CompTIA A+ Certification Preparation Study
Guide Questions
Course Introduction
This course is designed to prepare students for the CompTIA A+ certification, a widely recognized credential for entry-level IT professionals. Covering both the theoretical knowledge and practical skills required by the certification exams, the course addresses topics such as hardware installation and troubleshooting, operating systems, networking fundamentals, security best practices, mobile devices, and operational procedures. Through a combination of lectures, hands-on labs, and practice exams, students will gain the confidence and competence needed to diagnose and resolve common technical issues in a variety of computing environments, making them well-equipped for roles in technical support and IT maintenance.
Recommended Textbook A+ Guide to IT Technical Support Hardware and Software 9th Edition by Jean Andrews
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20 Chapters
1000 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: First Look at Computer Parts and Tools
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Q1) a short-range wireless technology used to connect two devices in a small personal network
A) DisplayPort
B) DIMM
C) heat sink
D) PCIe
E) POST
F) SO-DIMM
G) airplane mode
H) Bluetooth
I) central processing unit (CPU)
J) micro-ATX
Answer: H
Q2) A DVI port transmits a video signal and is also called a DB-15 port.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 2: Working Inside Desktops and Laptops
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Q1) keeps the motherboard from touching the case
A) Power SW
B) front panel header
C) Power LED +/-
D) HDD LED
E) spacer
F) Reset SW
G) ESD strap
H) ZIF connector
I) service manual
J) expansion slot
Answer: E
Q2) What diagnostic software is used by several manufacturers, and can run tests on keyboards, video, speakers, touchpad, optical drives, wireless LANs, motherboard, processor, ports, hard drive, and memory?
A) PC-Fixit
B) DiagNow
C) PC-Doctor
D) WinScan
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: All About Motherboards
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Q1) What motherboard slot has direct access to the North Bridge?
A) secondary PCIe slot
B) ATA bus slot
C) Firewire
D) primary PCIe slot
Answer: D
Q2) Which setting can be configured via the BIOS screen?
A) Windows driver status
B) set desktop background
C) screen saver timeout value
D) change the boot sequence
Answer: D
Q3) What are the two different methods for partitioning hard drives?
A) Extended Partitioning Scheme (EPS)
B) Master Boot Record (MBR)
C) Standard Partition Layout (SPL)
D) GUID Partition Table (GPT)
Answer: B, D
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5
Chapter 4: Supporting Processors and Upgrading Memory
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Q1) an error checking technology used by older SIMMs
A) RIMM
B) dual ranked
C) ECC
D) Hyper-Threading
E) multiplier
F) parity
G) RAS Latency
H) processor frequency
I) single-sided
J) Thread
Q2) What Intel processor technology interconnects the processor, chipset, and wireless network adapter as a unit, improving laptop performance?
A) Pentium
B) Core i5
C) Celeron
D) Centrino
Q3) Describe the step of processor installation that involves the application of thermal compound.
Q4) Describe the three levels of cache used by a processor.
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Chapter 5: Supporting the Power System and Troubleshooting Computers
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Q1) A Molex connector supplies +3.3V, +5V, and -12V voltages.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a solution to an overheating problem?
A) verify that cables are not obstructing airflow
B) remove the covers from empty expansion slots
C) be sure the case is not sitting on a carpet
D) remove dust from the power supply, vents, and cooler fans
Q3) What is an auto-switching AC adapter?
A) an adapter that can switch between line power and battery power
B) an adapter that switches between two PCs
C) an adapter that can use 110V or 220V AC power
D) an adapter that can switch between AC or DC
Q4) Depending on the manufacturer of the BIOS, what two different POST beep code sequences indicate a memory error?
A) continuous short beeps
B) continuous three short beeps and then a pause
C) continuous two short beeps and then a pause
D) eight short beeps
Q5) What are the FRUs on a motherboard?
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Chapter 6: Supporting Hard Drives and Other Storage Devices
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Q1) a computer's ability to respond to a hardware failure
A) autodetection
B) fault tolerance
C) storage card
D) mirrored volume
E) NAND flash memory
F) WORM drive / cartridge
G) file system
H) spanning
I) striped volume
J) UDF
Q2) What do you need to keep in mind about the system BIOS when selecting a hard drive?
Q3) The 2.5" size hard drive is typically used in devices such as MP3 players.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe what a hybrid hard drive is.
Q5) How is data organized on a magnetic hard drive?
Q6) Describe the parts of a magnetic hard disk.
Q7) Describe the biggest disadvantage of using tape drives. Page 8
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Survey of Windows Features and Support Tools
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Q1) What part of the Windows display shows information about open programs and provides quick access to others?
A) Aero Snap
B) taskbar
C) notification area
D) properties
Q2) The ability to snap a page to the left or right side of the screen so a second page can share the screen is a function of what feature?
A) Aero
B) App multitasking
C) side-by-side apps
D) app tiling
Q3) What software in Windows 8 serves as built-in antivirus software?
A) Windows Firewall
B) BitLocker
C) Windows AntiMalware
D) Windows Defender
Q4) Describe two methods for launching an application.
Q5) Briefly define operating system.
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Chapter 8: Installing Windows
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Q1) contains instructions for running essential hardware devices before an operating system is started
A) virtual machine
B) file system
C) Windows Easy Transfer
D) push automation
E) standard image
F) system BIOS
G) unattended installation
H) batch file
I) usmtutils
J) answer file
Q2) What is a batch file?
Q3) Describe the three main functions of a motherboard BIOS.
Q4) What type of OS should you install for best performance when you have enough RAM?
A) 8 bit
B) 16 bit
C) 32 bit
D) 64 bit
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Chapter 9: Supporting I/O Devices
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Q1) another term for graphics tablet, which is used to hand draw
A) infrared (IR)
B) digitizer
C) dxdiag.exe
D) HDMI connector
E) OLED
F) projector
G) refresh rate
H) stylus
I) contrast ratio
J) ghost cursor
Q2) What type of backlighting receives DC power directly from a motherboard and doesn't use an inverter?
A) CCFL
B) LED
C) Plasma
D) OLED
Q3) What is a KVM switch and how might one be useful?
Q4) Describe an S-Video port.
Q5) What is DiplayPort?
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Chapter 10: Maintaining Windows
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Q1) a hidden file stored in the root directory of drive C
A) Dynamic volumes
B) Virtual memory
C) Defragmenting
D) Backup
E) Mounted drive
F) Chkdsk utility
G) Pagefile.sys
H) Basic disk
I) restore points
J) file system
Q2) What type of storage drive contains spinning platters?
A) optical hard drive
B) solid-state drives
C) floppy hard drives
D) magnetic hard disk drives
Q3) List and describe the status indicators that apply only to a dynamic disk.
Q4) Describe a mounted drive and why you would use one.
Q5) Discuss defragmenting as it applies to solid-state drives used in a Windows 7 system.
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Chapter 11: Optimizing Windows
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Q1) a component of the kernel which makes up the layer closest to the hardware
A) Task Scheduler
B) Event Viewer
C) Windows ReadyBoost
D) Task Manager
E) Registry
F) kernel
G) shell
H) Computer Management
I) Service
J) HAL
Q2) If a game or desktop publishing app that relies heavily on graphics is not performing well or giving errors, what command can you run to view DirectX information?
A) dxtshoot.exe
B) gpudiag.exe
C) dxdiag.exe
D) video.exe
Q3) Describe the Windows shell.
Q4) Discuss the purpose of the priority level for CPU resources.
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Chapter 12: Supporting Customers and Troubleshooting
Windows
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Q1) assignment of a problem to someone higher in the support chain
A) call tracking
B) Blue Screen of Death
C) System File Checker
D) escalate
E) Component Services
F) default program
G) Taskkill
H) Tasklist
I) ticket
J) Regsvr32
Q2) Most Microsoft patches and device drivers can be applied to a 32-bit installation and also a 64-bit installation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Briefly explain why you should document after you have solved a problem.
Q4) How can you eliminate the hard drive as the source of an application error?
Q5) If a file fails to open, what could be the issue?
Q7) List the six steps of the troubleshooting process. Page 15
Q6) What should you do if you are being verbally abused by a customer?
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Page 16
Chapter 13: Troubleshooting Windows Startup
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Q1) What is the first thing that the kernel does when WinLoad turns over the startup process to it?
Q2) In Windows 7, what startup option can be used to restore the registry settings from the previous login?
A) Last Known Good Configuration
B) System Restore
C) Debugging Mode
D) Safe Recovery
Q3) What is Windows RE and how can you use it?
Q4) What is the name of the program that reads the settings in the Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file and manages the initial startup of the OS?
A) MBR program
B) Session Manager program
C) Windows Boot Loader
D) Windows Boot Manager
Q5) You have received a "No boot device found" notification upon booting your system. What does this mean, and what can you do to troubleshoot it?
Q6) What is the Last Known Good Configuration?
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Chapter 14: Connecting To and Setting Up a Network
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Q1) a protocol used by various client applications when the application needs to query a database
A) DHCP server
B) ipconfig
C) Network Address Translation (NAT)
D) Secure Shell (SSH)
E) Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
F) Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS)
G) Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)
H) virtual private network
I) workgroup
J) subnet mask
Q2) Describe communications at the application level - give an example.
Q3) What device handles access to another network for a client computer if it does not have a better option?
A) firewall
B) default gateway
C) network switch
D) network hub
Q4) Describe a domain name and provide examples of domain names.
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Chapter 15: Supporting Network Hardware
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Q1) uses ordinary copper phone lines and a range of frequencies on the copper wire to provide Internet
A) broadband
B) throughput
C) ferrite clamp
D) latency
E) fast Ethernet
F) patch cable
G) STP
H) switch
I) repeater
J) DSL
Q2) What is the difference between bandwidth and throughput?
Q3) 10Base5 cabling runs at speeds up to 1 Gbps and distances to 500 meters.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Switches are slowly being replaced by hubs, which are newer technology.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are the differences between a hub and a switch?
Page 19
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Chapter 16: Supporting Mobile Operating Systems
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Q1) an area where access to Wi-Fi Internet connectivity is made available, such as at a coffee shop, retail store, or airport
A) accelerometer
B) hotspot
C) gyroscope
D) iOS
E) Android
F) AirDrop
G) Handoff
H) IMSI
I) IMEI
J) Pairing
Q2) Describe how Android apps are distributed.
Q3) What is the more secure alternative to the SMTP mail protocol?
A) SMTP
B) IMAP
C) POP
D) S/MIME
Q4) What information do you need in order to configure a mail account on an iOS device?
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Chapter 17: Windows Resources on a Network
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Q1) If a Windows computer belongs to a domain, all security is managed by the network administrator for the entire network.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What type of permission should you set to control access to files and folders by local and network users?
A) Sharing on FAT32 volumes only
B) NTFS on NTFS volumes only
C) NTFS on exFAT or NTFS volumes
D) Sharing on NTFS or exFAT volumes
Q3) When mapping a drive, you can type in the path to the shared folder on the host computer. What is the syntax for the path?
A) \\sharedfolder\server
B) \server\sharedfolder
C) \\server\sharedfolder
D) /sharedfolder/server
Q4) Describe the difference between rights and permissions on a Windows OS.
Q5) What is an authentication server, and how does Active Directory satisfy this role?
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Page 21
Chapter 18: Security Strategies
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Q1) What is a rootkit and why is it so difficult to detect?
Q2) What inputs would be considered to be part of a biometric device? (Choose all that apply.)
A) keystrokes
B) retina
C) fingerprint
D) voice
Q3) Describe how you can control how a user logs on to a Windows system and how doing so can make a system more secure.
Q4) On a peer-to-peer network, authentication is the responsibility of the domain.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Using a PIN or password in addition to TPM is an example of what type of authentication?
A) multifactor
B) biometric
C) asymmetric
D) symmetric
Q6) If you wish to monitor logon failures, what should you do?
Q7) Describe file and folder encryption in Windows (not how you encrypt a file).
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Chapter 19: Supporting Printers and Customizing a System
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Q1) For heavy business use, the best practice is to purchase one machine for one purpose, instead of bundling many functions into a single machine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What are valid recommendations for for a high-end audio/video editing workstation? (Choose all that apply.)
A) install at least 4 GB RAM
B) install a motherboard capable of using memory running at 1600 MHz or better
C) Install a sound card
D) Install a CD drive
Q3) What statement regarding the construction of a gaming computer is accurate?
A) In order to ensure adequate cooling, air cooling should be used.
B) The use of a single low-end video card is adequate for the needs of most gamers.
C) Gaming computers benefit from powerful multicore processors.
D) Modern motherboards have no need for an external sound card.
Q4) Describe the function of an impact printer.
Q5) How do you stop and restart the Windows Print Spooler service?
Q6) Describe the exposing or writing step of laser printing.
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Chapter 20: Virtualization, Linux, and Mac OS X
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Q1) What Linux distribution is considered a cutting-edge distribution?
A) Debian
B) Fedora
C) Red Hat Enterprise Linux
D) Ubuntu
Q2) the search app for Mac, can be configured to search the local computer, Wikipedia, iTunes, the Maps app, the web, and more.
A) dump
B) client-side virtualization
C) Finder
D) hypervisor
E) clone
F) presentation virtualization
G) vi editor
H) bash shell
I) thin client
J) Spotlight
Q3) Define a Type 2 hypervisor, and provide two examples of a Type 2 hypervisor.
Q4) Define a Type 1 hypervisor and give two examples of a Type 1 hypervisor.
Q5) Explain what a thin client is, and detail when it might be used.
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