Child and Adolescent Development Review Questions
Course Introduction
Child and Adolescent Development explores the physical, cognitive, emotional, and social growth patterns from infancy through adolescence. The course examines major developmental theories and research findings, highlighting the various factors such as family, culture, and peer influences that shape an individual's development. Students will analyze developmental milestones, challenges related to health and learning, and the implications for educational settings. By understanding normative and atypical development, learners will gain insights into supporting the needs and well-being of children and adolescents within diverse environments.
Recommended Textbook
HDEV 5th Edition by Spencer A. Rathus
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19 Chapters
2228 Verified Questions
2228 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: History, Theories, and Methods
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115 Verified Questions
115 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the role of extinction in altering behavior.
Answer: Answers will vary. Extinction results from repeated performance of operant behavior without reinforcement. After a number of trials, the operant behavior is no longer shown. Children's temper tantrums and crying at bedtime can often be extinguished by parents' remaining out of the bedroom after the children have been put to bed. Punishments are aversive events that suppress or decrease the frequency of the behavior they follow.
Q2) Discuss the importance of evolutionary psychology in studying human development.
Answer: Answers will vary. The field of evolutionary psychology studies the ways in which adaptation and natural selection are connected with mental processes and behavior. One of the concepts of evolutionary psychology is that not only physical traits but also patterns of behavior, including social behavior, evolve and are transmitted genetically from generation to generation. In other words, behavior patterns that help an organism to survive and reproduce are likely to be transmitted to the next generation. Such behaviors are believed to include aggression, strategies of mate selection, even altruism-that is, self-sacrifice of the individual to help perpetuate the family group.
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Chapter 2: Heredity and Prenatal Development
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genotypes reflect both genetic and environmental influences.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The field of biology that studies heredity is called:
A) etiology.
B) ecology.
C) genetics.
D) eugenics.
Answer: C
Q3) _________is a genetic disorder in which blood does not clot properly.
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Hemophilia
C) Lymphoma
D) Huntington's disease
Answer: B
Q4) A blastocyst gains mass only when it receives nourishment from outside.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Birth and the Newborn Baby: in the New World
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jessica is the mother of a 4-month-old boy. She notices that whenever she picks her baby from his crib, he moves his arms and legs as if he is trying to hug her. The baby moves in this manner due to the _____.
A) rooting reflex
B) Moro reflex
C) grasping reflex
D) Babinski reflex
Answer: B
Q2) The _____ in our brain causes us to breathe if we are in need of oxygen.
A) cerebellum
B) medulla
C) thalamus
D) hypothalamus
Answer: B
Q3) Prostaglandins cause the cramping that women may feel before or during menstruation.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Infancy: Physical Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of development, discuss the adaptability of the human brain.
Q2) Which of the following is true of the diet for infants?
A) Infants usually have a preference for those foods they need the most.
B) Infants do not require fiber in their diet after the introduction of solid foods.
C) In an infant's diet, high-iron foods should be restricted.
D) In an infant's diet, fat and cholesterol should not be restricted too much.
Q3) It is important to completely restrict infants' intake of fat and cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Toddlers begin to run with their legs in a bowlegged fashion because:
A) they lack the Babinski reflex.
B) this action requires visual-motor coordination, which is absent in toddlers.
C) the head and the torso are heavier than the rest of the body.
D) the principle of cephalocaudal development prevents them from running.
Q5) Which of the following statements is true of growth patterns in boys?
A) Boys reach about half their adult height by two years of age.
B) Boys reach about one-third their adult height by five years of age.
C) Boys reach about one-fourth their adult height by four years of age.
D) Boys reach about one-tenth their adult height by three years of age.
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Chapter 5: Infancy: Cognitive Development
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paul is a six-month-old baby who loves playing with his toy truck. Every time he picks his truck up, he says "ooh," and every time he drops it back on the floor he says "aah." In this scenario, Paul is:
A) cooing.
B) babbling.
C) murmuring.
D) humming.
Q2) In secondary circular reactions, the focus shifts to objects and environmental events.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The fifth substage of the sensorimotor stage, characterized by tertiary circular reactions, lasts from _____ months of age.
A) one to four
B) four to eight
C) eight to twelve
D) twelve to eighteen
Q4) What do Jean Piaget's schemes mean? How are assimilation and accommodation related to schemes?
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Chapter 6: Infancy: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of male children?
A) They are discouraged from participating in rough-and-tumble play by their parents.
B) They are likely to be decked out in pink or yellow attire embellished with ruffles and lace.
C) They are encouraged to engage in more physical activity than girls.
D) They are most likely to play with dolls, doll furniture, dishes, and toy animals.
Q2) Madison, an 11-month-old, is a fairly cheerful infant. She usually eats and sleeps at the same time every day. She is friendly with strangers who pick her up or play with her. In this scenario, Madison has a(n) _____.
A) difficult temperament
B) phlegmatic temperament
C) slow-to-warm-up temperament
D) easy temperament
Q3) What is insecure attachment? What are the two major types of insecure attachment?
Q4) Differentiate between the behavior of infant girls and boys.
Q5) What is social referencing?
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Early Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of height and weight gains during early childhood, as compared with infancy, _____.
A) boys and girls gain some more baby fat
B) boys and girls become more slender
C) girls as a group become heavier and taller than boys
D) girls as a group outgrow boys significantly
Q2) Gross motor skills are those skills that:
A) are used in manipulation and coordination involving small and precise movements.
B) are used in locomotion that involve large muscle groups.
C) are used by children when drawing images or playing a musical instrument.
D) are acquired in late childhood or early adolescence.
Q3) In right-handed individuals, the left hemisphere of the brain is relatively more involved in _____ functions.
A) problem-solving
B) visual-spatial
C) aesthetic
D) emotional
Q4) Describe the development of handedness in early childhood.
Q5) Briefly describe the nutritional needs of preschool children.
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Chapter 8: Early Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to gender-schema theory, once children come to see themselves as female or male, they begin to seek information concerning gender-typed traits and try to live up to them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the authoritative parenting style.
Q3) Which of the following is true of children who are involved in cooperative play?
A) They play with toys by themselves, independently of the children around them.
B) They do not appear to be playing.
C) They only observe other children playing.
D) They interact to achieve common, group goals.
Q4) Akiva sees a group of three boys playing next to him in class. He does not attempt to join them but simply watches them. According to Mildred Parten, Akiva is involved in
A) onlooker play
B) solitary play
C) formal play
D) associative play
Q5) What is gender-schema theory?
Q6) Briefly explain the self-concept.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Middle Childhood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of the stimulants used for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
A) They reduce children's attention spans.
B) They improve children's academic performance.
C) They have zero addiction liability.
D) They degrade cognitive development.
Q2) Mark, a six-year-old boy, cannot discriminate between the sounds of b's, d's, and p's. This becomes a problem for him in class as it creates confusion and impairs his reading ability. In this scenario, Mark has problems with _____.
A) analytical reasoning
B) phonological processing
C) deductive reasoning
D) numerical cognition
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to a person's actual age?
A) Mental age
B) Critical age
C) Chronological age
D) Intellectual age
Q4) Briefly explain grammar and vocabulary development in children.
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Middle Childhood: Social and Emotional Development
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the five levels of perspective-taking skills in childhood as described by Robert Selman, children in _________are more egocentric than children in the other levels.
A) level 0
B) level 1
C) level 2
D) level 3
Q2) According to research by Amato & Anthony in 2014 and Hicks et al. in 2013, the children of divorce are:
A) more likely to have good grades in school.
B) more likely to have conduct disorders.
C) less likely to abuse drugs.
D) unlikely to rebound even after many years.
Q3) Separation anxiety disorder usually becomes a significant problem in middle childhood because that is when children are expected to adjust to school.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss parent-child relationships during middle childhood.
Q5) In the context of education, discuss the Pygmalion effect.
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Chapter 11: Adolescence: Physical and Cognitive Development
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121 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following brakes the female growth spurt during adolescence?
A) Testosterone
B) Menarche
C) Estrogen
D) Oxytocin
Q2) Ahmed is a social activist. He organized demonstrations and other forms of civil disobedience in California against fur dealers because he firmly believes that it is wrong to kill animals for their fur. According to Kohlberg, Ahmed is in _____ of the postconventional level of moral development.
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 3
C) Stage 4
D) Stage 6
Q3) In the postconventional level, moral reasoning is based on the person's own moral standards.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the concepts of asynchronous growth and the secular trend.
Page 14
Q5) Discuss the gender differences in mathematical ability among adolescents.
Q6) Discuss the use of stimulant drugs among adolescents.
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Page 15
Chapter 12: Adolescence: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Status offenses are defined as:
A) activities that are considered illegal only when performed by minors.
B) white-collar crimes that occur within government organizations.
C) crimes that occur within law enforcement agencies.
D) nonviolent crimes such as property crimes.
Q2) Which of the following best exemplifies a homosexual orientation?
A) Mia, a young female who is in an intimate relationship with a girl
B) Alan, a young male who has sexual relationships with both males and females
C) Pablo, a boy who feels that he should have been a girl
D) Alicia, a girl who is in love with a married man
Q3) In the _____ status, individuals make commitments without considering alternatives.
A) moratorium
B) foreclosure
C) identity achievement
D) identity diffusion
Q4) During adolescence, individuals become increasingly aware of the disparity between their ideal selves and their real selves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Early Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Raj is 29 years old. In the context of the changes that occur during early adulthood, which of the following is likely to be true?
A) Raj is likely to completely lose his ability to hear tones that are high in pitch.
B) Raj's visual acuity is likely to decline dramatically.
C) Raj's ability to hear tones that are high in pitch is likely to enhance.
D) Raj's hearing ability is likely to start declining.
Q2) Which of the following is true of physical development during early adulthood?
A) Young adults are at their tallest during early adulthood.
B) Women are normally stronger than men during early adulthood.
C) The immune system suffers due to extreme stress during early adulthood.
D) The skin begins to tighten in early adulthood.
Q3) Sandy is concerned as she has not menstruated for a really long time. She tested negative for a pregnancy test. She is only in her mid-20s and is far too young for menopause. Sandy is suffering from _____.
A) amenorrhea
B) premenstrual syndrome
C) premenstrual dysphoric disorder
D) dysmenorrhea
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Chapter 14: Early Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ruby and Daniel are close friends and share their innermost thoughts and secrets with each other. They both experience warmth toward each other that arises from feelings of closeness and connectedness. Ruby and Daniel's relationship, however, lacks passion and long-term commitment. In the context of Sternberg's triangular theory of love, Ruby and Daniel's relationship can best be termed:
A) romantic love.
B) liking.
C) companionate love.
D) infatuation.
Q2) Which of the following is characteristic of lonely people?
A) They consider their problems to be less important than those of their peers.
B) They are cynical about human nature.
C) They have good social skills.
D) They disclose personal information to potential friends.
Q3) Which of the following is true of loneliness?
A) It can lead to feelings of mistrust.
B) It increases if people disclose personal information to potential friends.
C) It can occur because of life changes.
D) It decreases from childhood to adolescence.
Q4) Explain the attraction-similarity hypothesis.
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Chapter 15: Middle Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sexual dysfunctions are persistent or recurrent problems in becoming sexually aroused or reaching orgasm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Discuss changes in speed of information processing and memory that occur during middle adulthood.
Q3) Leukocytes are foreign bodies that cause infection.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The resting metabolic rate-also called the basal metabolic rate-declines during middle adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Unpleasant perimenopausal sensations, such as night sweats, hot flushes, and hot flashes, are caused by the deficit of:
A) testosterone
B) epinephrine
C) estrogen
D) adrenaline
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Chapter 16: Middle Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the relationship that middle-aged children share with aging parents.
Q2) Discuss job satisfaction among middle-aged adults.
Q3) The gender of the grandchild has great impact on the amount of involvement of grandparents in their life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is true of involuntary unemployment?
A) It affects those with more social support more than those with less social support.
B) It is harder on young adults than middle-aged adults.
C) It affects all individuals in the same way.
D) It harms the physical and psychological well-being of many individuals.
Q5) Discuss grandparenting challenges faced by middle-aged adults.
Q6) In the context of adult sibling relationships, sisters tend to have more intimate relationships than brothers.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Culture affects the expression of personality traits of people.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 17: Late Adulthood: Physical and Cognitive Development
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115 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autobiographical memory is a type of:
A) explicit memory.
B) implicit memory.
C) prospective memory.
D) procedural memory.
Q2) Sleep problems in late adulthood may involve physical changes that bring discomfort.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Discuss changes in language development in the late adulthood phase of life.
Q4) Who among the following is most likely to be suffering from sleep apnea?
A) Nia, who occasionally wakes up from sleep gasping for breath due to a temporary suspension of breathing
B) Sam, who sometimes walks around while still asleep without being consciously aware of doing so
C) Beth, who has difficulty falling asleep, wakes up quite often during the night, and has trouble going back to sleep
D) Mike, who consistently feels drowsy all day and tends to sleep a lot
Q5) Discuss changes in prospective memory in the late adulthood phase of life.
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Chapter 18: Late Adulthood: Social and Emotional Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss changes in self-esteem among late adults.
Q2) Among Robert Peck's three developmental tasks, _________means preparing in some way to go beyond the physical limitations of one's own life span.
A) ego disengagement
B) ego preoccupation
C) ego differentiation
D) ego transcendence
Q3) Which of the following is the most likely reason for divorce among older adults?
A) Sharing of power and household tasks in the relationship
B) One partner taking up a relationship with an outsider
C) Lack of novelty and adventure in retired life
D) Increased bickering over financial matters
Q4) The basic challenge in the crisis of ego integrity versus despair is to:
A) achieve stagnation rather than generativity in middle adulthood.
B) maintain the belief that life is meaningful despite physical decline and the inevitability of death.
C) look back on the events of one's life and construct a meaningful narrative of one's past.
D) hold on to the things and relationships one has accumulated over the years.
Page 22
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Chapter 19: Lifes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss physician-assisted suicide as a form of active voluntary euthanasia.
Q2) A person who is declared brain dead:
A) is unlikely to exhibit any vital life functions.
B) can continue to breathe.
C) can show normal activity in the cerebral cortex.
D) is likely to be conscious.
Q3) The most widely used criteria for establishing brain death include absence of activity of the _____.
A) cerebral cortex
B) cerebellum
C) brainstem
D) medulla oblongata
Q4) What are the differences between voluntary active euthanasia and involuntary active euthanasia?
Q5) Which of the following is a leading cause of death in early adulthood?
A) Cancer
B) Heart disease
C) Homicide
D) HIV/AIDS
Q6) Discuss the boundaries between life and death.
Page 23
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