Clinical Pathophysiology Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
Clinical Pathophysiology explores the underlying mechanisms of disease processes that alter normal physiological functions in the human body. The course provides an in-depth examination of how disruptions at the cellular, tissue, and organ levels manifest as clinical symptoms and laboratory findings. Emphasis is placed on understanding the progression of common and significant diseases, their etiology, and the correlation between pathological changes and clinical presentations. Through case studies and application of theoretical concepts, students develop the analytical skills necessary to interpret clinical data and make informed decisions in patient care settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 6th Edition by Jacquelyn L. Banasik
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54 Chapters
1199 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Socioeconomic factors influence disease development because of (Select all that apply.)
A) genetics.
B) environmental toxins.
C) overcrowding.
D) nutrition.
E) hygiene.
Answer: B,C,D,E
Q2) Your patient's red blood cell is slightly elevated today.This might be explained by (Select all that apply.)
A) gender difference.
B) situational factors.
C) normal variation.
D) cultural variation.
E) illness.
Answer: A,B,C,E
Q3) When the cause is unknown,a condition is said to be idiopathic
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis, Allostasis, and Adaptive
Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effect of stress on the immune system
A) is unknown.
B) has been demonstrated to be non-existent in studies.
C) most often involves enhancement of the immune system.
D) may involve enhancement or impairment the immune system.
Answer: D
Q2) Which is not normally secreted in response to stress?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Cortisol
C) Epinephrine
D) Insulin
Answer: D
Q3) Chronic activation of stress hormones can lead to (Select all that apply.)
A) cardiovascular disease.
B) depression.
C) impaired cognitive function.
D) autoimmune disease.
E) overactive immune function.
Answer: A,B,C,D
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gap junctions are connecting channels that allow passage of small molecules from one cell to the next and are especially important for
A) distance signaling.
B) tissues requiring synchronized function.
C) communication within a cell.
D) passage of large molecules.
Answer: B
Q2) Phospholipids spontaneously form lipid bilayers,because they are A) polar.
B) charged.
C) insoluble.
D) amphipathic.
Answer: D
Q3) During conditions of prolonged insufficient oxygen availability (e.g.,respiratory or cardiovascular disease)anaerobic glycolysis accumulated pyruvate can lead to lactic acidosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cellular response indicative of injury because of faulty metabolism is
A) hydropic swelling.
B) lactate production.
C) metaplasia.
D) intracellular accumulations.
Q2) Coagulative necrosis is caused by
A) dissolving of dead cells and cyst formation.
B) trauma or pancreatitis.
C) lung tissue damage.
D) interrupted blood supply.
Q3) Metaplasia is
A) the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.
B) the transformation of a cell type to malignancy.
C) an irreversible cellular adaptation.
D) the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements.
Q4) Somatic death refers to death
A) of a body organ.
B) of the entire organism.
C) of nerve cells.
D) secondary to brain damage.
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues are resulting from
A) gene differences in tissue cells.
B) expression of tissue-specific genes.
C) transcriptional controls.
D) translation of amino acids to proteins.
Q2) Protein synthesis involves (Select all that apply.)
A) direction from mRNA.
B) amino acid movement into the nucleus.
C) nucleotide triplets.
D) RNA polymerase.
E) removal of introns from the DNA template.
Q3) In DNA replication DNA polymerase functions to (Select all that apply.)
A) pry DNA apart.
B) unwind and separate the DNA strands.
C) prevent tangling of DNA strands as they unwind.
D) match appropriate bases to the template base.
E) proofread the newly developed DNA for errors in base pairing.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystic fibrosis is a single-gene disorder that primarily affects
A) brain and heart.
B) kidney and adrenals.
C) lungs and pancreas.
D) liver and intestine.
Q2) A point mutation
A) results from the addition or loss of one or more bases.
B) is because of the translocation of a chromosomal segment.
C) always produces significant dysfunction.
D) involves the substitution of a single base pair.
Q3) The primary factor associated with the risk of Down syndrome is
A) family history of heritable diseases.
B) exposure to TORCH syndrome organisms.
C) maternal alcohol intake.
D) maternal age.
Q4) Characteristics of X-linked (sex-linked)recessive disorders include
A) all daughters of affected fathers' being carriers.
B) boys' and girls' being equally affected.
C) the son of a carrier female's having a 25% chance of being affected.
D) affected fathers' transmitting the gene to all their sons.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer grading is based on
A) tumor size.
B) local invasion.
C) cell differentiation.
D) metastasis.
Q2) Retroviruses are associated with human cancers,including A) Burkitt lymphoma.
B) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
C) pancreatic cancer.
D) hepatic cancer.
Q3) Deficits in immune system function occur in cancer as a result of (Select all that apply.)
A) chemotherapy.
B) cancer cells.
C) cancer metastasis to bone marrow.
D) immunotherapy.
E) malnutrition.
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) An infectious disease that is common in a community is termed A) endemic.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) partdemic.
Q2) Risk of infection is increased in (Select all that apply.)
A) use of corticosteroids.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) spleen removal.
D) stomach removal.
E) stress.
Q3) Drug resistance of microbes occurs secondary to A) patient allergy to a drug.
B) mutation of the microbe.
C) enhance pathogenicity of the microbe.
D) using high doses of drugs.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Functions of T cells include (Select all that apply.)
A) synthesizing antibodies.
B) secreting cytokines.
C) killing antigen-presenting cells.
D) stimulating of B cells.
E) killing virally infected cells.
Q2) The spleen is an important defense against infection,because it
A) activates the complement cascade.
B) initiates inflammation.
C) controls phagocytosis.
D) filters the blood.
Q3) The mononuclear phagocyte system consists of (Select all that apply.)
A) monocytes and tissue macrophages.
B) dendritic cells.
C) bone marrow stem cells.
D) antibody-secreting plasma cells.
E) basophils.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child with a history of recent strep throat infection develops glomerulonephritis.This is most likely a type _____ hypersensitivity reaction.
A) I
B) II
C) III
D) IV
Q2) The principle Ig mediator of type I hypersensitivity reactions is A) IgA.
B) IgG.
C) IgM.
D) IgE.
Q3) The hypersensitivity reaction that does not involve antibody production is type A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is diagnosed with hairy cell leukemia.The patient's laboratory results would most likely indicate a decrease in (Select all that apply.)
A) granulocytes.
B) platelets.
C) white blood cells.
D) red blood cells.
E) melanocytes.
Q2) The major cause of death from leukemic disease is A) infection.
B) malnutrition.
C) hypovolemic shock.
D) kidney failure.
Q3) The patient is a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL).As part of treatment,the patient must undergo several weeks of chemotherapy.The most serious complication of chemotherapy is A) vomiting.
B) anemia.
C) alopecia.
D) infection.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) HIV replicates very quickly from the onset of infection.What is the major site of HIV replication?
A) Vaginal mucosa
B) Anal mucosa
C) GI tract
D) Respiratory tract
Q2) Which statement best describes the etiologic development and transmission of AIDS?
A) AIDS is caused by a retrovirus and transmitted through body fluids.
B) The mechanism of AIDS transmission is unknown; therefore, AIDS is considered to be highly contagious.
C) AIDS is an autoimmune disease triggered by a homosexual lifestyle.
D) AIDS is caused by a virus that can be transmitted only by sexual contact.
Q3) In which type of cells is the CD4 found? (Select all that apply.)
A) T cells
B) Microglial cells
C) Retinal cells
D) Cervical cells
E) Pacemaker cells
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which characteristic is indicative of hemolytic anemia?
A) Increased total iron-binding capacity
B) Increased heart rate
C) Hypovolemia
D) Jaundice
Q2) The primary source of erythropoietin is provided by the
A) bone marrow.
B) kidney.
C) lung.
D) liver.
Q3) A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)and mean corpuscular volume (MCV)are characteristic of which type of anemia?
A) Vitamin B deficiency
B) Folate deficiency
C) Iron deficiency
D) Erythropoietin deficiency
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Homeostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which diseases may be associated with a bleeding problem? (Select all that apply.)
A) Urinary retention
B) Renal failure
C) Cirrhosis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
E) Ovarian cancer
Q2) Disseminated intravascular coagulation may be treated with heparin therapy to A) enhance fibrinolysis.
B) inhibit clotting factor consumption.
C) activate platelets.
D) enhance liver synthesis of clotting factors.
Q3) Activation of the extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by A) platelet factors.
B) collagen exposure.
C) tissue thromboplastin.
D) factor VII.
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood flow throughout the periphery is regulated by A) cardiac output.
B) the autonomic nervous system.
C) velocity.
D) hemodynamics.
Q2) Blood flow is slow through capillaries because capillaries
A) are so far away from the heart.
B) have the largest total cross-sectional area.
C) are so narrow.
D) have no smooth muscle.
Q3) Blood flow is measured as a given number of (Select all that apply.)
A) liters.
B) milliliters.
C) nanoliters.
D) cubic centimeters.
E) cubic millimeters.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg,retinopathy,and symptoms of an ischemic stroke.This symptomology is likely the result of
A) arthrosclerosis.
B) angina.
C) myocardial infarction.
D) hypertensive crisis.
Q2) The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in A) non-Hispanic white adults.
B) Mexican-American adults.
C) non-Hispanic black adults.
D) Asian children.
Q3) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors block the A) release of rennin.
B) conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
C) conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
D) effect of aldosterone on the kidney.
Q4) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is pulmonary disease. A)True B)False
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Myocardial cells are connected by gap junctions enabling them to A) all be stimulated simultaneously.
B) function as a coordinated syncytium.
C) be affected by the autonomic nervous system.
D) share ATP.
Q2) While caring for a geriatric patient,the changes in the heart that may be expected include
A) increased oxygen consumption.
B) increased coronary artery blood flow.
C) decreased response to an elevated heart rate.
D) cardiomyopathy.
Q3) Echocardiograms are used to help diagnose (Select all that apply.)
A) heart enlargement.
B) valvular disorders.
C) cardiac tumors.
D) left ventricular motion abnormalities.
E) collection of fluid in lung bases.
Q4) A standard ECG has 13 leads.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A loud pansystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla is most likely a result of
A) aortic regurgitation.
B) aortic stenosis.
C) mitral regurgitation.
D) mitral stenosis.
Q2) An elderly patient's blood pressure is measured at 160/98.How would the patient's left ventricular function be affected by this level of blood pressure?
A) This is an expected blood pressure in the elderly and has little effect on left ventricular function.
B) Left ventricular workload is increased with high afterload.
C) High blood pressure enhances left ventricular perfusion during systole.
D) High-pressure workload leads to left ventricular atrophy.
Q3) Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of
A) chronic intravenous drug abuse.
B) viral infection with herpesvirus.
C) b-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
D) cardiomyopathy.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Q1) In which dysrhythmias should treatment be instituted immediately?
A) Asymptomatic sinus bradycardia at a heart rate of 50 beats/minute
B) Fever-induced tachycardia at 122 beats/minute
C) Premature atrial complexes occurring every 20 seconds
D) Atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 220 beats/minute
Q2) A patient with heart failure who reports intermittent shortness of breath during the night is experiencing
A) orthopnea.
B) paroxysmal atrial tachycardia.
C) sleep apnea.
D) paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
Q3) Low cardiac output to the kidneys stimulates the release of _____ from juxtaglomerular cells.
A) aldosterone
B) norepinephrine
C) angiotensinogen
D) renin
Q4) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in atrophy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Q1) A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is cardiogenic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A patient experiencing shock may exhibit which signs and symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
A) Warm, flushed skin
B) Pinpoint pupils
C) Pulse of more than 100 beats/minute
D) Increased urinary output
E) Fast and deep respirations
Q3) Septic shock is commonly associated with Gram-negative infections and Gram-positive organisms that enter the body through the (Select all that apply.)
A) eyes.
B) genitourinary tract.
C) gastrointestinal tract.
D) respiratory tract.
E) skin.
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22
Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypoventilation causes
A) hypoxemia.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) increased minute ventilation.
D) decreased PaCO .
Q2) The central chemoreceptors for respiratory control are
A) located in the carotid artery.
B) responsive primarily to changes in pH and CO .
C) responsive primarily to hypoxemia.
D) less important than the peripheral chemoreceptors in maintaining respiration.
Q3) Surfactant is a phospholipid that reduces
A) pulmonary vascular capacitance.
B) elastic recoil force.
C) alveolar surface tension.
D) pulmonary capillary fragility.
Q4) The pulmonary structure that has the least pulmonary blood flow is A) lung apex.
B) middle lung.
C) lower lung.
D) zone 4.
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) To best prevent emphysema,a patient is instructed to stop smoking since cigarette smoke
A) impairs a -antitrypsin, allowing elastase to predominate.
B) paralyzes the cilia, causing impaired mucociliary clearance.
C) predisposes to respiratory infections.
D) introduces carcinogens into the lungs.
Q2) Characteristics of asthma include (Select all that apply.)
A) chronic inflammatory disorder.
B) airway hyperresponsiveness.
C) alveolar collapse.
D) genetic susceptibility.
E) airway remodeling.
Q3) COPD leads to a barrel chest,because it causes
A) pulmonary edema.
B) muscle atrophy.
C) prolonged inspiration.
D) air trapping.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Q1) Viral pneumonia is characterized by
A) a productive cough.
B) a dry cough.
C) exudative consolidation.
D) significant ventilation-perfusion imbalance.
Q2) The primary cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome is A) prematurity.
B) lack of surfactant.
C) maternal illegal drug use during pregnancy.
D) umbilical cord compression.
Q3) A major cause of treatment failure in tuberculosis is A) resistant organism.
B) allergy to drugs used.
C) noncompliance.
D) immunosuppression.
Q4) A common characteristic of viral pneumonia is A) high fever.
B) alveolar infiltrates on a chest x-ray.
C) increased white blood cell count.
D) dry cough.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) What is the most likely explanation for a diagnosis of hypernatremia in an elderly patient receiving tube feeding?
A) Too much sodium in the feedings
B) Excess of feedings
C) Inadequate water intake
D) Kidney failure
Q2) Clinical manifestations of severe symptomatic hypophosphatemia are caused by
A) excess proteins.
B) renal damage.
C) deficiency of ATP.
D) hypocalcemia.
Q3) Excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH)secretion can cause _____ concentration.
A) increased serum sodium
B) decreased serum sodium
C) increased serum potassium
D) decreased serum potassium
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) Diarrhea and other lower intestinal fluid losses will contribute to A) metabolic alkalosis.
B) metabolic acidosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) mixed acid-base disorders.
Q2) The ________ system compensates for metabolic acidosis and alkalosis.
A) gastrointestinal
B) renal
C) cardiovascular
D) respiratory
Q3) Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of A) carbonic acid deficit.
B) metabolic acid deficit.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) carbonic acid excess.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Q1) Renin is released from
A) the posterior pituitary gland.
B) the liver.
C) juxtaglomerular cells.
D) macula densa cells.
Q2) The underlying mechanism which directly results in glycosuria is
A) filtration of glucose from the glomerulus.
B) exceeding the threshold for glucose reabsorption.
C) secretion of glucose into the distal tubule.
D) the mechanism is unknown.
Q3) The primary function of the vasa recta is to
A) secrete renin.
B) reabsorb NaCl.
C) reabsorb interstitial fluid.
D) secrete urea.
Q4) The glucose transporter in the proximal tubule
A) has no transport maximum.
B) does not depend on sodium reabsorption.
C) is ATP-dependent.
D) may be saturated at high filtered glucose loads.
28
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Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Q1) A patient with gouty arthritis develops renal calculi.The composition of these calculi is most likely to be
A) potassium oxalate.
B) struvite.
C) cysteine.
D) uric acid crystals.
Q2) The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is
A) pneumonia.
B) throat infection.
C) endocarditis.
D) urinary tract infection.
Q3) The most common type of renal stone is A) uric acid.
B) calcium.
C) struvite.
D) cysteine.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Q1) Hypotension is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
Q2) One of the most common causes of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)is
A) ischemic conditions.
B) cytotoxic agents.
C) immune reaction.
D) prolonged postrenal kidney injury.
Q3) If acute tubular necrosis (ATN)does not resolve and continued tubular dysfunction ensues,the patient will then experience
A) oliguria and sodium retention.
B) infections and sepsis.
C) magnesium and phosphorus loss in urine.
D) polyuria and sodium wasting.
Q4) Appropriate therapy for prerenal kidney injury includes
A) fluid administration.
B) potassium supplementation.
C) fluid restriction.
D) protein restriction.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Q1) The urinalysis finding most indicative of cystitis includes the presence of A) WBCs and RBCs.
B) nitrites.
C) casts.
D) bacteria.
Q2) A ureterocele is
A) an abnormally placed ureter.
B) an additional ureter.
C) a cystic dilation of a ureter.
D) fusion of both ureters at the bladder junction.
Q3) Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with A) increased serum creatinine.
B) recurrent cystitis.
C) polycystic renal disease.
D) proteinuria.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder stone formation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The nerve most responsible for penile erection is the _____nerve.
A) penile
B) prepual
C) pudendal
D) prostatic
Q2) In males,pituitary luteinizing hormone (LH)
A) induces Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone.
B) induces Sertoli cells to produce sperm.
C) stimulates ejaculation of semen.
D) has no known reproductive function.
Q3) The parasympathetic nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The main function of the prostate is to
A) produce sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid to support sperm.
C) secrete male hormones.
D) provide innervation for erection.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) A patient presenting with a urethral stricture may experience (Select all that apply.)
A) decreased urinary stream.
B) urethral discharge.
C) infection.
D) urine retention.
E) inability to retract the glans of the penis.
Q2) The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as
A) hypospadias.
B) urethral fistula.
C) epispadias.
D) priapism.
Q3) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the corpus cavernosum during sexual stimulation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The majority of penile cancer cases are classified as basal cell carcinoma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The purpose of the placenta during pregnancy is to
A) protect the developing fetus.
B) provide nutrients to the mother.
C) provide nutrients to the fetus and remove wastes.
D) remove excess estrogen during pregnancy.
Q2) Which organs are part of the female reproductive tract? (Select all that apply.)
A) Ovaries
B) Uterus
C) Cervix
D) Vagina
E) Urethra
Q3) Pregnancy is associated with
A) decreased oxygen consumption and ventilation.
B) decreased basal metabolic rate.
C) decreased absorption of sodium and water.
D) increased cardiac output and blood volume.
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Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infection by ________ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis.
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Candida albicans
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Pseudomonas
Q2) The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls,but can be administered to girls as young as _____ years of age.
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Q3) The expected treatment of a pregnant woman with hyperemesis gravidarum is
A) immediate cesarean section.
B) seizure prophylaxis.
C) surgical removal of uterine contents.
D) intravenous therapy.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following infections is asymptomatic and self-limited and does not require therapy?
A) Syphilis
B) Nongonococcal cervicitis
C) Gonorrhea
D) Molluscum contagiosum
Q2) The Centers for Disease Control estimate that there are ________ new sexually transmitted infections every year.
A) 300,000
B) 1.3 million
C) 19 million
D) 17 billion
Q3) Transmission of Chlamydia during birth may result in ________,or infection of the eyes in the newborn.
A) neonatal jaundice
B) ophthalmia neonatorum
C) neonatal conjunctivitis
D) erythema neonatorum
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36
Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzyme assists with protein digestion?
A) Amylase
B) Chymotrypsin
C) Lactase
D) Lipase
Q2) Most nutrient digestion and absorption occurs in the
A) stomach.
B) small intestine.
C) large intestine.
D) cecum.
Q3) Parasympathetic stimulation of the stomach would
A) decrease motility.
B) decrease hydrogen chloride secretion.
C) inhibit acidity.
D) stimulate motility.
Q4) Which is associated with contraction of the gallbladder?
A) Cholecystokinin
B) Morphine
C) Norepinephrine
D) Gastrin
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A silent abdomen 3 hours after bowel surgery most likely indicates A) peritonitis.
B) mechanical bowel obstruction.
C) perforated bowel.
D) functional bowel obstruction.
Q2) Rupture of esophageal varices is a complication of cirrhosis with portal hypertension and carries a high ________ rate.
A) cure
B) morbidity
C) insurance
D) mortality
Q3) Which symptom suggests the presence of a hiatal hernia?
A) Nausea
B) Heartburn
C) Diarrhea
D) Abdominal cramps
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that biliary cancer
A) is most often cured by surgery.
B) respond well to chemotherapy.
C) are identifiable and treatable when diagnosed early.
D) tend to be asymptomatic and progress insidiously.
Q2) A biliary cause of acute pancreatitis is suggested by an elevation in which serum laboratory results?
A) Lipase
B) Amylase
C) Glucose
D) Alkaline phosphatase
Q3) Elevated serum lipase and amylase levels are indicative of A) gallbladder disease.
B) appendicitis.
C) pancreatitis.
D) peritonitis.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hepatitis B is usually transmitted by exposure to A) hepatitis vaccine.
B) feces.
C) blood or semen.
D) contaminated food.
Q2) Jaundice is a common manifestation of A) malabsorption syndromes.
B) anemia.
C) liver disease.
D) cholecystitis.
Q3) ________ disease is a rare autosomal recessive disorder in which excessive amounts of copper accumulate in the liver.
A) Kayser-Fleischer
B) Wilson
C) Reye
D) Byler
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most endocrine hormones are water-soluble and exert their effects on target cells by
A) binding to nuclear receptors.
B) generating second messengers.
C) binding to intracellular receptors.
D) stimulating action potentials.
Q2) Hormones that are released from the anterior pituitary gland include (Select all that apply.)
A) luteinizing hormone.
B) vasopressin.
C) prolactin.
D) oxytocin.
E) follicle-stimulating hormone.
Q3) Cortisol is produced in the zona ________ of the adrenal cortex.
A) glomerulosa
B) reticularis
C) fasciculata
D) medulla
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Surgical removal of a gland may result in A) hypersecretion.
B) hyposecretion.
C) hyporesponsiveness.
D) tissue resistance.
Q2) A patient presenting with muscle cramps,fatigue,anxiety,depression,and prolonged Q-T intervals on EKG may be showing symptoms of A) hyperparathyroidism.
B) hypoparathyroidism.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) SIADH.
Q3) An increase in ADH secretion occurs in response to A) decreased serum osmolality. B) dehydration.
C) hypervolemia.
D) hyponatremia.
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which insulin types are most commonly used in the rapid-acting category? (Select all that apply.)
A) NPH
B) Aspart
C) Glargine
D) Lispro
E) Regular
Q2) Insulin binding to its receptor on target cells results in
A) increased active transport of glucose into the cell.
B) glycogen breakdown within target cells.
C) increased facilitated cellular diffusion of glucose.
D) gluconeogenesis.
Q3) Which are complications of diabetes mellitus that are microvascular? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Retinopathy
C) Nephropathy
D) Neuropathy
E) Stroke
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The postoperative energy requirement can increase ____ above BMR.
A) 7%.
B) 10% to 35%.
C) 15% to 30%.
D) 50%.
Q2) Starvation is associated with A) loss of visceral protein.
B) low serum albumin levels.
C) loss of somatic fat and protein.
D) generalized edema.
Q3) During times of fasting,the body uses ________ as a source of energy.
A) protein
B) fat
C) carbohydrates
D) glucagon
Q4) The process of metabolizing proteins to provide energy is called A) glycogenolysis.
B) glycolysis.
C) gluconeogenesis.
D) proteolysis.
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are parts of the meninges? (Select all that apply.)
A) Dura mater
B) Pia mater
C) Choroid
D) Arachnoid
E) Ganglia
Q2) Axonal myelination generally increases the
A) metabolic needs of the neuron.
B) flow of ions across the neuronal membrane.
C) sodium permeability.
D) speed of action potential conduction.
Q3) In contrast to other cell types,nerve and muscle cells are able to conduct action potentials because they
A) are polarized to respond to membrane voltage.
B) are permeable to potassium at rest.
C) have voltage-gated ion channels.
D) are impermeable to sodium at rest.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that epidural bleeding is
A) associated with widespread vascular disruption.
B) located between the arachnoid and the dura mater.
C) usually because of venous leakage.
D) characterized by a lucid interval immediately after injury.
Q2) A tool used to assess levels of consciousness is
A) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
B) intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring.
C) Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).
D) central perfusion pressure (CPP).
Q3) ________ edema occurs when ischemic tissue swells because of cellular energy failure.
A) Interstitial
B) Osmotic
C) Vasogenic
D) Cytotoxic
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary reason that prolonged seizure activity predisposes to ischemic brain damage is that
A) neurons are unable to transport glucose.
B) cardiovascular regulation is impaired.
C) the brainstem is depressed.
D) the lack of airway maintenance can lead to hypoxia.
Q2) Which conditions are risk factors for the development of cerebral palsy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Birth trauma
B) Seizure disorder
C) Kernicterus
D) Prenatal maternal infection
E) Scoliosis
Q3) What type of seizure usually occurs in children and is characterized by brief staring spells?
A) Epileptic
B) Idiopathic
C) Partial
D) Absence
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) It is true that a conductive hearing loss
A) cannot be corrected.
B) is as a result of damage to hair cells in the inner ear.
C) usually results from chronic exposure to loud noise.
D) is because of dysfunction of outer and middle ear structures.
Q2) Myopia is as a result of an error of light refraction in which
A) light rays are scattered as they pass through the cornea.
B) the focal point of an image is behind the retina.
C) far vision is impaired.
D) accommodation is impaired.
Q3) Which structures make up the middle ear? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cerumen
B) Malleus
C) Incus
D) Scala media
E) Stapes
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain that waxes and wanes and is exacerbated by physical exertion is likely related to A) neuralgia.
B) intermittent claudication.
C) fibromyalgia syndrome.
D) neuropathy.
Q2) One of the most common causes of acute pain is A) headache.
B) fibromyalgia.
C) malignancy.
D) trigeminal neuralgia.
Q3) Slow pain sensation is transmitted primarily by A) group Ia afferents.
B) a motor neurons.
C) unmyelinated C fibers.
D) Ad fibers.
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is a term used to describe a serious and debilitating mental state.
A) Psychosis
B) Schizophrenia
C) Major depressive disorder
D) Dysthymia
Q2) When a client is diagnosed with schizophrenia and asks what could have caused the disorder,the statements that could serve as a basis for answering include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
A) Schizophrenia may be related to abnormal cerebral structure.
B) Schizophrenia is inherited as an autosomal recessive gene defect.
C) Schizophrenia often develops in the absence of family psychopathology.
D) Chronic prolonged stress may contribute to development of schizophrenia.
E) Symptoms of schizophrenia may be associated with smoking.
Q3) Drug therapy with a dopamine receptor antagonist is initiated to manage a patient's symptoms of schizophrenia.The goal of treatment is to
A) increase dopamine activity.
B) reduce serotonin activity.
C) stabilize dopamine activity.
D) effect serotonin and norepinephrine neurotransmitters.
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Page 50
Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) An anxiety disorder that is precipitated by a traumatic event is known as A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) posttraumatic stress disorder.
C) panic disorder.
D) phobia.
Q2) Individuals with obsessive-compulsive disorder
A) are not aware that obsessive thoughts are from their own brains.
B) may become highly anxious if prevented from performing rituals.
C) have disordered thinking and poor reality orientation.
D) have a severe, unmanageable psychotic illness.
Q3) Early treatment of panic anxiety disorder focuses on A) the use of sedative agents.
B) cognitive-behavioral therapy.
C) dopamine antagonistic medications.
D) the use of respiratory stimulants.
Q4) Tachycardia is a common finding in individuals with A) panic attacks.
B) generalized anxiety disorder.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) bipolar disorder.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diarthroses are joints that
A) hold the skull bones together.
B) allow little or no joint movement.
C) contain synovial fluid.
D) connect bony segments by a fibrocartilaginous plate.
Q2) The parathyroid gland functions to facilitate (Select all that apply.)
A) calcium absorption from the gut.
B) bone resorption.
C) calcium reabsorption in the kidneys.
D) vitamin C action.
E) osteoblast production.
Q3) The electrolyte that must be present in cellular cytoplasm for muscle contraction to occur is
A) potassium.
B) sodium.
C) magnesium.
D) calcium.
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Page 52
Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) A risk factor for osteoporosis is A) endometriosis.
B) early menopause.
C) late menopause.
D) ovarian cysts.
Q2) The most common type of osteomyelitis is A) hematogenous.
B) contiguous focus.
C) Brodie abscess.
D) direct invasion.
Q3) The displacement of two bones in which the articular surfaces partially lose contact with each other is called A) subluxation.
B) subjugation
C) sublimation.
D) dislocation.
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Page 53
Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common presenting sign/symptom with rheumatic fever is A) cardiac murmur.
B) polyarthritis.
C) rash.
D) painless nodules.
Q2) To avoid the progression of cutaneous lesions,a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)should
A) avoid sun exposure.
B) avoid excessive use of moisturizers.
C) refrain from washing the affected areas.
D) apply warm, wet compresses daily.
Q3) Rheumatoid arthritis is commonly associated with the presence of rheumatoid factor autoantibodies in the bloodstream.This indicates that rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be
A) caused by bacterial infection.
B) an autoimmune process.
C) an infective process.
D) because of an enzymatic defect.
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding indicates a need for further evaluation of a nevus mole?
A) The presence of light pigmentation
B) Variations in color within the nevus
C) Very dark coloration of the mole
D) Diameter less than 2 mm
Q2) Which skin disorder is thought to be caused by an autoimmune reaction and is characterized by bullous eruptions?
A) Pemphigus
B) Psoriasis
C) Pityriasis rosea
D) Lichen planus
Q3) A post-infective painful neuralgia can occur as a complication of A) shingles.
B) herpes simplex.
C) impetigo.
D) verrucae.
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55
Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) A necessary intervention when managing burns associated with automobile airbag injury include
A) irrigation with water.
B) application of steroid cream.
C) IV infusion of antibiotics.
D) debridement of skin.
Q2) The majority of electrical burns in children are caused by
A) playing with electrical outlets.
B) playing with defective electrical cords.
C) biting on extension cords.
D) putting fingers in electrical sockets.
Q3) The time between the end of burn shock and closure of the burn to less than 20% of total body surface area is called the ________ phase.
A) postshock
B) rehabilitation
C) critical
D) emergent
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Page 56