Clinical Laboratory Science
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Clinical Laboratory Science is an interdisciplinary course that explores the principles, techniques, and applications of laboratory testing in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disease. Students gain knowledge in areas such as hematology, microbiology, clinical chemistry, immunology, and molecular diagnostics. The curriculum emphasizes the operation of laboratory instruments, interpretation of results, quality assurance practices, and laboratory safety. Throughout the course, students develop critical analytical and problem-solving skills essential for effective collaboration with healthcare professionals and delivering accurate, reliable data for patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Microbiology and Infection Control for Health Professionals 6th Edition by Gary Lee
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Chapter 1: The Invisible World
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Q1) Procaryotic cells reproduce by A)gamete production.
B)meiosis.
C)mitosis.
D)binary fission.
E)spore formation.
Answer: D
Q2) Microbiology is the study of
A)microorganisms too small to be seen with the naked eye.
B)only those organisms that cause disease.
C)cells which can only be seen under a microscope.
D)processes by which microorganisms produce food.
E)only bacteria and viruses.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Biological Reactions in Microbial Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes
A)allow reactions to occur which would otherwise be very slow.
B)lower the activation energy for biological reactions.
C)help reactions occur at normal body temperatures.
D)take part in a reaction but are not changed.
E)all of the above.
Answer: E
Q2) A series of enzymic reactions in bacteria is called
A)a metabolic pathway.
B)conjugation.
C)a biological process.
D)transformation.
E)activation of substrates.
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Bacteria
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Sample Questions
Q1) The anaerobic Gram-positive bacillus that can cause severe diarrhoea in patients given antibiotics is
A)Clostridium difficile.
B)Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C)Campylobacter jejuni.
D)Vibrio cholerae.
E)Escherichia coli.
Answer: A
Q2) Bacteria which are classified as Gram-positive
A)always form endospores.
B)do not have peptidoglycan in the cell wall.
C)appear blue/purple when stained with the Gram stain.
D)have a capsule to help absorb the stain.
E)all of the above.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Genes and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA is composed of
A)phosphate,ribose,adenine,thymine,guanine and cytosine.
B)phosphate,deoxyribose,thymine,adenine,guanine and cytosine.
C)phosphate,ribose,adenine,uracil,guanine and cytosine.
D)phosphate,deoxyribose,adenine,uracil,guanine and cytosine.
E)none of the above.
Q2) A codon is
A)a sequence of three nucleotide bases.
B)a sequence of four nucleotide bases.
C)a section of the ribosomal RNA.
D)the four nucleotide bases on transfer RNA.
E)the gene that directs protein synthesis.
Q3) Genetic engineering involves
A)the manipulation of microbial cells to produce specialised end products.
B)the use of plasmids to introduce new characteristics into a bacterial cell.
C)infection of bacteria by phage carrying specialised genes.
D)the use of restriction enzymes to isolate specific gene sequences.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 5: Viruses and Viral Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nucleic acid present in viruses is
A)single-stranded RNA.
B)double-stranded RNA.
C)single-stranded DNA.
D)double-stranded DNA.
E)any of the above.
Q2) Oncogenic viruses are ones which
A)can cause cancer.
B)transform cells.
C)integrate their DNA into the host cell genome.
D)suppress contact inhibition in infected cells.
E)all of the above.
Q3) The name virus literally means A)alive.
B)poison.
C)infectious.
D)microscopic.
E)non-living.
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Chapter 6: Eucaryotic Microorganisms: Fungi, protozoa and
Multicellular Organisms
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Q1) Helminth infections
A)are always serious,causing significant morbidity.
B)only occur in developing countries.
C)are always transmitted person to person.
D)have humans as the definitive host.
E)may have more than one host in their life cycle.
Q2) Ectoparasites
A)cause serious blood-borne diseases.
B)live in a parasitic relationship on the surface of humans.
C)are only found in crowded living conditions.
D)include mosquitoes,sandflies and ticks.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Hookworms
A)are not found in Australia.
B)gain entry to the body by burrowing through the skin.
C)only infect the lungs.
D)are usually at least 10 cm in length.
E)are totally resistant to drug treatment.
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Chapter 7: Hostmicrobe Interactions and Principles of Disease
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Q1) People who have a chronic viral infection
A)have severe,life-threatening symptoms.
B)are not infectious.
C)may not be aware they have a disease.
D)should be isolated.
E)will eventually develop liver cancer.
Q2) A systemic infection is one which
A)occurs on the surface of the body.
B)is contained in one area by an inflammatory reaction.
C)affects multiple tissues or organs.
D)can be treated with topical antibiotics.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following may be a sign of infection?
A)Fever.
B)Inflammation.
C)Rash.
D)Diarrhoea.
E)All of the above.
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Chapter 8: Epidemiology: How Diseases Are Spread
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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Pathogens that cause disease in humans cannot survive outside the human body.
B)Communicable diseases are only caused by pathogens which are able to survive outside the human body.
C)To cause disease pathogenic microorganisms must be transmitted directly from person to person.
D)Opportunistic pathogens always cause disease.
E)None of the above.
Q2) Pathogens that enter the body via the respiratory route
A)may produce symptoms in other parts of the body.
B)only cause infections in the lungs.
C)are almost always opportunistic pathogens.
D)are almost always bacteria.
E)are always readily identified by a throat swab.
Q3) Diseases that are always present in a community are described as
A)epidemic.
B)systemic.
C)contagious.
D)endemic.
E)chronic.
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Chapter 9: The Bodys Defence Systems
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Q1) The main phagocytic cells in the body are
A)monocytes and lymphocytes.
B)macrophages and lymphocytes.
C)neutrophils and basophils.
D)macrophages and neutrophils.
E)macrophages and natural killer (NK)cells.
Q2) Human leucocyte antigen (HLA)proteins are
A)found only on leucocytes.
B)coded for by the major histocompatibility complex.
C)produced by the immune system following organ transplantation.
D)the main targets in autoimmune responses.
E)completely different in all individuals.
Q3) Which of the following is a part of the body's innate defences?
A)Lysozyme.
B)Mucopolysaccharide.
C)Sweat.
D)Fatty acid.
E)All of the above.
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Chapter 10: Pathogenic Mechanisms and Evasion
Strategies of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures enables microbes to attach to cell surfaces?
A)Adhesins.
B)Pili.
C)Fimbriae.
D)Glycocalyx.
E)All of the above.
Q2) Exotoxins are
A)only produced by Gram-positive bacteria.
B)highly resistant to heat.
C)released when bacterial cells die.
D)synthesised on plasmids in some bacteria.
E)proteins which damage host cells.
Q3) Which of the following is FALSE? Endotoxins
A)are part of the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria.
B)may produce septic shock.
C)are a primary cause of death in meningococcal patients.
D)may cause blockage of blood vessels and tissue necrosis.
E)can cause release of pyrogens and hence fever.
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Chapter 11: Principles of Sterilisation and Disinfection
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Q1) Which of the following is the correct method of cleaning up a blood spill?
A)Wipe it up with disposable towels and wash the area with detergent.
B)Flood the spill with a phenolic compound,and wipe it up.
C)Flood the area with 0.1% sodium hypochlorite.
D)Wipe up the spill with disposable towels,and treat the area with 1.0% sodium hypochlorite.
E)Use a mop and a neutral detergent to decontaminate the area.
Q2) What is most likely to happen to the bacteria in food which is placed in a refrigerator at 4 C?
A)They die because bacteria cannot tolerate low temperatures.
B)They continue to multiply but at a much reduced rate.
C)They produce toxins which cause gastroenteritis when the food is eaten.
D)They all form endospores in order to survive.
E)They mutate in order to survive.
Q3) Which concentration of ethyl alcohol is the most effective bactericide?
A)100%
B)90%
C)70%
D)50%
E)20%
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Chapter 12: Antimicrobial Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the side effects of using aminoglycoside antibiotics is
A)kidney failure.
B)skin rashes.
C)allergic reaction.
D)high blood pressure.
E)all of the above.
Q2) The antiviral drug that is most effective for herpes infections and shingles is A)aciclovir.
B)amantadine.
C)interferon.
D)oseltamivir.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Literally,an antibiotic is
A)a substance that kills bacteria but not viruses.
B)a chemical that inhibits a microorganism,but doesn't necessarily kill it.
C)any substance that inhibits or kills a microorganism.
D)a substance produced by a microorganism that kills or inhibits other microorganisms.
E)none of the above.
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Chapter 13: Infection Control in Healthcare Facilities
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Q1) Which of the following opportunistic organisms can cause diarrhoea or a pseudomembranous colitis following broad spectrum antibiotic therapy?
A)E.coli.
B)Streptococcus pyogenes.
C)Candida albicans.
D)Clostridium difficile.
E)Vancomycin-resistant enterococci.
Q2) Which of the following infections would NOT be classed as iatrogenic?
A)Urinary tract infection following catheterisation.
B)Influenza acquired in hospital.
C)Septicaemia after insertion of an IV cannula.
D)Bacterial abscess following epidural anaesthetic.
E)Pneumonia following tracheostomy.
Q3) Hand hygiene should be practised
A)before touching a patient.
B)after touching a patient.
C)before undertaking a procedure on a patient.
D)after touching a patient's surroundings.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 14: Issues in Public Health
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Q1) Women are advised to have regular Pap smear tests.This is to
A)screen for the presence of abnormal cervical cells.
B)test for sexually transmitted infections.
C)assess the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
D)screen for the presence of group B streptococci.
E)none of the above.
Q2) Scabies is a disease that
A)is caused by fleas.
B)only occurs in tropical climates.
C)may predispose a person to streptococcal infections.
D)is not easily transmitted.
E)all of the above.
Q3) In Australia,older adults with grandchildren are recommended to be vaccinated against A)whooping cough.
B)hepatitis A.
C)cholera.
D)tuberculosis.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 15: Microbial Techniques for Diagnosis of Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Culture of a clinical specimen in the microbiology laboratory
A)always provides an accurate diagnosis.
B)is always the best method for diagnosing an infection.
C)typically provides a result in less than four hours.
D)is especially useful for viruses which can't be seen in a microscope.
E)none of the above.
Q2) A patient has a serum antibody titre of 1280 to rubella virus.This could mean that the patient
A)has rubella.
B)is immune to rubella.
C)has been vaccinated against rubella.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
Q3) Blood cultures
A)may not yield a result for several days or more.
B)should be collected from all patients on admission to hospital.
C)refers to a special method in which swab specimens are cultured in blood.
D)require the collection of 500 ml of blood from the patient.
E)should not be collected more than once from a patient.
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Chapter 16: Skin, wound and Eye Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the varicella zoster virus reactivates late in life,it causes
A)cancer.
B)shingles.
C)autoimmune disease.
D)measles.
E)dementia.
Q2) Which of the following childhood diseases does NOT have a distinctive skin rash?
A)Measles.
B)Mumps.
C)Rubella.
D)Chickenpox.
E)Impetigo.
Q3) Impetigo is a(n)
A)rash caused by a virus.
B)allergic reaction to an infection.
C)infection only seen in children.
D)bacterial skin infection.
E)fungal infection of subcutaneous tissue.
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Chapter 17: Respiratory Tract Infections
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Q1) Seasonal influenza
A)has resulted in a number of major pandemics.
B)is due to viruses undergoing antigenic drift.
C)is also referred to as Asian flu because of where it originates.
D)must be treated with antibiotics to prevent the spread of the virus.
E)is not infectious until the symptoms have fully developed.
Q2) The reason that people repeatedly suffer from colds is because
A)the cold virus mutates so people have no immunity.
B)they get a chill.
C)many different viruses cause the common cold.
D)antibiotics don't kill viruses.
E)they haven't been vaccinated.
Q3) Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen that causes pneumonia in immunodeficient patients,such as people with AIDS?
A)Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B)Staphylococcus aureus.
C)Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D)Pneumocystis jiroveci.
E)Chlamydia trachomatis.
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Chapter 18: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections
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Q1) Shigella are organisms which
A)invade the intestinal lining.
B)do not have an endotoxin.
C)have been completely eradicated by vaccination.
D)cause amoebic dysentery.
E)rarely cause infections in children.
Q2) The giant roundworm that can lay around 200 000 eggs a day in the intestine of an infected person is
A)Enterobius vermicularis.
B)Ascaris lumbricoides.
C)Strongyloides stercoralis.
D)Ancylostoma duodenale.
E)Echinococcus granulosus.
Q3) Hepatitis B can be transmitted by
A)male homosexual contact.
B)exposure to infected patient blood.
C)at birth,from infected mother to baby.
D)intravenous drug use.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 19: Cardiovascular and Multisystem Infections
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Q1) Toxoplasmosis is
A)caused by a protozoan.
B)transmitted in cat faeces.
C)usually a mild infection in most adults.
D)all of the above.
E)none of the above.
Q2) Which of the following diseases is characteristically transmitted to humans in the urine of animals?
A)Leptospirosis.
B)Q fever.
C)Melioidosis.
D)Anthrax.
E)Listeriosis.
Q3) Infectious mononucleosis
A)is caused by the herpes virus.
B)causes a depletion of monocytes in the blood.
C)is spread by respiratory secretions.
D)rarely infects people over 4 years of age.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 20: Infections of the Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is used to smooth wrinkles in facial muscles?
A)Botulinum neurotoxin A.
B)Botulinum musculospasmin.
C)Staphylococcus aureus neurotoxin.
D)Tetanospasmin toxin.
E)Tetanus neurotoxin.
Q2) A transmissible spongiform encephalopathy
A)is exemplified by kuru.
B)only affects humans.
C)is caused by an infectious nucleic acid.
D)is rarely fatal.
E)all of the above.
Q3) Meningococcal septicaemia is
A)resistant to most antibiotics.
B)characterised by a haemorrhagic skin rash.
C)not as serious as meningococcal meningitis.
D)due to the actions of a potent exotoxin.
E)all of the above.
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Chapter 21: Infections of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Bacteria that cause urinary tract infection
A)usually originate in the gastrointestinal tract.
B)often possess attachment pili.
C)often colonise periurethral areas prior to causing infection.
D)have variable sensitivity to antimicrobial drugs.
E)all of the above.
Q2) Which of the following statements about genital herpes is FALSE?
A)It can be caused by herpes simplex virus type 1.
B)It is transmitted sexually.
C)It may cause neonatal encephalitis.
D)It can be completely treated with aciclovir.
E)It can be diagnosed by antibody detection in serum.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Chlamydial infections are treated with penicillin.
B)Chlamydia is rarely seen in Aboriginal people or in remote areas of Australia.
C)Chlamydia infection can cause pelvic inflammatory disease.
D)Chlamydia infection is always symptomatic.
E)Chlamydia does not affect koalas.
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