Clinical Respiratory Physiology Exam Practice
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Course Introduction
Clinical Respiratory Physiology explores the fundamental mechanisms and processes underlying normal and abnormal function of the respiratory system in humans. The course covers the anatomy and physiology of the lungs, gas exchange, regulation of breathing, and pulmonary circulation, with an emphasis on the application of physiological principles to clinical scenarios. Students will gain insights into common respiratory pathologies, diagnostic methods such as spirometry and blood gas analysis, and the interpretation of clinical data. This course bridges foundational respiratory science with clinical practice, preparing students to understand and manage respiratory disorders in a healthcare setting.
Recommended Textbook
Wilkins Clinical Assessment in Respiratory Care 7th Edition by Al Heuer PhD
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21 Chapters
773 Verified Questions
773 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Preparing for the Patient Encounter
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following activities is best performed in the personal space?
A)The interview
B)The introduction
C)The physical examination
D)Listening for breath sounds
Answer: A
Q2) In which stage of patient-clinician interaction is the patient identification bracelet checked?
A)Introductory stage
B)Preinteraction stage
C)Initial assessment stage
D)Treatment stage
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following behaviors is not consistent with resistive behavior of a patient?
A)Crossed arms
B)Minimal eye contact
C)Brief answers to questions
D)Asking the purpose of the treatment
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: The Medical History and the Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which section of the patient record should the following entry appear? "Day 4 of hospitalization.Patient febrile (39 C).Rales in both lung bases; sputum moderate, thick, green, tinged with blood.Plan: Continue ordered antibiotic therapy.Bronchoscopy tomorrow in AM."
A)Admission note
B)Physician orders
C)Progress notes
D)Discharge plan
Answer: C
Q2) Communication between two people can occur only if:
A)The speaker speaks clearly.
B)The receiver understands the message.
C)Each person is willing to listen to the other.
D)All of the above.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cardiopulmonary Symptoms
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents in the emergency department with blood-tinged sputum.The term associated with such sputum is:
A)Gelatinous.
B)Hemoptysis.
C)Hematemesis.
D)Mucopurulent.
Answer: B
Q2) The peak incidence of snoring in adult males occurs at ages _____ years.
A)60 to 64
B)50 to 59
C)51 to 55
D)45 to 50
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is the best definition of sputum?
A)Secretions
B)Thick tenacious secretions
C)Secretions from the lungs and lower airways
D)Secretions from the nose, mouth, and tracheobronchial tree
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions causes hypothermia?
A)Damage to the hypothalamus
B)Excessive shivering and vasoconstriction
C)Exposure to high environmental temperatures
D)Invasion of the body by microorganisms that produce an infection
Q2) A 42-year-old male patient with a history of poorly controlled asthma is seen in the emergency department by the respiratory therapist (RT).The patient is seated in a chair and clearly is in extreme respiratory distress, with inspiratory and expiratory wheezing throughout.He reports that he has had a fever for the past 2 days and has eaten and drunk very little.He also reports some chest pain, and his blood pressure is 95/55 mm Hg.At one point, the patient stands to move from the chair to the stretcher and has an episode of syncope.The differential diagnosis for this patient should include all of the following except:
A)Myocardial infarction (MI).
B)Acute asthma exacerbation.
C)Dehydration.
D)Cerebrovascular accident (CVA; stroke).
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Fundamentals of Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) A respiratory therapist (RT) examining a patient notes that on assessment of chest expansion with palpation, the right lower chest is found to lag behind the left lower chest.With which of the following problems is this finding consistent?
A)COPD
B)Right lower lobe pneumonia
C)Left lower lobe pneumonia
D)Severe asthma
Q2) Which of the following clinical disorders will cause decreased resonance to percussion?
A)COPD
B)Asthma
C)Pneumonia
D)Pneumothorax
Q3) Which of the following terms is used to describe double vision?
A)Miosis
B)Diplopia
C)Nystagmus
D)None of the above
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Chapter 6: Neurologic Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following diseases may be suggested by the involvement of multiple nerve roots?
A)Myasthenia gravis
B)Guillain-Barré syndrome
C)Brain tumor
D)Intracranial hypertension
Q2) The main goal of assessing mental status is to determine which of the following?
A)Consciousness
B)Awareness
C)Thinking
D)CNS dysfunction
Q3) Hyperventilation would be observed in a patient who has damaged which portion of the brainstem?
A)High-midbrain
B)Medulla
C)Mid-midbrain
D)Pons
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Chapter 7: Clinical Laboratory Studies
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56 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal percentage of lymphocytes in circulating white blood cells?
A)5% to 10%
B)15% to 25%
C)20% to 45%
D)50% to 70%
Q2) During evaluation of the enzymes, what disorder is associated with elevation of the CK-MB on electrophoresis?
A)Hepatitis
B)Renal failure
C)Metabolic acidosis
D)Myocardial infarction
Q3) What electrolyte abnormality is associated with irregular pulse, muscle weakness, and abdominal distention?
A)Hyperkalemia
B)Hypokalemia
C)Hyponatremia
D)Hypernatremia
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Chapter 8: Interpretation of Blood Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal value for arterial pH?
A)7.20 to 7.30
B)7.35 to 7.45
C)7.45 to 7.50
D)Greater than 7.50
Q2) Which of the following is the most common site for arterial puncture?
A)Radial artery
B)Ulnar artery
C)Temporal artery
D)Jugular artery
Q3) Which of the following parameters is the respiratory component of acid-base status?
A)PaCO
B)HCO -
C)PaO
D)Base excess
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Chapter 9: Pulmonary Function Testing
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal FEV to FVC ratio is approximately:
A)50%.
B)66%.
C)75%.
D)90%.
Q2) Which of the following medications is used most commonly during bronchoprovocation testing?
A)Methacholine
B)Isoproterenol
C)Methylene blue
D)Metaproterenol
Q3) The closing-volume (CV) test is used for early diagnosis of obstruction of airways of which of the following sizes?
A)Large
B)Medium
C)Small
D)Large and medium
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11
Chapter 10: Chest Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Radiographic signs of consolidation include all of the following except:
A)lobar distribution.
B)minimal loss of volume.
C)homogenous density late in the process.
D)a low shift of the diaphragm.
Q2) To minimize the magnification associated with portable films, how far should the patient and the film be from the source of the x-rays in a conventional chest x-ray?
A)6 feet
B)8 feet
C)10 feet
D)12 feet
Q3) In which of the following areas has magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) demonstrated superiority over CT scanning?
A)Evaluation of the hila
B)Evaluation of diffuse, interstitial lung disease
C)Evaluation of chest wall invasion by lung cancer
D)Both a and b
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Chapter 11: Interpretation of Electrocardiogram Tracings
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal progression of abnormalities seen on the ECG for a patient who is having a myocardial infarction?
A)ST elevation followed by large Q waves
B)ST depression followed by large Q waves
C)Large Q waves, ST elevation, followed by ST depression
D)ST depression, large Q waves, and then ST segment elevation
Q2) Why is it important for a respiratory therapist (RT) to be able to identify cardiac dysrhythmias?
A)It is likely that the RT will observe the onset of the initial event.
B)The RT is primarily responsible for management of the dysrhythmia.
C)The RT must be able to confirm the physician's initial diagnosis.
D)RTs are always the first responders for complaints of a cardiac nature.
Q3) What is the upper limit in height of the normal P wave?
A)1 mm
B)2.5 mm
C)3.5 mm
D)5 mm
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Chapter 12: Neonatal and Pediatric Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the upper limit of the normal range for the heart rate in the newborn?
A)120 beats/min
B)140 beats/min
C)160 beats/min
D)180 beats/min
Q2) What is the normal leukocyte count for newborns?
A)5000 to 15,000/mm3
B)9000 to 30,000/mm3
C)15,000 to 40,000/mm3
D)21,000 to 35,000/mm3
Q3) Why is it so important to quickly identify a low blood glucose level in a newborn?
A)Because of worry about impaired pulmonary function
B)Because it is detrimental to brain development
C)Because it results in rapid renal deterioration
D)Because it can result in blindness through retinal detachment
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14
Chapter 13: Older Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Age is the major risk factor for developing which of the following eye disorders?
A)Cataract
B)Glaucoma
C)Vascular disorders
D)Diabetic retinopathy
Q2) Which heart chamber typically thickens with aging?
A)All four chambers
B)The left atrium
C)The left ventricle
D)The right ventricle
Q3) What is the impact of aging on the body's immune system?
A)A higher white blood cell (WBC) count
B)Higher fevers in response to bacterial infections
C)Diminished response to vaccines
D)Decreased occurrence of reactivation tuberculosis (TB)
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Chapter 14: Respiratory Monitoring in Critical Care
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under normal conditions, the hemoglobin is responsible for carrying approximately what percentage of the oxygen carried in the blood?
A)66%
B)75%
C)88%
D)99%
Q2) Which level of a PaO /FIO ratio is consistent with a definition of acute lung injury (ALI)?
A)50
B)100 to 200
C)150
D)200 to 300
Q3) In adult patients, spontaneous tidal volumes should be at least what value if weaning is to be successful?
A)200 mL
B)300 mL
C)400 mL
D)500 mL
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Chapter 15: Vascular Pressure Monitoring
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase in pulmonary artery systolic pressure is seen in patients with all of the following conditions except:
A)pulmonary embolus.
B)mitral valve stenosis.
C)right ventricular failure.
D)hypoxia and hypoxemia.
Q2) The normal range for pulmonary artery diastolic pressure is _____ mm Hg.
A)0 to 8
B)8 to 15
C)15 to 28
D)28 to 35
Q3) An increase in CVP during inspiration most likely is caused by:
A)a mechanical breath.
B)a spontaneous breath.
C)the instrument not being zero-balanced correctly.
D)the catheter being inserted into the right ventricle.
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Chapter 16: Cardiac Output Measurement
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Sample Questions
Q1) The normal ejection fraction is approximately:
A)less than 50%.
B)55% to 60%.
C)65% to 70%.
D)75% to 80%.
Q2) Tachycardia in an adult is defined as a heart rate greater than _____ beats/min.
A)50
B)60
C)100
D)120
Q3) Which of the following does not have a direct effect on stroke volume?
A)Preload
B)Heart rate
C)Afterload
D)Contractility
Q4) At rest, approximately 64% of the total blood volume is stored in the:
A)liver.
B)lungs.
C)extremities.
D)venous system.
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Chapter 17: Bronchoscopy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the primary purpose of bronchoscopy in a patient with interstitial lung disease?
A)To perform microscopic assessment of the biopsy sample, which often is diagnostic
B)To stop massive hemoptysis
C)To identify the causative agent
D)To remove excessive secretions
Q2) The respiratory therapist (RT) who is assisting the pulmonologist during bronchoscopy should have medication cups of xylocaine, normal saline, and ________ ready before beginning the procedure.
A)acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
B)epinephrine
C)sterile water
D)midazolam (Versed)
Q3) What is the primary purpose of bronchoscopy in a patient with pneumonia?
A)To obtain biopsy specimens
B)To identify the causative organism
C)To control hemoptysis
D)To remove secretions
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Chapter 18: Nutrition Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of which of the following components should the majority of dietary intake be made up?
A)Fat
B)Carbohydrate
C)Protein
D)None of the above
Q2) How does the cachectic patient appear physically?
A)Central obesity only
B)Very thin and malnourished
C)Edematous around the face
D)Very short of breath
Q3) What mineral plays a very important role in oxygen transport?
A)Calcium
B)Iron
C)Zinc
D)Magnesium
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Sleep and Breathing Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which phase of sleep is characterized by delta or slow waves?
A)Stage 1 NREM
B)Stage 2 NREM
C)Stage 3 NREM
D)REM
Q2) In which stage of sleep is "restorative sleep" thought to occur?
A)Stage 1 NREM
B)Stage 2 NREM
C)Stage 3 NREM
D)REM
Q3) Which of the following will assist the RT in predicting sleep apnea?
A)Epworth Sleepiness Scale (ESS)
B)Berlin Questionnaire
C)Inspection of the chest
D)Electrocardiogram (ECG)
Q4) Cheyne-Stokes breathing is associated most closely with which type of SDB?
A)CSA
B)OSA
C)Mixed sleep apnea (MSA)
D)Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
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Chapter 20: Home Care Patient Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a common reason why patients with COPD may suffer acute dyspnea during meal preparation?
A)They have bronchospasm from the odors.
B)They remove their oxygen cannula during cooking.
C)They become nervous about gaining weight.
D)They are afraid of losing their balance.
Q2) What is the primary role of an RT in home care?
A)Communicate with other team members
B)Do the paper work associated with home care
C)Provide education and equipment setup
D)Give treatments as needed
Q3) How many patients are expected to need home care in the United States by the year 2016?
A)5 million
B)12 million
C)25 million
D)50 million
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22
Chapter 21: Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major purpose of the electronic medical record (EMR) includes which of the following?
A)Increase efficiencies in the healthcare system
B)Improve the quality of patient care
C)Increase patient safety
D)All of the above
Q2) According to experts, obtaining a good _____________ from a patient can give you a reasonable chance of correctly identifying a patient's problem before you do a single test.
A)arterial blood gas (ABG) results
B)chief complaint
C)medical history
D)appearance
Q3) What does the letter I stand for in the APIE method of documentation?
A)Implementation
B)Impact
C)Inconsistencies
D)Initiative
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