supported by WPA2 Enterprise that securely tunnels any credential form for authentication using TLS:
A)EAP-MSCHAPv2
B)EAP-AKA
C)EAP-FAST
D)EAP-SIM
Q5) If the EAP authentication is successful, a success packet is sent to the
Q6) Describe a piconet.
11
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Chapter 10: Mobile Device Security
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Sample Questions
Q1) What SD card family can be used to transmit pictures over a wireless network to a laptop hard drive or wireless printer?
A)Standard Capacity (SDSC)
B)High Capacity (SDHC)
C)eXtended-Capacity (SDXC)
D)Secure Digital Input Output (SDIO)
Q2) How can an administrator manage applications on mobile devices using a technique called "app wrapping?"
A)Mobile Application Management
B)Extended Application Management
C)Remote Application Management
D)Cloud Application Management
Q3) The PC Card and CardBus devices are being replaced by what technology?
A)PCMCIA
B)USB
C)ExpressCard
D)Firewire
Q4) _____________ are portable computing devices that are generally larger than smartphones and smaller than notebooks, and are focused on ease of use.
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Chapter 11: Access Control Fundamentals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the MAC lattice model.
Q2) Describe LDAP injection attacks.
Q3) A RADIUS ____________________ is a computer that forwards RADIUS messages among RADIUS clients and RADIUS servers.
Q4) ____________________ is granting or denying approval to use specific resources.
a.Account expiration
b.Discretionary access control (DAC)
c.Extended TACACS (XTACACS)
d.Job rotation
e.LDAP injection attack
Q5) A shield icon warns users if they attempt to access any feature that requires UAC permission.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which access control model is considered to be the least restrictive?
A)Role Based Access Control
B)Mandatory Access Control
C)Rule Based Access Control
D)Discretionary Access Control
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Chapter 12: Authentication and Account Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Token credentials can be revoked at any time by the user without affecting other token credentials issued to other sites.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A(n) ____________________ attack begins with the attacker creating encrypted versions of common dictionary words, and then comparing them against those in a stolen password file.
Q3) Discuss the types of shortcuts that users take to help them recall their passwords.
Q4) What technology allows users to share resources stored on one site with a second site without forwarding their authentication credentials to the other site?
A)OpenAuth
B)OAuth
C)SAML
D)Kerberos
Q5) A token ____________________ is a unique random string of characters that is encrypted to protect the token from being used by unauthorized parties.
Q6) Explain why the LAN Manager (LM) hash is vulnerable.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Business Continuity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe what happens when the response team arrives and secures the crime scene.
Q2) Which term below describes a component or entity in a system which, if it no longer functions, will disable an entire system?
A)recovery site
B)recovery point
C)single point of failure
D)cascade point of failure
Q3) Windows stores files on a hard drive in 512-byte blocks called
Q4) What does Windows do if a file being saved is not long enough to fill up the last sector on the disk?
Q5) Identify two scenarios that could be used in a BIA.
Q6) The process of identifying exposure to threats, creating preventive and recovery procedures, and then testing them to determine if they are sufficient, is known as:
A)Business continuity planning and testing
B)Disaster planning
C)Business management planning and testing
D)Enterprise disaster planning
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Chapter 14: Risk Mitigation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Websites that group individuals and organizations into clusters or groups based on some sort of affiliation are considered to be what type of websites?
A)social networking
B)social engineering
C)social management
D)social control
Q2) What kind of policy outlines how organizations use personal information it collects?
A)VPN
B)network
C)encryption
D)privacy
Q3) Identify two opportunities for security education and training.
Q4) What concept below is at the very heart of information security?
A)threat
B)mitigation
C)risk
D)management
Q5) What are the typical classification designations of government documents?
Q6) List and describe two of the seven risk categories.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Vulnerability Assessment and Third Party Integration
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Sample Questions
Q1) List and describe the elements that make up a security posture.
Q2) An agreement through which parties in a relationship can reach an understanding of their relationships and responsibilities.
A)asset
B)cyberterrorism
C)hactivist
D)exploit kit
E)computer spy
F)risk
G)threat
H)threat agent
I)vulnerability
J)threat vector
Q3) Discuss one type of asset that an organization might have.
Q4) When using a black box test, many testers use ____________________ tricks to learn about the network infrastructure from inside employees.
Q5) Describe a penetration testing report.
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Q6) A(n) ____________________ box test is one in which some limited information has been provided to the tester.