Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants
Final Exam
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the fundamental clinical procedures performed by medical assistants in healthcare settings. Students will learn the principles and techniques involved in patient assessment, vital signs measurement, specimen collection, basic laboratory tests, infection control, and assisting with medical examinations and minor office surgeries. Emphasis is placed on safety protocols, accurate documentation, patient communication, and ethical considerations to ensure high-quality patient care. The course combines classroom instruction with hands-on practice, preparing students for real-world clinical responsibilities in ambulatory and outpatient care environments.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Procedures for Medical Assistants 9th Edition by Kathy Bonewit
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21 Chapters
1057 Verified Questions
1057 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The Medical Record
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How are paper documents entered into a patient's electronic medical record?
A)By scanning them into the computer
B)By retyping them on the computer
C)By photocopying them
D)By transmitting them through a modem
Answer: A
Q2) What term is used to describe a patient who has been admitted to the hospital for at least one overnight stay?
A)Outpatient
B)Ambulatory patient
C)Guest
D)Inpatient
Answer: D
Q3) In a source-oriented record,a radiology report is filed under which of the following chart dividers?
A)History and Physical
B)Progress Notes
C)Lab/X-ray
D)Hospital
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Medical Asepsis and the Osha Standard
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cilia remove pathogens from the body by A)providing an acidic environment.
B)engulfing pathogens.
C)trapping microorganisms.
D)constantly beating toward the outside.
E)all of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following are growth requirements for microorganisms except A)darkness.
B)moisture.
C)nutrition.
D)acidic environment.
Answer: D
Q3) All of the following are examples of work practice controls except A)sanitizing the hands after removing gloves.
B)placing a lancet in a biohazard sharps container.
C)picking up broken glassware with gloved hands.
D)bandaging a cut on the hands before gloving.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Sterilization and Disinfection
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Sample Questions
Q1) High-level disinfection is a process that destroys all A)pathogenic microorganisms.
B)microorganisms and spores.
C)microorganisms except tubercle bacilli.
D)microorganisms but not spores.
Answer: D
Q2) The inside of the autoclave should be wiped every day with a A)damp cloth.
B)disinfectant.
C)low-sudsing detergent.
D)scouring pad.
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial spores?
A)They consist of a hard, thick-walled capsule.
B)They represent a resting and protective stage.
C)They are more resistant to heat.
D)They usually cannot be killed by disinfectants.
E)All of the above are characteristics of bacterial spores.
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Vital Signs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The control center for involuntary respiration is the A)medulla.
B)thalamus.
C)hypothalamus.
D)olfactory lobe.
Q2) All of the following can be used as a probe placement site except the A)toe.
B)earlobe.
C)finger of an arm to which an automatic blood pressure cuff is applied.
D)index finger.
Q3) What type of cuff would probably be needed to measure blood pressure on an overweight adult weighing 250 pounds?
A)Small adult
B)Adult
C)Child
D)Thigh
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6
Chapter 5: The Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Before applying a stethoscope chest piece to the patient's skin,it should be A)soaked in bleach.
B)warmed.
C)autoclaved.
D)calibrated.
Q2) The lithotomy position is used to examine the A)vagina.
B)abdomen.
C)sigmoid colon.
D)breasts.
Q3) To view,to examine A)audi/o
B)bar/o
C)dia-
D)-gnosis
E)-iatrics
F)-meter
G)ophthalm/o
H)ot/o
I)-scope
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Chapter 6: Eye and Ear Assessment and Procedures
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When not in use,Ishihara color plates must be protected from A)high humidity.
B)light.
C)cold temperatures.
D)loud music.
Q2) A Snellen eye test is conducted at a distance of
A)30 inches.
B)10 feet.
C)20 feet.
D)40 feet.
Q3) Which of the following individuals interprets and fills ophthalmic prescriptions such as a prescription for eyeglasses?
A)Optician
B)Optometrist
C)Oculist
D)Orthopedist
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Chapter 7: Physical Agents to Promote Tissue Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following individuals would have a more than usual sensitivity to the local application of heat?
A)Elderly individual
B)Preschool child
C)Patient with diabetes mellitus
D)Patient with an open wound
E)All of the above
Q2) An ice bag should be filled with small pieces of ice to
A)prevent the application from becoming too cold.
B)allow the bag to mold better to a body area.
C)prevent adverse secondary effects.
D)avoid irritation to the patient's skin.
Q3) After immersing a patient's foot in a hot soak,the medical assistant should
A)ask the patient how the temperature feels.
B)increase the temperature of the water.
C)add crushed ice.
D)instruct the patient to wiggle his or her toes.
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9
Chapter 8: The Gynecologic Examination and Prenatal Care
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of a bimanual pelvic examination is to
A)detect the presence of a vaginal infection.
B)collect a Pap smear.
C)determine the size, shape, and position of the uterus and ovaries.
D)detect the presence of hemorrhoids and fissures.
E)do all of the above.
Q2) What is the usual schedule of prenatal visits during the first 28 weeks of gestation?
A)Twice each week
B)Every week
C)Every 2 weeks
D)Every 4 weeks
Q3) Gynecology is the branch of medicine that deals with A)prenatal care.
B)diseases of the reproductive organs of women.
C)diseases of geriatric patients.
D)care of the newborn.
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10
Chapter 9: The Pediatric Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following injection sites should be used to administer IM injections to infants and young children?
A)Dorsogluteal
B)Vastus lateralis
C)Deltoid
D)Ventrogluteal
Q2) Which of the following is required by the NCVIA before an immunization is administered?
A)The parent must be provided with information on the benefits and risks of the immunization.
B)The parent must sign a consent form.
C)The child must be promised a sticker after the injection.
D)The expiration date of the vaccine must be checked three times.
Q3) Head circumference is measured in
A)millimeters.
B)grams.
C)centimeters or inches.
D)microns.
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11
Chapter 10: Minor Office Surgery
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Sample Questions
Q1) What name is given to the type of wound in which the tissues are torn apart,leaving ragged and irregular edges?
A)Cut
B)Puncture
C)Laceration
D)Abrasion
Q2) The protective response of the body to trauma and the entrance of foreign substances is called
A)infection.
B)inflammation.
C)healing.
D)immunity.
Q3) All of the following may cause an ingrown toenail except A)tight shoes.
B)trauma.
C)improper nail trimming.
D)long periods of standing.
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12
Chapter 11: Administration of Medication and Intravenous Therapy
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84 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following references could you use to look up the adverse reactions of Zithromax?
A)Physicians' Desk Reference
B)United States Pharmacopeia
C)National Formulary
D)The Farmer's Almanac
Q2) Advantages of administering IV therapy in an outpatient setting include all of the following except
A)patient savings in medical costs.
B)avoidance of hospitalization.
C)less pain and tissue trauma.
D)patient convenience.
Q3) Which of the following must be included in a prescription for a controlled drug?
A)Schedule category of the drug
B)Lot number of the drug
C)Physician's DEA number
D)Patient's Social Security number
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cardiopulmonary Procedures
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58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT)?
A)Rapid fluttering of the atrium
B)Sudden onset and termination of symptoms
C)Increase in heart rate of the patient
D)Patient weakness and acute apprehension
Q2) What is the name given to the portion of the ECG between two waves?
A)Segment
B)Baseline
C)Interval
D)Polarization line
Q3) What is the name of the knot of modified myocardium that initiates and regulates the heartbeat?
A)Medulla
B)AV node
C)SA node
D)Bundle branches
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Chapter 13: Colon Procedures and Male Reproductive Health
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following positions is used for flexible fiberoptic sigmoidoscopy?
A)Sims
B)Lithotomy
C)Prone
D)Supine
Q2) Patient instructions for the guaiac slide test include
A)begin the diet modifications 3 days before collecting the first stool specimen.
B)store slides at room temperature.
C)protect slides from heat and sunlight.
D)collect a sample from two different parts of each stool specimen.
E)all of the above.
Q3) What is occult blood?
A)Less than 5 mL of blood in the stool
B)Digested blood
C)Blood that is not visible
D)Visible red blood
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Chapter 14: Radiology and Diagnostic Imaging
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Sample Questions
Q1) An IVP is used to assist in the diagnosis of all of the following except A)kidney stones.
B)blockage of the urinary tract.
C)growths of the urinary system.
D)urinary tract infections.
Q2) What is an anteroposterior (AP)radiographic view?
A)The X-rays are directed from one side of the body to the other side.
B)The X-rays are directed from the front to the back of the body.
C)The patient is positioned at an angle.
D)The X-rays are directed from the back to the front of the body.
Q3) Which of the following individuals is at particular risk for osteoporosis?
A)A patient with osteoarthritis
B)An obese individual
C)A patient with diabetes
D)A postmenopausal woman
Q4) The permanent record of the picture produced on the X-ray film is known as a A)radiology.
B)sonogram.
C)radiograph.
D)tomogram.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Introduction to the Clinical Laboratory
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a violation of laboratory safety precautions?
A)Disposing of broken glassware in a puncture-resistant container
B)Talking in the laboratory
C)Opening a centrifuge before it comes to a complete stop
D)Recapping reagent bottles immediately after use
Q2) Why is it important to handle and store a specimen properly?
A)To reduce the time needed to test the specimen
B)To maintain the in vitro qualities of the specimen
C)To ensure valid results from quality control methods
D)To maintain the in vivo qualities of the specimen
Q3) What is the purpose of the patient accession number found on the laboratory report?
A)To provide identification of each specimen in the laboratory
B)To provide information required for third-party billing
C)To identify the source of the specimen
D)To assist the physician in making a diagnosis
E)All of the above
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17
Chapter 16: Urinalysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen,a small amount of urine is voided into the toilet before obtaining the specimen to
A)remove pathogens from the bladder.
B)ensure the collection of an adequate amount of urine.
C)prevent irritation of the urethra.
D)flush microorganisms out of the distal urethra.
Q2) What odor does a urine specimen have if it has been allowed to stand at room temperature for long time?
A)Ammonia
B)Slightly aromatic
C)Fruity
D)Foul-smelling
Q3) After a urine culture has been inoculated,it must be
A)sprayed with a fixative.
B)placed in the refrigerator for 4 to 6 hours.
C)stored at room temperature for 8 to 12 hours.
D)incubated for 18 to 24 hours.
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18
Chapter 17: Phlebotomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is another name for the butterfly method of venipuncture?
A)Winged infusion method
B)Syringe method
C)Luer adapter method
D)Z-track method
Q2) Which of the following is found in the serum of blood?
A)Glucose
B)Hormones
C)Chloride
D)Antibodies
E)All of the above
Q3) Which of the following represents an error in technique when selecting a vein for venipuncture?
A)Examining the antecubital veins of both arms
B)Using the thumb to palpate the vein
C)Determining the size and depth of the vein
D)Tracing the path of the vein
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Chapter 18: Hematology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the normal range for a red blood cell count for a woman (in cells per cubic millimeter of blood)?
A)3 to 4 million
B)4 to 5.5 million
C)4.5 to 6.2 million
D)5 to 6 million
Q2) The nucleus of a neutrophil generally contains
A)three to five lobes.
B)six to eight lobes.
C)fine granules.
D)no lobes.
Q3) How many pints of blood does the average adult contain?
A)4 to 6 pints
B)8 to 10 pints
C)10 to 12 pints
D)15 to 20 pints
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Chapter 19: Blood Chemistry and Immunology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The recommended A c level for an individual with diabetes is A)4% to 6%.
B)less than 6%.
C)less than 7%.
D)greater than 8%.
Q2) The primary use of the cholesterol test is to
A)study liver functioning.
B)screen for the presence of coronary artery disease.
C)study thyroid functioning.
D)diagnose a myocardial infarction.
Q3) The function of glucose in the body is to A)maintain healthy epithelial tissue.
B)provide energy for the body.
C)make bones and teeth hard.
D)assist in normal blood clotting.
Q4) What term is used to describe an abnormally low level of glucose in the blood?
A)Hyperglycemia
B)Glycosuria
C)Hypoglycemia
D)Acidosis
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Chapter 20: Medical Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Syphilis is caused by a A)spirochete.
B)bacillus.
C)Streptococcus.
D)Diplococcus.
Q2) To view bacteria present on a smear,it first must be
A)stained with an appropriate dye.
B)immersed in alcohol for 15 to 20 minutes.
C)incubated for 24 hours.
D)allowed to air dry for 10 minutes.
Q3) Staphylococcal infections usually result in which of the following?
A)Gangrene
B)Petechiae
C)Pus formation
D)Maculopapular vesicles
Q4) What is a smear?
A)Material spread on a slide for microscopic examination
B)A small sample taken to represent the nature of the whole
C)A mass of microorganisms growing in a laboratory culture medium
D)A small piece of cotton wrapped around the end of a wooden stick
22
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Chapter 21: Emergency Medical Procedures
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of shock is caused by loss of blood or other body fluids?
A)Neurogenic
B)Hypovolemic
C)Cardiogenic
D)Hemorrhaging
Q2) What is the name of the individual who is qualified to perform advanced life support measures?
A)EMT-Basic
B)EMT-Paramedic
C)MLT
D)EMD
Q3) Which of the following is not a responsibility of an EMD?
A)To answer emergency calls
B)To obtain needed information from a caller
C)To provide consent for treatment of a conscious patient
D)To send appropriate personnel and equipment
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