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Clinical Diagnostics Solved Exam Questions - 420 Verified Questions

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Clinical Diagnostics

Solved Exam Questions

Course Introduction

Clinical Diagnostics is a comprehensive course that introduces students to the principles and practices of laboratory testing as they relate to the detection and monitoring of disease in clinical settings. The course covers the fundamental biochemical, molecular, and microscopic techniques used in the analysis of bodily fluids, tissues, and cells, emphasizing the interpretation of diagnostic results and their relevance to patient care. Students explore topics such as sample collection and handling, test selection, quality control, clinical decision-making, and the role of emerging technologies in diagnostics. Through lectures, case studies, and practical laboratory experience, the course equips students with the knowledge and skills necessary for effective collaboration with healthcare professionals in the diagnosis and management of disease.

Recommended Textbook

Clinical Laboratory Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine Practices 1st Edition by Gretchen Johns

Available Study Resources on Quizplus

21 Chapters

420 Verified Questions

420 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1251 Page 2

Chapter 1: The Immune Process: the Origin and Interaction

Between Antigens and Antibodies

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24694

Sample Questions

Q1) The term immunogen refers to a substance capable of eliciting the formation of a(n)

A)Antigen

B)Antibody

C)Cytokine

D)Protein

Answer: B

Q2) All of the following statements about agglutination are true except

A)Is defined as the aggregation of particulate matter caused by combination with a specific antibody

B)Is the visible endpoint of antigen-antibody reactions for blood bank testing

C)Is an irreversible reaction between antigen and antibody

D)Is thought to be a two-step process

Answer: C

Q3) Which is the principal isotype found in mucosal secretions?

A)IgA

B)IgD

C)IgE

D)IgM

Answer: A

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Chapter 2: Immunogenetics: the Origin of Antigens

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24695

Sample Questions

Q1) When alleles at a given locus on both chromosomes are identical they are

A)antithetical

B)indecipherable

C)heterozygous

D)homozygous

Answer: D

Q2) Which of the following is the method used for predicting genotype frequencies of offspring?

A)Combination grouping

B)Dominant grouping

C)Dosage effect

D)Punnett square

Answer: D

Q3) The tendency for genes that are close together on the same chromosome to be inherited as a unit is called

A)codonage

B)linkage

C)morphing

D)replicating

Answer: B

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Chapter 3: Blood Bank Applications of Antigenantibody

Reactions

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24696

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following would be a disadvantage to using a monoclonal reagent?

A)No contaminating antibodies

B)Small variation between batches

C)Specificity may be relative

D)Unlimited production

Answer: C

Q2) During the incubation phase of an antibody screen test,how long should the test tubes be incubated?

A)5-10 minutes

B)10-30 minutes

C)Depends on the temperature of incubation

D)Depends on the enhancement reagent added

Answer: D

Q3) In transfusion medicine,the antihuman globulin (AHG)technique is used for numerous purposes including

A)Analyzing DNA

B)Detecting unexpected antibodies

C)Diagnosing the presence of human globulin

D)Inspecting microorganisms

Answer: B

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Chapter 4: Abo and Hh Blood Group Systems

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20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24697

Sample Questions

Q1) How many nucleotide differences are there between the A and B genes?

A)3

B)4

C)6

D)7

Q2) Forward grouping

A)Identifies antibody by combining the unknown plasma with known ABO red blood cells

B)Identifies antigen by combining the unknown red blood cells with known antibody

C)Occurs when the results of the forward and reverse grouping do not correlate

D)Occurs when the results for the A and B antigen do not correlate

Q3) In order to avoid the chance of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction,most laboratories will transfuse only group ____ red blood cell units and group ____ plasma products to patients who have an unresolved ABO-typing discrepancy.

A)A,AB

B)B,AB

C)O,AB

D)A,B

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Chapter 5: Rh, Rhag, and Lw Blood Group Systems

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20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The C/c antigens arise from a single amino acid difference at position

A)10³

B)215

C)226

D)302

Q2) Which antigen is routinely tested for in all blood donors and recipients in most countries?

A)C

B)D

C)E

D)O

Q3) The Ce antigen is present when C and e are found in the ____ position.

A)cis

B)co-dominant

C)null

D)trans

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Chapter 6: Other Blood Group Systems

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24699

Sample Questions

Q1) The most common chemical reagent used in North America to alter reagent red blood cells is the enzyme

A)bromelin

B)ficin

C)papain

D)trypsin

Q2) Detection of anti-i has been associated with

A)hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn

B)infectious mononucleosis

C)paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

D)sickle cell anemia

Q3) The Xg antigen results from a gene on the ____ chromosome.

A)X

B)Y

C)XG

D)YG

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Chapter 7: Pretransfusion and Compatibility Testing

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24700

Sample Questions

Q1) Crossmatch is also known as

A)Compatibility testing

B)Donor cell antigen typing

C)Immediate spin phase testing

D)Patient cell antigen typing

Q2) All of the following are methodologies used for routine transfusion medicine testing except

A)Gel testing

B)Immunodiffusion testing

C)Solid phase testing

D)Tube/microplate testing

Q3) Another term for the electronic crossmatch is

A)computer-aided crossmatch

B)computer-assisted crossmatch

C)computer-enhanced crossmatch

D)computer-generated crossmatch

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9

Chapter 8: Identification of Unexpected Antibodies

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24701

Sample Questions

Q1) Rabbit erythrocyte stroma removes ____ and antibodies in the P blood group system.

A)Anti-A

B)Anti-B

C)Anti-Le

D)Anti-Le

Q2) The k antigen is destroyed by

A)the enzyme bromelin

B)the enzyme pronase

C)a combination of chymotrypsin and trypsin

D)a combination of ficin and pronase

Q3) If the autocontrol is negative and the patient has been transfused or pregnant,then positive reactions in the antibody screen test are likely due to an A)alloantibody

B)antigen

C)autoantibody

D)anti-drug antibody

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10

Chapter 9: Donor Selection, Phlebotomy, and Required Testing

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24702

Sample Questions

Q1) How many categories of deferrals are there?

A)Two

B)Three

C)Four

D)Five

Q2) The minimum hemoglobin level for an allogeneic whole blood donation is

A)10.5 g/dL (105 g/L)

B)12.5 g/dL (125 g/L)

C)13.3 g/dL (133 g/L)

D)13.6 g/dL (136 g/L)

Q3) The maximum volume of blood that may be collected in a whole blood,allogeneic donation is

A)10.5 mL/kg of body weight

B)11.5 mL/kg of body weight

C)12.0 mL/kg of body weight

D)14.0 mL/kg of body weight

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11

Chapter 10: Blood Products: Preparation, Storage, and Shipment of

Blood Components

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24703

Sample Questions

Q1) Who coined the term "blood bank"?

A)Bernard Fantus

B)Francis Rous

C)JR Turner

D)Richard Weil

Q2) Plasma fractionation produces what three categories of protein concentrates?

A)Albumin,beta globulins,and coagulation factors

B)Albumin,immune globulins,and coagulation factors

C)Haptoglobin,immune globulins,and coagulation factors

D)Haptoglobin,immune globulins,and complement factors

Q3) For irradiated red blood cells,what is the storage temperature and expiry period?

A)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)for up to 4 hours

B)68-75.2° F (20-24° C)for up to 4 hours

C)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)for up to 24 hours or to the original component expiry date

D)33.8-50° F (1-6° C)for up to 28 days or to the original component expiry date

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Chapter 11: Component Therapy and Massive Transfusion

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24704

Sample Questions

Q1) Community-directed donation programs are often used to find donors for patients suffering from one of which two diseases?

A)Anemia or coagulopathy

B)Hemophilia A or hemophilia B

C)Leukemia or lymphoma

D)Sickle cell anemia or thalassemia

Q2) Cryoprecipitate contains which coagulation factors?

A)Factor V,factor VII,factor VIII

B)Factor VII,factor VIII,factor XIII

C)Fibrinogen,factor V,factor VIII

D)Fibrinogen,factor VIII,factor XIII

Q3) Whole blood transfusion achieves all of the following except

A)Improved cellular immune function

B)Improved tissue oxygenation

C)Replacement of fluid

D)Replacement of nonlabile coagulation factors

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13

Chapter 12: Adverse Reactions to Transfusion

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24705

Sample Questions

Q1) What causes allergic transfusion reactions?

A)Patient antibodies that are directed against antigens present on the transfused red blood cells.

B)Patient antibodies to non-ABO red blood cell antigens.

C)Preformed plasma antibodies that react with protein-based allergens.

D)Pulmonary infiltrates caused by antibodies to HLA antigens.

Q2) According to the 2005 UK SHOT data,the risk of a patient receiving an incorrect blood component is 1 in ____ blood components transfused.

A)100

B)5,000

C)15,000

D)100,000

Q3) All of the following are signs and symptoms of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction except

A)Fever

B)Muscle cramps

C)Chest pain

D)Dyspnea

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Chapter 13: Transfusion-Transmitted Infections

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24706

Sample Questions

Q1) Nucleic acid amplification-based testing (NAT)reduced the window period for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)to approximately how many days?

A)12

B)14

C)16

D)22

Q2) Which of the following is a mode of transmission for cytomegalovirus?

A)Fecal/oral

B)Respiratory

C)Transfusion

D)Vector

Q3) All of the following transfusion-transmitted infections are also considered to be sexually transmitted diseases except

A)Hepatitis C

B)Human immunodeficiency virus

C)Syphilis

D)Toxoplasmosis

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15

Chapter 14: Perinatal and Neonatal Transfusion Issues

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24707

Sample Questions

Q1) Prior to giving Rh-immune globulin (RhIG),when should a second antibody screen be tested on an Rh(D)-negative woman whose initial antibody screen was negative?

A)8 weeks gestation

B)12 weeks gestation

C)24 weeks gestation

D)28 weeks gestation

Q2) Complications of amniocentesis include

A)Infection

B)Pyruvate kinase deficiency

C)Rh sensitization

D)Thalassemia

Q3) All of the following are pregnancy-related indications for Rh-immune globulin injection except

A)Antepartum after abdominal trauma

B)Perinatal after termination of pregnancy

C)Postpartum when fetal death occurred

D)Postpartum when baby is Rh(D)negative

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Chapter 15: Autoimmune and Drug-Induced Immune

Hemolytic Anemias

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24708

Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most common underlying etiology of cold agglutinin syndrome (CAS)?

A)Autoimmune conditions

B)Bacterial or viral infections

C)Lymphoproliferative disorders

D)Systemic lupus erythematosus

Q2) Which laboratory test result is associated with immune destruction of red blood cells?

A)Decreased serum lactate dehydrogenase

B)Decreased serum hemoglobin

C)Increased serum haptoglobulin

D)Increased serum bilirubin

Q3) Which of the following is defined as the process of removing antibodies bound to red blood cells?

A)Adsorption

B)Alloadsorption

C)Autoadsorption

D)Elution

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Page 17

Chapter 16: Platelet Refractory Patients

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24709

Sample Questions

Q1) Which is the most common causative agent of drug-induced immune thrombocytopenia today?

A)Amphotericin B

B)Cephalexin

C)Heparin

D)Quinine

Q2) Which antibody is the most common cause of neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia?

A)Anti-HLA-DQ1

B)Anti-HLA-Dq²

C)Anti-HPA-1a

D)Anti-HPA-1b

Q3) An advantage of platelet crossmatching is

A)the immediate availability of compatible units

B)the fact that it decreases the overall transfusion time

C)that platelets have a shelf-life of 5 days

D)that crossmatched platelets perform better than high-grade HLA-matched products

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18

Chapter 17: Transfusion Support of Selected Patient

Populations

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24710

Sample Questions

Q1) What is the recommended hematocrit in patients with end-stage renal disease?

A)22-25% (0.22-0.25)

B)28-33% (0.28-0.33)

C)33-36% (0.33-0.36)

D)36-42% (0.36-0.42)

Q2) Donor and patient red blood cells are typically matched for which antigens when a patient with sickle cell disease is going to be transfused?

A)C,c,E,e

B)C,E,K

C)E,K,S

D)M,N,S

Q3) Red blood cell and platelet transfusions are used as supportive therapy in patients who have undergone a hematopoietic progenitor cell (HPC)transplant until when?

A)Chemotherapy is complete

B)CMV reactivation occurs

C)Engraftment occurs

D)Factor levels reach 70%

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Page 19

Chapter 18: Human Histocompatibility

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24711

Sample Questions

Q1) In humans the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)is also called the _____ system.

A)DRA

B)HAL

C)HLA

D)MIC

Q2) Which chromosome carries the genes for the HLA system? A)1

B)3

C)6 D)9

Q3) If all possible alleles have the same nucleotide sequence in the exons coding for the peptide-binding domains,the string is reported as the possible allele with the lowest number followed by a capital A)A

B)D

C)G

D)P

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Chapter 19: Methods in Parentage Testing

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24712

Sample Questions

Q1) Bayes' theorem

A)allows a level of certainty for a given belief or hypothesis to be modified either positively or negatively by incorporating new information pertinent to the hypothesis

B)involves the use of electrophoresis to separate alleles by size

C)is specific to parentage testing and the evolution of the associated statistical calculations

D)standardizes the calculations used in parentage testing and the interpretation and communication of the results

Q2) VNTR refers to

A)variable nucleotide test result in DNA testing

B)variable number of tandem repeats in a DNA sequence

C)venous nucleotide type repeat in DNA sequence

D)very neutral transition reactions in DNA synthesis

Q3) In what year were DNA typing procedures incorporated into parentage testing standards?

A)1953

B)1967

C)1985

D)1992

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Page 21

Chapter 20: Transfusion Safety and Regulatory Issues

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24713

Sample Questions

Q1) A full inspection of all systems is designated as what level of inspection?

A)Level I

B)Level II

C)Level III

D)Level IV

Q2) All of the following are categories of enforcement action that the FDA can use except

A)Administrative

B)Advisory

C)Deviation

D)Recall

Q3) In North America,the three organizations currently most recognized for accrediting to ISO 15189 standards are all of the following except

A)A2LA

B)AABB

C)CAP

D)OLA

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22

Chapter 21: Quality Assurance

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/24714

Sample Questions

Q1) A near-miss event is a(an)

A)failure to meet accreditation requirements

B)event resulting in a patient or donor experiencing a fatal,life-threatening,or serious adverse outcome

C)measureable facet of a process

D)unexpected occurrence where an error was identified and corrected before a patient or product was adversely affected

Q2) A nonconformance event is defined as a

A)corrected error where the patient or product was not adversely affected

B)departure from policies

C)deviation from cGMP

D)failure to meet accreditation requirements

Q3) Validation is defined as

A)conformance of a product or process with pre-established specifications

B)documented evidence that provides a high degree of assurance that a specific process will consistently produce a product meeting predetermined specifications

C)monitoring performed to ensure that the quality system is being adhered to and is effective

D)standardization of an analytic instrument

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