Clinical Pathology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Pathology is the branch of medical science that focuses on the diagnosis of diseases through the laboratory analysis of bodily fluids such as blood, urine, and tissue samples. This course covers fundamental principles and techniques used in clinical laboratories to detect abnormalities in hematology, microbiology, clinical chemistry, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. Students will learn how to interpret laboratory results, understand disease mechanisms, and apply their findings to patient care, with an emphasis on quality assurance, laboratory safety, and ethical considerations in sample handling and reporting.
Recommended Textbook
Hematology in Practice 2nd Edition by Betty
Ciesla
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19 Chapters
414 Verified Questions
414 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Hematology and Basic Laboratory Practice
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Sample Questions
Q1) Safety training is part of new employee training in health care and includes:
A) Biological hazards
B) Chemical hazards
C) Environmental hazards
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q2) Control materials are:
A) Analyzed concurrently with the unknown samples
B) Substances with a known amount of analyte
C) Used to calibrate the method
D) All of the above
Answer: A
Q3) If the confidence interval for most laboratories is 95.5%, what is the acceptable range for hemoglobin if a hemoglobin control was run with a mean of 12.5 and a standard deviation of 1.0?
A) 9.5 to 12.5
B) 10.5 to 14.5
C) 11.5 to 15.5
D) 10.0 to 13.5
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: From Hematopoiesis to the Complete Blood Count
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the average M:E ratio for normal adult bone marrow?
A) 1:3
B) 4:1
C) 1:4
D) 6:1
Answer: B
Q2) Bone marrow aspiration is usually required in conditions of:
A) Anemia
B) Hypoxia
C) Leukemia
D) Hepatosplenomegaly
Answer: C
Q3) The __is one of the most stable parameters in a CBC.
A) MCV
B) Hct
C) MCHC
D) MCH
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Red Blood Cell Production, Function, and
Relevant Red Blood Cell Morphology
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the cell at the end of the pointers.
A) Reticulocyte
B) Spherocyte
C) Sickle cell
D) Target cell
Answer: D
Q2) Polychromatophilic macrocytes in the peripheral smear are most likely:
A) Siderocytes
B) Reticulocytes
C) Spherocytes
D) Pappenheimer bodies
Answer: B
Q3) The last nucleated stage of erythrocytic maturation is the:
A) Pronormoblast
B) Orthochromic normoblast
C) Polychromatophilic normoblast
D) Basophilic normoblast
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Hemoglobin Function and Principles of Hemolysis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following abnormal hemoglobins will result in a cyanotic condition?
A) Sulfhemoglobin
B) Cyanmethemoglobin
C) Hemoglobin F
D) Hemoglobin M
Q2) What is the term used to define the process by which the bone marrow responds to anemia-induced stress?
A) Ineffective erythropoiesis
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Erythroid hyperplasia
D) Medullary erythropoiesis
Q3) When iron is present in an oxidized state, as Fe<sup>+3</sup> or ferric iron, the resulting hemoglobin is known as:
A) Methemoglobin
B) Carboxyhemoglobin
C) Sulfhemoglobin
D) Deoxyhemoglobin
Q4) Oxygen delivery is the primary purpose of hemoglobin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: The Microcytic Anemias
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26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ringed sideroblasts in the bone marrow are characteristics of which of the following disorders?
A) Chronic disease
B) Infection
C) Sideroblastic anemia
D) Inflammation
Q2) The majority of the hemoglobin made in individuals with thalassemia major is:
A) Hemoglobin H
B) Hemoglobin A
C) Hemoglobin F
D) Hemoglobin Barts
Q3) The alpha thalassemic condition that is incompatible with life is:
A) Hemoglobin H disease
B) Bart's hydrops fetalis
C) Alpha thalassemia trait
D) Silent carrier condition
Q4) In regards to the thalassemias, the deficit has nothing to do with iron.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Macrocytic Anemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Schilling test continues to be an historic reference method for the determination of:
A) IDA
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Folic acid deficiency
D) Hereditary hemochromatosis
Q2) Which of the following terms describes the appearance of the erythropoietic precursors in the megaloblastic process?
A) Ordered arrangement of chromatin
B) Asynchrony
C) Eccentric nucleus
D) Pale cytoplasm
Q3) A key substance required for the incorporation of vitamin B<sub>12</sub> in red cell nuclear synthesis is the presence of:
A) EPO
B) Transferrin
C) Intrinsic factor
D) Cytokines
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8
Chapter 7: Normochromic Anemias: Biochemical,
Membrane, and Miscellaneous Red Blood Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most closely associated with G6PD deficiency?
A) Continuous intravascular hemolysis occurs.
B) G6PD is a sex linked inherited disease.
C) Splenectomy is commonly done to control symptoms.
D) The majority of the erythrocytes in these individuals are microcytic.
Q2) Cholelithiasis is a frequent complication of patients with hereditary spherocytosis because:
A) Spherocytes are an abnormal red cell morphology
B) The gallbladder does not function well in this condition
C) Continued hemolysis in this condition causes gallstones to form
D) The filtration function of the spleen is overworked
Q3) In hereditary spherocytosis, the reticulocyte count will typically be:
A) Less than 0.5%
B) 0.5% to 1.5%
C) 3% to 10%
D) Greater than 10%
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Chapter 8: The Normochromic Anemias Caused by
Hemoglobinopathies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Painful swelling of hands and feet caused by sickle cells in the microcirculation of sickle cells infants is termed:
A) Dactylitis
B) Necrosis
C) Apoptosis
D) Fibrosis
Q2) In sickle cell anemia, _____is substituted for glutamine.
A) valine
B) lysine
C) adenine
D) leucine
Q3) Autosplenectomy is characteristic of:
A) Sickle cell trait
B) Hgb C disease
C) Thalassemia
D) Sickle cell anemia
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Leukopoiesis and Leukopoietic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plasma cell is responsible for:
A) Humoral immunity
B) Cell mediated immunity
C) Tumor suppression
D) Delayed hypersensitivity
Q2) Identify the cell at the end of the pointer.
A) Band neutrophil
B) Metamyelocyte
C) Promyelocyte
D) Monocyte
Q3) One of the primary glands responsible for lymphocyte origination in the infant is the:
A) Thymus gland
B) Adrenal gland
C) Thyroid gland
D) Pituitary gland
Q4) The primary function of lymphocytes is immunologic.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: Abnormalities of White Blood Cells:
Quantitative, Qualitative, and the Lipid Storage Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pelger-Huët anomaly is characterized mainly by:
A) Neutrophils with gray-green granules
B) Lipid depositions in the cytoplasm
C) Giant platelets
D) Hyposegmentation of the nucleus in the neutrophils
Q2) The best corrective action for a patient who exhibits platelet satellitism on peripheral blood smear is to:
A) Make a duplicate slide and see if this phenomenon disappears
B) Warm the tube of blood
C) Redraw the sample in sodium citrate
D) Vortex the sample of blood
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by the EBV virus, which infects B lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name the cell at the tip of the pointer (Wright stain).
A) Spherocyte
B) Target cell
C) Platelet
D) Acanthocyte
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Acute Leukemias
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Sample Questions
Q1) ______may arise as a blastic transformation in patients with CML.
A) Acute basophilic leukemia
B) Acute myelofibrosis
C) Acute lymphocytic leukemia
D) Erythroleukemia
Q2) The monoclonal marker that is often positive in T-ALL is:
A) CD1
B) CD7
C) CD10
D) CD41
Q3) The cells pictured above are most consistent with:
A) Acute myeloid leukemia
B) Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
D) Acute erythroid leukemia
Q4) Acute leukemic processes are marked by:
A) Slow onset, slow progression, anemia
B) Rapid onset anemia, thrombocytopenia
C) Splenomegaly
D) Less than 30% in the BM
13
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Chapter 12: Chronic Myeloproliferative Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The LAP stain is helpful in distinguishing:
A) A leukemoid reaction from CGL
B) CML from CLL
C) CML from AML
D) CML from ALL
Q2) The translocation of genetic material, t9:22, is associated with:
A) The Philadelphia chromosome
B) ALL
C) A leukemoid reaction
D) Polycythemia vera
Q3) What is the pathophysiology of the myeloproliferative disorders?
A) Fibroid infiltration of major organs
B) Neoplastic transformation of multipotential stem cells
C) Widespread deterioration of cellular function
D) Splenic sequestration of normal blood cells
Q4) Pancytosis is a prominent feature of which of the following disorders?
A) Chronic myelocytic leukemia
B) Idiopathic myelofibrosis
C) Polycythemia vera
D) Essential thrombocythemia
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Lymphoproliferative Disorders and Related
Plasma Cell Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reed Sternberg cells are associated with:
A) Sézary syndrome
B) CLL
C) Hodgkin's lymphoma
D) Multiple myeloma
Q2) The phenomenon pictured above is known as rouleaux and is frequently associated with:
A) An increased red cell count
B) A decreased MCV and MCHC
C) An elevated ESR
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following statements about Hodgkin's disease is false?
A) The peak incidence for the disease is 15 to 40 years of age.
B) The disease occurs more frequently in males.
C) It is a precursor to T-cell lymphoma
D) Individuals who have been exposed to the Epstein-Barr virus may be more vulnerable to Hodgkin's lymphoma.
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Page 15
Chapter 14: The Myelodysplastic Syndromes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Typically, patients with MDS will exhibit partial or complete absence of:
A) Chromosomes 5 and 7
B) Chromosomes 8 and 12
C) The Y chromosome
D) Dysplasia
Q2) The most effective means of treating iron overload in the myelodysplastic syndromes is:
A) Therapeutic phlebotomy
B) Limiting iron-containing foods
C) Iron chelation therapy
D) Fasting
Q3) Deleted 5q MDS is primarily seen in male patients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The FAB classification of the MDSs include CML.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A large percentage of the MDSs end in an acute leukemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Overview of Hemostasis and Platelet Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vasoconstrictor substance released from the platelets at the site of injury is:
A) Thrombin
B) Thromboxane A<sub>2</sub>
C) Adenosine diphosphate
D) Prostacyclin
Q2) Factor V
A)Stabile factor
B)Labile factor
C)Thromboplastin
D)Calcium
E)Anti-hemophiliac factor
F)Fibrinogen
G)Prothrombin
Q3) The fibrinogen group of coagulation factors include:
A) Factors I, V, VII, XIII
B) Factors II, VII, IX, X
C) Factors III, VIII, IX, X
D) Factors XI and XII
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Chapter 16: Quantitative and Qualitative Platelet Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anticoagulant of choice for routine coagulation procedure is:
A) Sodium oxalate
B) Sodium citrate
C) Heparin
D) Sodium fluoride
Q2) Several hours after birth, a baby boy develops the following symptoms, petechiae, purpura, and hemorrhage.The platelet count is 18,000.The most likely explanation is:
A) Drug-induced thrombocytopenia
B) Secondary thrombocytopenia
C) Isoimmune neonatal thrombocytopenia
D) Neonatal DIC
Q3) Aspirin therapy irreversibly inhibits the synthesis of:
A) ATP
B) GP 1
C) Prostaglandins
D) GP IIb and IIIa
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18
Chapter 17: Defects of Plasma Clotting Factors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which result will be within reference range in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia?
A) Thrombin time
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time
C) Immunologic fibrinogen level
D) Protein electrophoresis
Q2) Christmas disease is another name for:
A) Hemophilia A
B) Hemophilia B
C) von Willebrand's disease
D) Factor VII deficiency
Q3) All of the following may lead to deficiencies of clotting factors except:
A) Renal disease
B) Liver disease
C) Autoimmune disease
D) Cardiovascular disease
Q4) Which platelet response(s) is usually associated with hemophilia A?
A) Defective ADP release; normal response to ADP
B) Decreased amount of ADP in platelets
C) Absent aggregation to epinephrine, ADP, and collagen
D) Normal platelet aggregation
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Chapter 18: Fibrinogen, Thrombin, and the Fibrinolytic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A prolonged thrombin time and a normal reptilase time is indicative of:
A) Aspirin therapy
B) FDPs
C) Heparin therapy
D) Warfarin therapy
Q2) The process of fibrin degradation is called ______and is controlled by the enzyme
A) fibrination, plasmin
B) fibrinolysis, plasmin
C) fibrination, protease
D) fibrinolysis, protease
Q3) All of the following are functions of thrombin except:
A) Initiating the platelet release reaction
B) Simulating platelets to product PGI<sub>2</sub>
C) Activating factors V and VIII
D) Activating thromboplastin
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Chapter 19: Introduction to Thrombosis and Anticoagulant Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following PT results would most likely be seen in a patient who is on Coumadin and is stable?
A) Approximately 26 seconds
B) Approximately 13 seconds
C) Approximately 40 seconds
D) Approximately 60 seconds
Q2) Factor VIII inhibitors:
A) Are associated with thrombosis
B) Are associated with decreased fibrinogen levels
C) Are usually time and temperature dependent
D) Are corrected with the addition of normal plasma
Q3) All of the following statements are true regarding Coumadin except:
A) It is a vitamin K antagonist.
B) It needs antithrombin as a cofactor.
C) PT is used to monitor its dosage.
D) It is not recommended for pregnant and lactating women.
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