Clinical Procedures in Athletic Training
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
This course provides students with foundational knowledge and practical skills essential for the prevention, assessment, treatment, and rehabilitation of athletic injuries.
Emphasizing hands-on learning, students are trained in clinical examination techniques, immediate care procedures, therapeutic modality applications, and documentation practices within the context of athletic training. The course also integrates evidence-based practices and professional standards to ensure student preparedness for real-world clinical environments, promoting safe and effective care for physically active individuals.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Modalities 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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19 Chapters
380 Verified Questions
380 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Injury Response Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which events occur during the proliferation phase? Select all that apply.
A) Removal of debris and temporary repair tissue
B) Formation of a temporary vascular framework
C) Release of histamine to increase cell permeability
D) Norepinephrine is released,causing vasoconstriction of arterioles
E) Collagen aligns and attempts to adapt to the preinjury orientation
Answer: A,B
Q2) What type of exudate is a plasma-rich fluid that is especially high in plasma protein?
A) Fibrinous
B) Serous
C) Purulent
D) Ulcer
Answer: A
Q3) What type of afferent peripheral nerve is a muscle spindle?
A) Ia
B) Ib
C) II
D) III
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Physiology and Psychology of Pain
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Q1) Which statement best describes nociception?
A) Nociception must be interpreted as pain by higher brain centers.
B) Nociception is a neuropsychological process that must be interpreted as pain.
C) Nociception describes an unpleasant sensation.
D) Nociception is the neural process of encoding and processing noxious stimuli.
Answer: D
Q2) Which scenario will result in a closing of the gate,thus inhibiting the pain signal from getting to the second-order neuron?
A) Large-diameter afferent traffic is greater than small diameter.
B) Small-diameter afferent traffic is greater than large diameter.
C) Increase speed of small-diameter afferent transmission.
D) Increase speed of large-diameter afferent transmission.
Answer: A
Q3) What pain-decreasing medication temporarily blocks nerve conduction,thus resulting in the loss of sensation?
A) Aspirin
B) Lidocaine
C) Endorphin
D) Propoxyphene
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Development and Delivery of Intervention Strategies
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Q1) Which is most useful when determining the efficacy of an intervention?
A) Minimum detectable change
B) Minimally clinically important change
C) Maximum detectable change
D) Maximally clinically important change
Answer: A
Q2) When based on ______________,treatment goals can be used as the basis for research on treatment efficacy.
A) outcome measures
B) patient preference
C) cost effectiveness
D) short-term goals
Answer: A
Q3) In which component of the problem-solving approach would you identify the stage of the healing process?
A) Medical history
B) Recognition of the problem
C) Goal setting
D) Treatment planning
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Administrative Considerations
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Q1) What medical record document provides an ongoing record of the patient's intervention plan?
A) Treatment record
B) Prescription record
C) Injury report
D) Medical history
Q2) All therapeutic equipment must be inspected and calibrated by a qualified technician at least _____________.
A) yearly
B) weekly
C) monthly
D) twice a year
Q3) A failure to maintain accurate,legible medical records may result in what charge?
A) Ordinary negligence
B) Professional negligence
C) Ordinary and professional negligence
D) Neither ordinary nor professional negligence
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Chapter 5: Thermal Modalities
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Q1) Which scenario will result in the greatest decrease of subcutaneous tissue temperatures?
A) Ice bag applied with a compression wrap
B) Ice bag alone
C) Ice bag applied over an elastic wrap
D) Ice bag applied with a compression wrap over an elastic wrap
Q2) What effect does cold application have on edema formation and reduction? Select all that apply.
A) Cryotherapy limits edema formation.
B) Cryotherapy reduces the effects of arthrogenic inhibition.
C) Cold application promotes the removal of edema.
D) Cold application will not hinder venous return.
E) Cryotherapy decreases cell metabolism,which leads to less secondary hypoxic injury.
Q3) In which scenarios is heat indicated? Select all that apply.
A) To encourage tissue healing
B) To control the inflammatory reaction in its subacute or chronic stages
C) To improve range of motion
D) When acute inflammation is active
E) After activity to decrease cell metabolism
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Clinical Application of Thermal Modalities
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Q1) What modality carries the greatest risk of frostbite?
A) Reusable cold pack
B) Plastic bag with crushed ice
C) Cold compression therapy unit
D) Chemical cold pack
Q2) Which treatment is best suited for applying cold to injuries involving an irregular surface?
A) Ice immersion
B) Reusable cold pack
C) Cold compression therapy unit
D) Chemical cold pack
Q3) How many layers of terry-cloth towel should be placed between the skin and moist heat pack?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12
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Chapter 7: Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Q1) Which is an accurate statement concerning the use of 3-MHz ultrasound?
A) Used to treat deep tissues
B) Energy is rapidly absorbed by tissues
C) Heats 1/3 as fast as 1 MHz
D) Heating lasts longer than 1 MHz
Q2) When using ultrasound,how much does the target tissue's temperature need to be increased in order to promote tissue elongation?
A) 3.2°F
B) 5.2°F
C) 7.2°F
D) 10°F
Q3) What temperature increase is required to decrease muscle spasm and pain?
A) 1°C
B) 2 to 3°C
C) 3 to 4°C
D) 5°C
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Chapter 8: Clinical Application of Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Q1) Which ultrasound coupling method will transmit the most energy and cause more heating?
A) Direct coupling
B) 1-cm-thick gel pad
C) 2-cm-thick gel pad
D) Direct coupling and gel pads (1 and 2 cm)each transmit the same energy
Q2) Which coupling mediums are not able to transmit any ultrasound energy? Select all that apply.
A) White petroleum gel
B) Myoflex cream
C) Eucerin cream
D) 10 percent hydrocortisone powder in ultrasound gel
E) Saran wrap
Q3) At a depth of 5 cm,what rate will tissue temperature increase when 1-MHz ultrasound is used at 2 W/cm<sup>2</sup>?
A) 0.04°C/minute
B) 0.2°C/minute
C) 0.3°C/minute
D) 0.4°C/minute
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Chapter 9: Shortwave Diathermy
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Q1) When using microwave diathermy,how far must all metal be from pads,drums,or coils of the unit?
A) At least 2 feet
B) At least 4 feet
C) At least 6 feet
D) At least 8 feet
Q2) Which of the following are similar between shortwave diathermy and ultrasound?
A) Thermal and nonthermal effects
B) Volume of tissue treated
C) Bone's reflection of energy
D) Depth of treatment
Q3) What is an accurate statement regarding the heat generated via induction field diathermy?
A) The amount of heat depends only on the strength of the magnetic field.
B) Increasing the distance between the source of the electromagnetic field and the tissue will increase the heating.
C) Heat is produced via the dipole effect.
D) Increased adipose tissue thickness will reduce the rate and magnitude of heating.
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Chapter 10: Clinical Application of Shortwave Diathermy
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Q1) Which of the following are nonthermal effects resulting from shortwave diathermy treatment? Select all that apply.
A) Improved tissue healing
B) Edema reduction
C) Lymphedema reduction
D) Increased blood flow
E) Increased cell metabolism
Q2) Which of the following is a precaution when treating with shortwave diathermy?
A) Anesthetic area with nonthermal mode
B) Acute injury with thermal mode
C) Ischemic area
D) Fracture site
Q3) Which of the following heating modalities is capable of penetrating all the tissues of the body?
A) Ultrasound
B) Shortwave diathermy
C) Warm whirlpool
D) Moist heat pack
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12
Chapter 11: Principles of Electrical Stimulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) What biological tissue is the primary resistor to therapeutic electrical flow?
A) Skin
B) Muscle
C) Adipose
D) Fascia
Q2) When using an alternating current,how many times would a current of 100 Hz change its direction of flow in two seconds?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200
Q3) Ohm's law describes the relationship between what characteristics of electrical currents? Select all that apply.
A) Amperage
B) Voltage
C) Resistance
D) Wattage
E) Frequency
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Chapter 12: Electrical Stimulation Techniques
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Q1) What are the correct pain control parameters of an electrical stimulation treatment meant to trigger the release of enkephalins?
A) High-pulse frequency with sensory-level stimulation
B) High-pulse frequency with motor-level stimulation
C) Low-pulse frequency with high-intensity stimulation
D) Low-pulse frequency with short phase-duration
Q2) What best describes habituation?
A) A nerve's rate of depolarization decreases while the stimulus remains constant.
B) There is increased tolerance to the stimulus developed across one treatment.
C) Your client is able to increase the intensity of the stimulus after 5 minutes of treatment.
D) The CNS process one experiences everyday of filtering out a continuous,nonmeaningful stimuli.
Q3) Which is true regarding electrically induced muscle contractions?
A) Small-diameter fibers are recruited first.
B) Contractions and recruitment are synchronous.
C) Golgi's tendon organs protect the muscle from producing too much force.
D) There is a slow onset of fatigue.
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Chapter 13: Clinical Application of Electrical Agents
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Q1) Which of the following are indications for the use of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation? Select all that apply.
A) Acute pain
B) Increasing local blood flow
C) Postsurgical pain
D) Pain of unknown origin
E) Muscle reeducation
Q2) What electrical current frequency will experience the least capacitive skin resistance?
A) 500 Hz
B) 200 Hz
C) 2000 Hz
D) 5000 Hz
Q3) When applying transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS),which protocol provides relief for hours and uses two to four pulses per second?
A) High TENS
B) Low TENS
C) Brief-intense TENS
D) Long-intense TENS
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Intermittent Compression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compression units should not be used until what pathologies have been ruled out? Select all that apply.
A) Fracture
B) Compartment syndrome
C) Acute sprain
D) Acute strain
E) Chronic arthritis
Q2) Which statement is true concerning the pressure gradient created by the application of external compression?
A) The gradient between the tissue hydrostatic pressure and the capillary filtration pressure is increased.
B) A second pressure gradient is formed between the higher pressure in the proximal portion and the lower pressure in the distal portion.
C) Elevating the extremity during the treatment does not alter the pressure gradients.
D) Spreading solid edematous matter over a larger area with external compression allows more lymphatic ducts to absorb the wastes.
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16
Chapter 15: Continuous Passive Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) When compared to faster speeds,slower speeds of continuous passive motion are theorized to produce better tensile properties of healing tendons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pumping action created by continuous passive motion circulates synovial fluid and assists in the removal of what? Select all that apply.
A) Joint hemarthrosis
B) Periarticular edema
C) Blood from tissue surrounding the joint
D) Pitting edema
E) Lymphedema
Q3) The decision to use continuous passive motion should be based on the specific pathology to be treated.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Cervical and Lumbar Traction
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Q1) When treating the cervical spine,you should question the patient about sensation in what region(s)of the spine?
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Cervical,thoracic,and lumbar
Q2) Which pathology can eventually cause the formation of osteophytes,which can cause the vertebral column to straighten?
A) Degenerative disk disease
B) Disk protrusion
C) Nerve root compression
D) Facet joint pathology
Q3) The effect and effectiveness of traction is related to which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Position of the body part
B) Position of the patient
C) Force and duration of traction
D) Angle of pull
E) Force of friction
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Therapeutic Massage
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Sample Questions
Q1) Due to the possibility of misuse,many states require what type of regulation for massage therapists?
A) Licensure
B) Certification
C) Registration
D) No regulation is required.
Q2) Which of the following accurately describes a general form of myofascial release application?
A) Stabilize distal portion with one hand while applying a stretch with the other.
B) Pull the tissues in opposite directions.
C) Use the patient's body weight to stabilize the extremity while a transverse stretch is applied.
D) Stabilize the superior with one hand while stretching with the other.
Q3) What type of effleurage stroke encourages blood flow and stimulates the tissues?
A) Light strokes
B) Rapid strokes
C) Deep strokes
D) Slow strokes
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19
Chapter 18: Electromyographic Biofeedback
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Q1) The integrity of the electromyographic biofeedback signal depends on the number of filters used,with the signal becoming more precise with more filters.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the correct order of electromyographic biofeedback signal processing?
A) Identify; amplify; rectify; integrate; output
B) Identify; rectify; amplify; integrate; output
C) Identify; amplify; integrate; rectify; output
D) Identify; integrate; amplify; rectify; output
Q3) When using biofeedback to facilitate an isometric contraction,how many contractions should the treatment be limited to if the muscle group is severely atrophied?
A) 5 contractions
B) 5 to 10 contractions
C) 10 to 15 contractions
D) 20 contractions
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Chapter 19: Low-Level Laser Therapy
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Q1) Effects of laser therapy that occur from the absorption of photons are termed "indirect effects."
A)True
B)False
Q2) According to the practical evidence,laser with a wavelength of 670 nm has demonstrated effectiveness in the short-term relief of pain associated with lateral epicondylalgia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which statement is true concerning a gallium arsenide (GaAs)laser?
A) GaAs is produced by a semiconductor diode chip.
B) GaAs produces a visible red light.
C) GaAs energy can penetrate tissues up to 5 cm deep.
D) GaAs delivers a light wave at 670 nm.
Q4) Lasers produce highly refined,_________light in the ultraviolet,visible,or infrared range.
A) monochromatic
B) bichromatic
C) trichromatic
D) multichromatic
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