Clinical Methods in Speech-Language Pathology
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Clinical Methods in Speech-Language Pathology introduces students to the foundational principles and practices of assessment and intervention for individuals with communication and swallowing disorders. The course covers key clinical procedures, including case history taking, standardized and informal assessment techniques, goal setting, treatment planning, data collection, and progress monitoring. Students learn about the ethical and cultural considerations in clinical practice, documentation standards, and the importance of evidence-based approaches. Emphasis is placed on developing professional communication skills, therapeutic interactions, and practical strategies for working with diverse client populations across the lifespan.
Recommended Textbook
Cleft Palate and Craniofacial Anomalies Effects on Speech and Resonance 3rd Edition by Ann W.
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24 Chapters
372 Verified Questions
372 Flashcards
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2
Chapter 1: Anatomy and Physiology
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following types of phonemes are considered "pressure sensitive"?
A)Fricatives, nasals, glides
B)Fricatives, nasals, plosives
C)Glides, nasals, plosive
D)Plosives, fricatives, affricates
E)Alveolars, glides, nasals
Answer: D
Q2) Where are the palatine tonsils located?
A)Between the faucial pillars
B)Behind the choanae
C)Above the velum
D)In the nasopharynx
E)At the base of the tongue
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Clefts of the Lip and Palate
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following can cause a wide, bell-shaped cleft palate?
A)Chromosomal disorders
B)Genetic disorders
C)Environmental teratogens
D)Inadequate folic acid
E)Mechanical interference in utero
Answer: E
Q2) What anatomical structure is not included in the Kernahan "striped Y" for cleft classification?
A)Lip
B)Hard palate
C)Alveolus
D)Area between alveolus and incisive foramen
E)Posterior pharyngeal wall
Answer: E
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4
Chapter 3: The Genetics Evaluation and Common
Craniofacial
Syndromes
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2 Verified Questions
2 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is failure of the brain to divide into two separate hemispheres called?
A)Hydrocephaly
B)Macrocephaly
C)Holoprosencephaly
D)Microcephaly
E)Unicephaly
Answer: C
Q2) Cleft palate rather than cleft lip) is more likely to be associated with which of the following?
A)Deformations
B)Malformations
C)Disruptions
D)Associations
E)Other congenital anomalies
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Genetics and Patterns of Inheritance
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12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman and her husband are both heterozygous carriers of an autosomal recessive condition. What is the possibility that their offspring will have the condition?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
E)100%
Q2) Which of the following results in Down syndrome?
A)Monosomy 22
B)Trisomy 21
C)Trisomy 23
D)Trisomy 13
E)Trisomy 16
Q3) Which of the following is not characteristic of 'X-linked inheritance'?
A)It is caused by genes on chromosome 23
B)Females are more severely affected
C)Affected males pass the gene to 100% of their daughters
D)There is no father-to-son transmission
E)Affected females can transmit the disorder to their sons
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Feeding Problems of Infantswith Clefts or
Craniofacial Anomalies
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the pacing strategy?
A)Providing oral feeding at defined intervals during a 24-hour period
B)Decreasing the rate of intake during feeding by imposing periodic pauses during feeding
C)Alternating feeding and burping at a predetermined schedule
D)Providing assistive squeezing at a certain rate per minute
E)Burping the infant every minute, regardless of oral intake
Q2) Which of the following is true about a child with Pierre Robin sequence?
A)There are fewer feeding difficulties in comparison to infants with other types of clefts.
B)Breastfeeding is easier due to the micrognathia.
C)A shorter wider nipple is best for bottle-feeding.
D)There are often respiratory difficulties associated with feeding attempts.
E)The glossoptosis affects the infant's ability to latch on to the nipple.
Q3) What is the purpose of a nonnutritive stimulation?
A)To heighten sensory awareness
B)To facilitate oral motor action
C)To help prevent development of oral aversion
D)To elicit a sucking response
E)All of the above
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Developmental Aspects:speech, Language, and Cognition
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Infants with an unrepaired cleft palate demonstrate an alteration in the manner of production, with a predominant use of which types of consonants?
A)Stops
B)Fricatives
C)Liquids
D)Nasals
E)Glides
Q2) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The infant's abnormal phonological development as a result of the open palate can persist into early speech, even after the palate is repaired.
B)Many children with VPI have reduced expressive language output due to difficulty with speech production.
C)Children with a history of cleft lip only are just as likely to have speech sound errors as children with a history of cleft palate.
D)a and b
E)a and c
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Chapter 7: Resonance Disorders Andvelopharyngeal
Dysfunction Vpd
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compensatory productions usually sacrifice which of the following?
A)Manner of production
B)Place of production
C)Voicing
D)Intensity of production
E)Air pressure
Q2) Hyponasality is most noticeable on which of the following:
A)Affricates
B)Vowels
C)Fricatives
D)Plosives
E)Nasals
Q3) What is the most common cause of velopharyngeal dysfunction in patients with Crouzon syndrome?
A)Short velum
B)Deep pharynx
C)Velar paresis
D)Occult submucous cleft
E)Dysarthria
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Chapter 8: Facial, Oral and Pharyngeal Anomalies
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Eustachian tube connects which of the following?
A)Nasopharynx to the oropharynx
B)Oropharynx to the hypopharynx
C)Oral cavity to the nasal cavity
D)Middle ear to the nasopharynx
E)Middle ear to the oropharynx
Q2) A deviated septum is most likely to cause which type of resonance?
A)Cul?de?sac resonance
B)Hypernasality
C)Hyponasality
D)Mixed resonance
E)Nasal emission
Q3) Which of the following is not used as a treatment for upper airway obstruction in children?
A)Tonsillectomy
B)Adenoidectomy
C)Tracheostomy
D)Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
E)CPAP
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Chapter 9: Dental Anomalies
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general, at what age is the primary dentition complete?
A)12 to 18 months
B)18 to 24 months
C)24 to 30 months
D)30 to 36 months
E)3 to 4 years
Q2) In which of the following cases is speech therapy always inappropriate?
A)When there are articulation placement errors and dental anomalies
B)When there are obligatory distortions only
C)When there are compensatory errors only
D)When there is a Class II malocclusion and there are errors on lingual-alveolar sounds
E)When there is Class III malocclusion and there are errors on velar sounds
Q3) Which sounds are most likely to be affected by a protruding premaxilla?
A)Labiodentals
B)Interdental sounds
C)Lingual-alveolars
D)Bilabials
E)Sibilants
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Chapter 10: Psychosocial Aspects Ofcleft Lippalate and
Craniofacial Anomalies
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11 Verified Questions 11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true about children and teens with cleft lip and palate, compared to their unaffected peers?
A)They have a characteristic personality type.
B)They are at greater risk of developing psychopathology.
C)They are more aggressive with peers.
D)They have more difficulty with peer relationships.
E)All of the above
Q2) What causes "stigma" for individuals with craniofacial anomalies?
A)The deviation from cultural standards of beauty
B)Deliberate negative intent by unaffected people
C)Compensatory activities of unaffected individuals, such as being unusually indulgent or helpful
D)Extra awareness of the affected individuals by those who are unaffected
E)All of the above
Q3) Which is not true about adults with clefts, compared to their unaffected peers?
A)They tend to marry later.
B)They have higher levels of depression.
C)They tend to end their education earlier.
D)They make less money in their jobs.
E)All of the above
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Speech and Resonance Assessment
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the child demonstrates nasal emission on s/z only, what is the probable cause?
A)VPI only
B)A fistula only
C)VPI and the fistula
D)Misarticulation causing nasal emission
Q2) If the child has a nasal rustle on s/z, but not on any other sounds, what is the probable cause?
A)Compensatory productions
B)Obligatory productions
C)Lateral lisp
D)Frontal lisp
E)Phoneme-specific nasal emission
Q3) What speech production can cause phoneme-specific nasal emission?
A)Glottal stop
B)Pharyngeal fricative
C)Palatal-dorsal production
D)Pharyngeal plosive
E)Velar fricative
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13
Chapter 12: Orofacial Examination
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An individual with a craniofacial syndrome may present with hypertelorism, indicating which of the following?
A)Absence of an external auditory canal
B)Excess folds of tissue extending from the upper eyelid to the inner corner of the orbit
C)Too little space between the eyes
D)Excessive spacing between the eyes
E)Narrow palpebral fissures
Q2) What muscle forms the velar dimple during contraction?
A)Levator veli palatini
B)Musculus uvulae
C)Palatopharyngeous
D)Tensor veli palatini
E)Palatatoglossus
Q3) Which of the following is an abnormal finding in the palate?
A)Torus palatinus
B)Median palatine raphe
C)Velar dimple
D)Zona pellucida
E)Palatal rugae
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14
Chapter 14: Nasometry
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should the nasalance score be for a prolonged /s/ when produced by a normal speaker?
A)0%
B)About 5%
C)About 10%
D)About 15%
E)About 20%
Q2) Which of the following tests allows the assessment of nasalance by type of speech sound?
A)Zoo Passage
B)Nasal Sentences
C)SNAP test
D)Rainbow Passage
E)Turtle Passage
Q3) What is the most important statistic that is obtained through nasometry?
A)Threshold percentage
B)Maximum percentage
C)Mean nasalance score
D)Fundamental frequency
E)Range
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Chapter 15: Speech Aerodynamics
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pressure-flow technique is ideally suited to determine the magnitude of which of the following during speech?
A)Air pressure from the lungs
B)Air pressure from nasal emission
C)Intraoral air pressure and nasal air emission
D)Subglottic air pressure
E)All of the above
Q2) Which procedure measures airway resistance in the nasal cavity?
A)Nasometry
B)Manometry
C)Rhinomanometry
D)Polysomnography
E)Nasendoscopy
Q3) Why do pressure-flow estimates of orifice size decrease in accuracy when the orifice area exceeds 80 mm<sup>2</sup>?
A)Limitations of the pneumotachograph to record high rates of airflow
B)Limitations of the transducers to detect small pressure changes
C)Limitations of the pneumotachograph to record an increase in nasal airflow
D)Limitations of the transducers to measure an increase in nasal resonance
E)Limitations of the transducers to detect a decrease in oral airflow
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Chapter 16: Videofluoroscopy
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term refers to the use of roentgen ray X-ray) to image internal body parts?
A)Radiography
B)MRI
C)Videofluoroscopy
D)Attenuation
E)Cineradiography
Q2) Simultaneous audio recording of speech is done with which of the following?
A)Cephalometric X-ray
B)MRI
C)Videofluoroscopy
D)Ultrasound
E)c and d
Q3) Which view is done to view the lateral pharyngeal walls?
A)Lateral view
B)Frontal view
C)Base view
D)Oblique view
E)Towne's view
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Chapter 17: Nasopharyngoscopy
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10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why should the morphology of the posterior pharyngeal wall be carefully examined in patients with velocardiofacial syndrome?
A)They often have very irregular adenoids, which can affect velopharyngeal closure
B)The carotid arteries can be medially displaced in the pharyngeal wall
C)They usually have a Passavant's ridge
D)They often have hypoplasia of the pharyngeal wall
E)They often have hyperplasia and irregularity of the posterior pharyngeal wall
Q2) How should a scope be stored?
A)Hanging from a wall in a cabinet
B)In the storage case provided by the manufacturer
C)In a disinfected plastic case
D)In a cloth bag to allow good ventilation
E)In a sterilized metal box
Q3) Which of the following suggests the presence of a small velopharyngeal opening?
A)Bubbling of secretions
B)Irregularity of the posterior part of the velum
C)Irregular adenoid tissue
D)A small black circle
E)Visible airflow through the valve
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Page 18
Chapter 18: Surgical Management of Clefts and Velopharyngeal
Insufficiencyincompetence VPI
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patients with a history of cleft palate and surgical repair often demonstrate which of the following?
A)Midface retrusion
B)Class III malocclusion
C)Class II malocclusion
D)a and b
E)a and c
Q2) Which of the following is not a major factor that determines the success of a pharyngeal flap in correction of VPI?
A)Vertical position of the flap in the nasopharynx
B)Extent of lateral pharyngeal wall movement
C)Use of compensatory productions
D)Closure pattern of the lateral pharyngeal wall movement
E)Width of the flap
Q3) The earliest that a pharyngoplasty is usually done is at what age?
A)1 to 2 years
B)2 to 2½ years
C)2½ to 3 years
D)3½ to 4 years
E)5 to 6 years
Page 19
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Chapter 19: Orthognathic Surgery for Craniofacial
Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a common problem as a result of a small maxilla?
A)Articulation errors
B)Sleep apnea
C)Hypernasality
D)Hyponasality
E)Cul-de-sac resonance
Q2) Which of the following typically causes a cant to the maxilla?
A)Crouzon syndrome
B)Apert syndrome
C)Treacher Collins syndrome
D)Hemifacial microsomia
E)Stickler's syndrome
Q3) What is a cant?
A)Surgical cut
B)Slant in occlusion
C)Protrusion
D)Partial cut
E)Orthodontic device
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Chapter 20: Prosthetic Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) When is it not appropriate to use prosthetic management?
A)For patients with a history of cleft who have a delay for surgery due to medical issues
B)For patients who have undergone a successful cleft repair without complications or residual effects
C)For patients with persistent velopharyngeal insufficiency or incompetence after unsuccessful surgeries
D)For patients with other structural disorders not related to cleft palate
E)For patients who have cancer affecting the maxilla or velum
Q2) What is the most appropriate prosthetic choice for the patient who has had ablative surgery for oral cancer?
A)Palatal lift
B)Head gear
C)Speech bulb obturator
D)Quad helix device
E)Dentures
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21
Chapter 21: Speech Therapy
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these rules is generally not true for correction of speech sound errors?
A)Begin with anterior sounds.
B)Start with the voiceless cognate and then add voicing.
C)Establish correct placement and manner of productions in isolation.
D)Begin with the sound in the final word position.
E)Change one feature at a time when moving from one sound in a group to the next sound.
Q2) Which of the following can be corrected by starting with the yawn technique?
A)Pharyngeal fricative
B)Pharyngeal plosive
C)Glottal stop
D) /l
E)Velar plosive
Q3) Which of the following can be corrected with speech therapy?
A)Hypernasality due to VPI
B)Compensatory productions secondary to VPI
C)Obligatory distortions secondary to VPI
D)Nasal emission due to VPI
E)Nasal rustle due to VPI
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Page 22
Chapter 22: The Team Approach
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the managed care organizations exist as which of the following?
A)For-profit corporations
B)Not-for-profit organizations
C)Third-party administrators
D)Preferred providers PPOs.
E)Government-run providers
Q2) One standard requirement for meeting the ACPA standards is that each Cleft Palate Team must have which of the following:
A)Coordinator
B)Geneticist
C)Psychologist
D)Pulmonologist
E)Medical records specialist
Q3) The team's primary contact person for the family is usually which of the following?
A)Primary care physician
B)Pediatrician
C)Family doctor
D)Managing surgeon
E)Team coordinator
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Page 23
Chapter 23: Cleft Care in Developing Countries
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A)The prevalence of clefts does not vary with geography.
B)Poverty is the only reason children in developing countries do not have access to care.
C)Interpreters should be given some written "scripts" prior to the evaluations.
D)The main mission of international organizations is to provide direct surgical care to affected children.
E)c and d
Q2) In 1997, the International Task Force on Volunteer Cleft Missions outlined recommendations for volunteer cleft missions based on which of the following?
A)Mission objectives
B)Organization
C)Personal health and liability
D)Funding
E)All of the above
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24
Chapter 24: Velopharyngeal Dysfunction and Speech Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient evaluation finds that she has a combination of hyponasality and inconsistent nasal emission.Irregular adenoids are suspected as a cause.What is the best way to evaluate that?
A)Nasometry
B)Nasopharyngoscopy
C)Videofluoroscopy
D)Aerodynamic measures
E)An Intraoral examination
Q2) Upon examination, the child demonstrates the use of nasal phonemes and glottal stops for all speech sounds.What is the most appropriate recommendation?
A)A trial period of speech therapy
B)A prosthetic device on a trial basis
C)Referral to an ENT for evaluation
D)Referral to a cleft palate team
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