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Coastal Processes and Management explores the dynamic interactions between physical, chemical, and biological processes that shape coastal environments. The course examines key concepts such as wave dynamics, sediment transport, tidal systems, and coastal erosion, as well as the natural and human-induced changes to coastal landscapes. Students will analyze case studies involving coastal hazards, climate change impacts, and sea level rise, alongside reviewing management strategies for sustainable development and protection of coastal zones. Practical components may include fieldwork, GIS mapping, and policy analysis to link theory with real-world coastal management challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Oceanography 8th Edition by Tom S. Garrison
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18 Chapters
900 Verified Questions
900 Flashcards
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Q1) The Earth was formed by the condensation of a cloud comprised of dust and gas.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Although it currently does not have an ocean, ____ is thought to have had one in the distant past.
A) Europa
B) Saturn
C) Jupiter
D) Mars
Answer: D
Q3) Studying microbes in extreme environments is tricky because when you retrieve the rocks they often change what they are doing.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) Earth was most likely chemically homogenous when it was young.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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Q1) What was the Meteor expedition's most important innovation?
A) The echo sounder
B) The bathyscaphe
C) Modern optical equipment
D) The steam winch
Answer: A
Q2) What vessel is attributed to being able to descend into the Challenger Deep?
A) Glomar Challenger
B) Trieste
C) Meteor
D) HMS Challenger II
Answer: B
Q3) Who was able to prove that there was not an actual continent in the Arctic?
A) John Murray
B) Fridtjof Nansen
C) Robert E. Peary
D) Charles Wyville Thomson
Answer: B
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Q1) What process intensified arguments about Earth's age because it would require long periods of time to occur?
A) Uniformitarianism
B) Catastrophism
C) Natural Selection
D) Biblical creation
Answer: C
Q2) What type of plate boundary would continental volcanoes like the Cascade Mountains in the western United States be associated with?
A) Divergent plate boundaries
B) Convergent plate boundaries
C) Transform plate boundaries
D) Rift boundary
Answer: B
Q3) What prevents the subduction of terranes?
A) The relative thin layer of crusts
B) The low density
C) The proximity from plate boundaries
D) The compression of continental crusts
Answer: B
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Q1) What is a continental margin? What are the differences between active and passive margins? Include alternative names for the margins and the plate boundaries associated with each.
Q2) The sinking of the RMS Titanic fueled research that would change the science of bathymetry.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the origin of most abyssal plain sediments?
A) Deep-ocean basalt
B) Biological activity
C) New crust development
D) Erosion from the continent
Q4) What is considered an important factor in shaping western boundary continental rises?
A) Turbidity currents
B) The width of the shelf slope
C) Erosion rates
D) Deep-ocean currents
Q5) What is a hydrothermal vent? What process is involved in their making? Who is responsible for discovering these vents?
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Q1) What explains why the ocean's sedimentary "memory" or record does not start with the ocean's formation?
A) Samples cannot be attained in deep water.
B) Ocean sediment records are destroyed by subduction.
C) No sediments deposit when new ocean basins form
D) Sediments are buried deep and are eventually metamorphosed
Q2) Which statement describes turbidites?
A) They are graded layers of terrigenous sand mixed with finer pelagic sediments.
B) They are propelled into position by gravity rather than water currents.
C) They are composed of distinct layers that represent various turbidity current events.
D) All of these choices are true about turbidites.
Q3) Which is an example of an authigenic sediment?
A) Quartz sand
B) Manganese nodules
C) Volcanic dust
D) Diatomaceous earth
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Q1) Why is sensible heat detectable while heat that is not sensible cannot be measured?
A) A thermometer can measure the decrease in temperature but not heat capacity.
B) The latent heat of fusion cannot be calculated.
C) Heat that is not sensible and heat that is sensible can both be measured.
D) A thermometer measures the decrease in temperature, but as liquid changes to solid, the loss of heat is not measurable.
Q2) What is true of heat capacity?
A) It is the measure of an object's response to an input of heat.
B) It is the measure of heat required to raise the temperature of one gram by 1° Celsius.
C) It is the measure of energy produced by random vibrations of atoms or molecules.
D) It is a consistent amount across various substances.
Q3) The refractive index of seawater:
A) is greater than freshwater.
B) is less than freshwater.
C) is equal to freshwater.
D) decreases with increasing salinity.
Q4) How do the properties of water help our oceans to remain in liquid form?
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Q1) What is the Forchhammer's principle?
A) The saturation level of seawater
B) The constant proportion of solids in seawater
C) The components of seawater from weathering surface rocks
D) The measure of the total mass of halogen ions
Q2) Residence times are dependent upon steady-state conditions and a well-mixed ocean.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which element would be surprisingly considered a trace element in the ocean despite its abundance in the atmosphere?
A) Sodium
B) Calcium
C) Chloride
D) Nitrogen
Q4) Which essential gas is often in an unusable form in the ocean and atmosphere?
A) Nitrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Methane
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Q1) The intertropical convergence zone coincides with Earth's meteorological equator which is different than the 0° latitude line.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lower atmosphere is a homogeneous mixture of gasses with nitrogen and oxygen being the most abundant.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The weak Coriolis effect at the equator does not allow tropical cyclones to form.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the Coriolis effect? What impact does it have on global circulation? Be specific.
Q5) What is the name given by sailors to the area where Hadley cells converge?
A) Horse latitudes
B) Intertropical convergence zone
C) Doldrums
D) Trade winds
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Q1) What is the name for slow, deep currents beneath the pycnocline?
A) Surface currents
B) Convection currents
C) Thermohaline currents
D) Polar currents
Q2) What mechanism is being used to gain new information regarding deep sea circulation?
A) Acoustic tomography
B) ACDP systems
C) Electromagnetic field detectors
D) Drift cards
Q3) What is a characteristic of Antarctic Bottom Water?
A) Extreme density
B) The water moves south towards Antarctica along the seafloor
C) Fast moving
D) Most is produced near the Mediterranean and joins the deep bottom layer
Q4) If the gradual rise of deep water at temperate and tropical zones were to stop, the thermocline would rise, making the difference in water layers steeper.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) How fast do wave trains travel in relation to individual waves in that train?
A) One-third as fast
B) One-fourth as fast
C) One-half as fast
D) Twice as fast
Q2) The tsunami that struck northern Japan in March 2011 began when a rupture along a submarine fault uplifted the sea surface by as much as 6 meters.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Orbitals of wind waves close to shore have elliptical orbits due to the proximity of the bottom.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When tsunamis begin to break ashore, they have very high wave crests.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between a storm surge and a seiche? What are the behaviors and causes of each?
Q6) How do wave trains travel? How do they interact with each other?
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Q1) There are over 140 factors that affect the generation and alteration of tides in the ocean.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is considered to be a true tidal wave? What occurs during these waves? Using the information you learned in Chapter 10, explain why there needs to be a distinction of a true tidal wave?
Q3) Where was the first tidal powered energy station positioned?
A) The estuary in the Rance River, France
B) The mouth of the Annapolis River, Nova Scotia
C) The Bay of Fundy, between Main and New Brunswick, Canada
D) Bristol, England
Q4) The west coast of the United States receives two high tides and two low tides of varying heights per day. What kind of tidal pattern is this?
A) Diurnal tides
B) Semidiurnal tides
C) Semidiurnal mixed tides
D) Spring tides
Q5) What are spring tides and neap tides? What tidal behaviors occur with each?
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Q1) Where are deltas common?
A) Low energy shores
B) High energy shores
C) Leading edges of continents
D) At the base of mountains
Q2) What is a factor that is instrumental in shaping an erosional coast?
A) Wind-driven grit abrasion
B) Stream erosion
C) Dissolution of acids and bases
D) All of these choices
Q3) What are the most common, large-scale features on a depositional coast?
A) Barrier islands
B) Moraines
C) Sand spits
D) Deltas
Q4) What creates a moraine?
A) Wave-dominated deltas
B) Glaciers
C) Atolls
D) Tombolos
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Q1) What open water zone is near shore and over the continental shelf?
A) Oceanic zone
B) Littoral zone
C) Hadal zone
D) Neritic zone
Q2) How deep is the photic layer usually along the coasts?
A) 50 meters
B) 100 meters
C) 150 meters
D) 590 meters
Q3) What is a more accurate term for the feeding relationship of organisms?
A) Food chain
B) Food web
C) Trophic chains
D) Primary consumption
Q4) Taxonomy is the study of biological classification schemes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are trophic levels? Why is it better to eat organisms lower on the tropic pyramid?
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Q1) Which plankton are considered microplankton?
A) Silicoflagellates
B) Dinoflagellates
C) Coccolithophores
D) Cyanobacteria
Q2) What is usually responsible for a harmful algal bloom?
A) Diatoms
B) Viruses
C) Cyanobactiera
D) Dinoflagellates
Q3) Approximately 55% of the sunlight energy absorbed by diatoms is converted into energy for carbohydrate chemical bonds.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After a plankton bloom, nonconservative nutrients are produced in high levels.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are seaweeds? What are the classifications of seaweeds?
Q6) Describe a microecosystem. How do plankton species interact in these microecosystems?
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Q1) What percentage of all living and fossil animals are invertebrates?
A) 10%
B) 50%
C) 70%
D) 90%
Q2) Cnidarians exhibit bilateral symmetry, an advancement from the phylum Porifera.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is considered the most primitive true animal?
A) Porifera
B) Cnidaria
C) Annelida
D) Mollusca
Q4) Which marine reptiles make long migrations to lay eggs on the very same beach they hatched from?
A) Sea turtles
B) Crocodiles
C) Lizards
D) Sea snakes
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Q1) What physical factors can the accumulation of coral and sediment change in the environment?
A) Ocean temperature and current patterns
B) Availability of food
C) Salinity
D) Density
Q2) What is a community?
A) A group of organisms of the same species
B) A group of interacting organisms of different species
C) The number of different species in an area
D) The largest marine ecosystem
Q3) What impact does environmental resistance have on a population? What kind of population distribution patterns occur in communities?
Q4) What community has the highest biomass per unit of surface area?
A) Rocky intertidal
B) Estuary
C) Sandy beach
D) Deep ocean
Q5) What are the types of symbiotic relationships that organisms exhibit? Give examples of each.
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Q1) Eight of the 11 species of large, hunted whales are considered to be commercially extinct.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The single largest sand mining operation is in Alaska.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is bycatch?
A) Organisms unintentionally killed during the harvesting of a different, desirable species
B) The number of organisms caught in a trawl
C) The number of organisms that can be harvested without impairing future generations
D) The targeted organisms for a harvest
Q4) How is freshwater obtained as a marine resource?
A) Potability
B) Evaporation
C) Desalination
D) Reverse osmosis
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Q1) Why are some male fish in the ocean developing female characteristics?
A) Evolution
B) PCBs
C) Estrogen-mimicking compounds
D) Mercury
Q2) ____ is the tool to finding solutions for environmental problems.
A) Education
B) Research
C) Commissions and policies
D) Time
Q3) What chemical is responsible for depleting the Earth's ozone at a rapid rate?
A) DDT
B) PCBs
C) CFCs
D) Carbon dioxide
Q4) Why is the ozone layer important?
A) It insulates Earth.
B) It increases the temperature.
C) It protects Earth from ultraviolet rays.
D) It stabilizes the atmospheric layers.
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