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Comparative Political Systems Exam Answer Key - 841 Verified Questions

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Comparative Political Systems

Exam Answer Key

Course Introduction

Comparative Political Systems examines the structure, function, and performance of political systems across different countries, focusing on both democratic and non-democratic regimes. Through the analysis of political institutions, processes, and cultures, the course explores how countries organize authority, make collective decisions, manage conflict, and implement public policy. Students learn to compare governmental forms, party systems, electoral processes, and policy frameworks to understand similarities and differences in governance. The course emphasizes critical thinking about theories of political development, institutional design, and challenges such as democratization, political stability, and social cleavages in a global context.

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American Government 13th Edition by Walter E. Volkomer

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Chapter 1: Politics, Democracy, and the American People

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Fourth, Fifth, Sixth, and Eighth Amendments grant important rights to people who are accused of having committed crimes.These rights are examples of

A)democratic rules.

B)majority rules.

C)civil liberties.

D)civil rights.

E)social contracts.

Answer: C

Q2) A government that places written legal limits on the power of the majority to act is often referred to as a

A)representative democracy.

B)constitutional democracy.

C)limited democracy.

D)republican democracy.

E)collaborative democracy.

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: From Colonialism to Constitutionalism

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Q1) The main purpose of checks and balances is to limit the power of government by making each branch dependent on the other.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

Q2) Which of the following devices used to restrain the power of government is NOT expressly stated in the Constitution?

A)judicial review

B)federalism

C)checks and balances

D)separation of powers

E)impeachment

Answer: C

Q3) The English Bill of Rights of 1689

A)established the right of freedom of speech.

B)guaranteed the right to trial by jury.

C)bound the nobility to respect the authority of the king.

D)bound the king to respect the rights of the nobles.

E)established a right to habeas corpus.

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: The Federal System

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Q1) The Supreme Court's future decisions in the area of federalism are likely to depend mostly upon:

A)the kinds of individuals who are appointed to the Court.

B)the amount of money Congress appropriates to the Court in its budget.

C)whether the commerce clause remains in the Constitution.

D)the preferences of voters in national elections.

E)whether the nation reverts to a unitary or confederacy system.

Answer: A

Q2) The powers under the U.S.Constitution that can be exercised by both state and national governments, are known as

A)concurrent powers.

B)discretionary powers.

C)delegated powers.

D)reserved powers.

E)complementary powers.

Answer: A

Q3) The U.S.Constitution created the world's first federal form of government.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 4: Public Opinion and the Mass Media

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Q1) Which one of the following is true with respect to cell phones and polling?

A)Pollsters have been contacting people on their cell phones since cell phones were first introduced.

B)By 2007, more than 85 percent of American homes possessed only cell phones.

C)It is doubtful polling organizations will contact people on their cell phones.

D)Cell phones are automatically disqualified from participation in scientific polls.

E)The first pollster did not contact people on cell phones until January 2008.

Q2) The term salience refers to a political opinion held by a small portion of society.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The number of people who watched the CBS, NBC, and ABC evening news shows in 2008 was about half that of 1980.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Polling organizations allow themselves a margin of error of 5 to 10 percent.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 5: Political Parties and Interest Groups

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Q1) Which of the following does NOT explain why one-party systems exist within a two-party system?

A)a local basis for party loyalty that overrides any other factor

B)party competition itself, such that the minority party in a given area is unable to change the situation

C)The two-party system is inundated with multiple parties that aid one party's dominance.

D)People who live in one area may be so similar that most of them support the same party.

E)In some regions of the country neither of the two parties has local organizations or is competitive.

Q2) In terms of party systems, many democratic nations have

A)multiparty systems.

B)two-party systems.

C)single-party systems.

D)no-party systems.

E)fluctuating party systems.

Q3) With respect to party identification, what are the most likely future trends? Make sure you explain how historical trends support your prediction.

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Chapter 6: Nominations and Elections

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Q1) The "bandwagon effect" is defined as delegates rallying support of the candidate they believe will win the nomination.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Frontloading, the scheduling of state primaries early in the election season, has an impact on all EXCEPT

A)early nomination of presidential candidates by both parties.

B)making it extremely difficult for unknown candidates to stand a chance.

C)which party wins the election.

D)limiting state participation in the nominating process.

E)the scheduling of state nomination procedures in the calendar year.

Q3) The "office block" or "Massachusetts ballot" lists all the candidates according to A)the popularity of the candidates.

B)the office for which they are running.

C)political party.

D)last name regardless of the office for which they are running.

E)the amount of money each candidate has raised.

Q4) Identify some of the important factors that influence voting behavior and party support.

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Chapter 7: Congress

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Q1) Who would you say has been more successful in exercising power in the areas of budgetary spending and military affairs, Congress or the president? Explain.Make sure you discuss relevant events and laws.

Q2) The President of the Senate may vote in order to break a tie.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Under the 2000 Census, each one of the 435 U.S.House districts nationwide had to contain:

A)79,104 people

B)283,675 people

C)311, 192 people

D)654,361 people

E)1,000,000 people

Q4) In recent years, the use of the filibuster has become more controversial.Discuss the reasons for the filibuster in the U.S.Senate.Do you think the filibuster should be eliminated? Why or why not?

Q5) Explain some of the factors that influence the drawing of congressional district boundaries.What is gerrymandering and how does it affect electoral outcomes? What are some of the proposals for reform?

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Chapter 8: The Chief Executive

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Q1) Which presidential speech is required under the Employment Act of 1946?

A)State of the Union address

B)Annual Economic Report

C)National Budget message

D)"fireside chats"

E)weekly televised speeches to the American people.

Q2) When does the vice president vote when serving as the president of the Senate?

A)when a conference committee cannot achieve consensus

B)in unanimous votes only

C)only to break a tie

D)never

E)on any bill he or she pleases.

Q3) The power of a chief executive to cancel specific items in an appropriation or tax bill is called the

A)veto.

B)pocket veto.

C)legislative veto.

D)line item veto.

E)appropriation veto.

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Chapter 9: The Federal Bureaucracy

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Q1) The Executive Office of the President was created for what primary reason?

A)It was determined that the president needed help.

B)Congress wanted the executive branch to have more power than the legislative branch.

C)Congress wanted more input into executive affairs.

D)The president insisted it be created.

E)To provide for the national defense.

Q2) Independent regulatory commissions have been created by Congress to regulate a particular area of the nation's economy.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Line agencies are

A)those that only deal with the White House office.

B)those that carry out government policies and provide various types of services.

C)not responsible for carrying out policies nor services.

D)agencies that gather information and make it available to the chief executive officer.

E)those agencies that deal only with budgets or national defense issues.

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Chapter 10: The Judiciary

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Q1) The principle of stare decisis prohibits courts from overturning earlier decisions in cases with similar issues.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A written opinion of a judge who voted with the minority is called a(n)

A)opposing opinion.

B)majority opinion.

C)dissenting opinion.

D)concurring opinion.

E)advisory opinion.

Q3) In the majority of states, the most important trial court is a superior court or a circuit court.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Administrative law consists of the regulations that have been issued by administrative agencies.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Explain the role of standing within the context of the adversary system.

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Chapter 11: Civil Liberties

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Q1) Under the Supreme Court's decision in Brandenburg v.Ohio, A)any speech making direct or abstract advocacy of forcible action is not protected under the First Amendment.

B)the Court interpreted sedition statutes as prohibiting only advocacy, not discussion under the First Amendment.

C)advocating overthrow of the government was defined as a crime under the Fourth Amendment.

D)the Alien and Sedition Acts were upheld as constitutional under the First Amendment. E)speech showing imminent danger and the likelihood that the danger will actually occur is not protected under the First Amendment.

Q2) The First Amendment has been interpreted in part as the right to express religious ideas and to bar the government from restricting these ideas.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Under defamation, an expression of opinion can be the basis for a lawsuit.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 12: Civil Rights

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Q1) The level of analysis that falls somewhere between the tests of substantiality and strict scrutiny is referred to as "skeptical scrutiny".

A)True

B)False

Q2) Upon which delegated power under the Constitution did Congress rely to forbid discrimination in public facilities under Title II of the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

A)the power to approve interstate compacts

B)the power to provide for the common defense and general welfare

C)interstate rendition clause

D)the power to lay and collect and taxes

E)the power to regulate interstate commerce

Q3) The use of literacy tests as a requirement for voting began in 1920.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The Supreme Court's decision in Brown v.Board of Education (1954) ended segregation in schools across the nation within a few years.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Public Policy: What Government Does

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Q1) The deregulation of airline fares in the late 1970s marked the beginning of the move by government to loosen regulatory control.

A)True

B)False

Q2) What area of public policy stresses the importance of reducing inflation at all costs through control of the money supply?

A)fiscal policy

B)monetary policy

C)economic development policy

D)economic regulatory policy

E)trade and tariff policy

Q3) Pluralism believes that policy is shaped by a minority with great political and economic power.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The Environmental Protection Agency's enforcement of federal clean air and water laws is an example of redistributive policy.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Foreign Policy

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Sample Questions

Q1) Neo-liberal institutionalists believe that international institutions hamper cooperation on important global issues.

A)True

B)False

Q2) After World War II, the United States played the critical role in founding the

A)North Atlantic Commonwealth Organization.

B)Treaty Alliance Towards Organized Europe.

C)North American Transatlantic Association.

D)North Atlantic Treaty Organization.

E)Warsaw Pact.

Q3) The policy known as detente was employed when

A)equal access to markets in China was availed.

B)formalized relations with Vietnam were created.

C)peaceful relations with the Soviet Union were established.

D)Korea was unified.

E)the United States sought to open markets in Latin America to trade and investment.

Q4) Discuss the two competing theories of international relations and explain how each has influenced U.S.foreign policy.

Q5) Describe the governmental sources of American foreign policy.

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