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Child and Adolescent Development examines the psychological, emotional, social, and physical changes that occur from infancy through adolescence. The course explores major theories of development, including those of Piaget, Erikson, and Vygotsky, and discusses how biological, familial, cultural, and societal factors influence developmental milestones. Topics include prenatal development, language acquisition, cognitive growth, moral reasoning, identity formation, and the impact of peers and the environment. Emphasis is placed on applying scientific research to real-world contexts, recognizing diversity in developmental trajectories, and understanding the implications for education, parenting, and social policy.
Recommended Textbook
Exploring Lifespan Development 4th Edition by Laura E. Berk
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Q1) In a(n) __________ design, participants are studied repeatedly at different ages, and changes are noted as they get older.
A) cross-sectional
B) experimental
C) longitudinal
D) correlational
Answer: C
Q2) What did John Bowlby believe?
A) Adults and more expert peers help children master culturally meaningful activities.
B) The infant caregiver bond has lifelong consequences for human relationships.
C) Parents and infants are both instinctively attached to each other.
D) Attachment patterns are difficult to study in humans.
Answer: B
Q3) Charles Darwin's theory of evolution emphasized __________ and __________.
A) the normative approach; survival of the fittest
B) noble savages; physical maturation
C) the tabula rasa; natural selection
D) natural selection; survival of the fittest
Answer: D
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Q1) Which of the following statements about human genetic makeup is true?
A) We do not share any of our DNA with other mammals.
B) It takes changes in multiple DNA base pairs to influence human traits.
C) The species-specific genetic material responsible for human attributes is extensive.
D) Gene expression within human cells cannot be modified by environmental factors.
Answer: C
Q2) Heritability estimates are __________.
A) likely to exaggerate the role of the environment
B) difficult to misapply
C) not useful for studying complex traits, such as intelligence and personality
D) likely to exaggerate the role of heredity
Answer: D
Q3) When sperm and ovum unite at conception, a(n) __________ results.
A) autosome
B) gamete
C) zygote
D) allele
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) The mother feels a natural urge to squeeze and push with her abdominal muscles during the __________ stage of labor.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
Answer: B
Q2) Critics worry that fetal monitoring __________.
A) numbs the entire lower half of the body, making it difficult to feel contractions
B) is not helpful in detecting hidden problems with the baby
C) identifies babies as in danger who, in fact, are not
D) increases the likelihood of infant brain damage
Answer: C
Q3) In mammals, including humans, the sense of smell __________.
A) will not become adultlike for several years
B) helps mothers and babies identify each other
C) is the least developed sense at birth
D) will take about four months to become adultlike
Answer: B

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Q1) In the study of Romanian orphans adopted into British homes, children adopted __________ attained the highest mental test scores in childhood and adolescence.
A) before 6 months
B) between 6 months and 2 years
C) between 2 and 6 years
D) between 6 and 11 years
Q2) Every time baby Gloria nurses, she is placed on a nursing pillow. Gloria's mother later notices that each time Gloria is placed on the pillow, she makes sucking movements. In this example, __________ is the conditioned stimulus.
A) breast milk
B) sucking
C) crying
D) placement on the pillow
Q3) In an electroencephalogram (EEG), researchers __________.
A) use a tunnel-shaped apparatus that creates a magnetic field
B) examine brain-wave patterns for stability and organization
C) create detailed, three-dimensional pictures of the entire brain
D) can be certain of the way the individual processes a stimulus
Q4) Explain intermodal perception and its importance to perceptual development.
Page 6
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Q1) __________ can be thought of as a "mental workspace" that we use to accomplish many activities in daily life.
A) Automatic processing
B) Sustained attention
C) Working memory
D) The sensory register
Q2) Which statement is supported by research on babbling?
A) For babbling to fully develop, infants must be able to hear human speech.
B) Western babies start babbling sooner than non-Western babies.
C) Deaf infants do not start babbling until much later than hearing infants.
D) Babies with hearing impairments produce the greatest diversity of babbling sounds.
Q3) Two-year-old Carmen is trying to fit pieces into a wooden puzzle form. Carmen's father helps her turn the pieces so they fit snuggly in place. As Carmen's skill improves, her father steps back, letting her try on her own. This example illustrates the concept of
A) novelty preference
B) accommodation
C) sustained attention
D) scaffolding

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Q1) Like anger, fear __________.
A) is less intense than sadness
B) decreases in intensity and frequency with age
C) occurs less frequently in the second half of the first year
D) rises from the second half of the first year into the second year
Q2) Between 6 and 10 weeks, the parent's communication with the infant evokes
A) the social smile
B) laughter
C) social referencing
D) secure attachment
Q3) __________ is moderately related to attachment security in diverse cultures and SES groups.
A) Goodness of fit
B) Social referencing
C) Interactional synchrony
D) Sensitive caregiving
Q4) Define social referencing. How do babies use it to guide their actions and gather information about the emotions of others?
Q5) Describe separation anxiety. When does it occur?
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Q1) According to Vygotksy, children's learning takes place __________.
A) within the zone of proximal development
B) primarily through acting on the environment
C) through reinforcement and punishment
D) through independent activity
Q2) In the High/Scope Perry Preschool Project, those who had attended preschool were __________ likely than their no-preschool counterparts to __________.
A) less; own their own homes
B) less; be married
C) more; have earned both high school and college degrees
D) more; have been involved with the criminal justice system
Q3) In the United States, __________ is/are the leading cause of mortality among school-age children and adolescents.
A) maltreatment
B) motor vehicle collisions
C) fires
D) falls
Q4) Describe the benefits of watching educational television, such as Sesame Street.
Q5) Describe the benefits of make-believe play.
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Q1) Which child is the most likely to become a target of child maltreatment?
A) Jonathan, a tall toddler
B) Sabrina, a social infant
C) Sebastian, an attentive preschooler
D) Faye, a premature baby
Q2) __________, especially, are more insistent that __________ conform to gender roles.
A) Mothers; boys
B) Mothers; girls
C) Fathers; girls
D) Fathers; boys
Q3) The cognitive-developmental perspective __________.
A) focuses on how children acquire ready-made standards of good conduct from adults
B) views children as blank slates, eager to "write" information about social rules
C) regards children as active thinkers about social rules
D) holds that children are prewired with standards of good conduct
Q4) Describe some of the undesirable consequences of frequent punishment.
Q5) Discuss factors within the family that heighten the risk of child maltreatment.
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Q1) In social-constructivist classrooms, __________.
A) students' learning is jointly constructed with teachers and peers
B) the teacher is the sole authority for knowledge and decision making
C) peer collaboration is often replaced by teacher-directed instruction
D) students coordinate their own thoughts rather than absorbing those of others
Q2) Which of the following is Tord most likely to experience in his classroom in Finland?
A) emphasis on native ability as key to academic success
B) teachers who are not as well-paid as U.S. teachers
C) SES variations in achievement due to a recent influx of immigrants
D) a nationally mandated curriculum aimed at cultivating creativity
Q3) Heritability evidence suggests __________ genetic contribution to executive function.
A) little or no
B) only minor
C) moderate
D) considerable
Q4) Discuss the consequences of childhood obesity.
Q5) Discuss educating gifted children. How well do programs for the gifted nurture children's talents and creativity?
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Q1) Jennifer and Joel's children reside with Joel and see Jennifer on a fixed schedule. Both parents have an equal say in important decisions about their children's upbringing. Which type of custodial arrangement do they have?
A) coregulation
B) joint custody
C) sole custody
D) mediated custody
Q2) Excessive guilt is linked to __________.
A) ignoring responsibilities
B) intentional wrongdoing
C) depressive symptoms
D) lying and cheating
Q3) Research shows that school-age children of both sexes __________.
A) rate "masculine" occupations as having higher status than "feminine" occupations
B) are usually tolerant when boys engage in cross-gender acts
C) often feel gender-atypical but are afraid to talk about it
D) will usually reject and ridicule a tomboyish girl
Q4) What factors foster resilience in middle childhood?
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Q1) Girls and (less consistently) boys with a history of family conflict tend to reach puberty __________, whereas those with warm, stable family ties tend to reach puberty __________.
A) relatively late; early
B) on target; late
C) around the same age as their mothers; earlier than their mothers
D) early; relatively late
Q2) Which statement about adolescent mothers is true?
A) They are unlikely to experience pregnancy complications.
B) They have unrealistically low expectations of their infants.
C) They are less likely to divorce if they do marry.
D) Very few give up their infants for adoption.
Q3) Studies show that most adolescents __________.
A) are unaware of basic facts about HIV and AIDS
B) are better informed about other STIs than about HIV and AIDS
C) are poorly informed about how to protect themselves against STIs
D) overestimate their own susceptibility to STIs
Q4) Describe the sleep patterns of teenagers today. Discuss sleep deprivation.
Q5) What is the role of heredity in sexual orientation?
Q6) Discuss motor development and physical activity in adolescence. Page 13
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Q1) On hypothetical dilemmas as well as everyday moral problems, adolescent and adult females __________.
A) are more likely than males to focus on themes of justice
B) display reasoning at a lower stage than their male agemates
C) display reasoning at the same stage as their male agemates, and often at a higher stage
D) focus on themes of both justice and caring, while males focus only on themes of caring
Q2) Xiao is an adolescent immigrant from a culture that values interdependent qualities. The longer his family has been in the United States, the less Xiao feels committed to obeying his parents and fulfilling family obligations. As a result, Xiao may experience
A) acculturative stress
B) bicultural avoidance
C) ethnic identity foreclosure
D) ethnic identity moratorium
Q3) Define and discuss moral identity. What are some factors that strengthen moral identity?
Q4) Discuss gender differences in friendship quality in adolescence.
Q5) Describe how sibling interactions adapt to development at adolescence.
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Q1) According to Holland, the enterprising person is drawn to __________.
A) sales and supervisory positions or politics
B) engineering, anthropology, or physics
C) accounting, banking, or quality control
D) counseling, social work, or teaching
Q2) The physical changes of the adult years are __________.
A) universal in all members of our species
B) multidimensional and multidirectional
C) similar across all parts of the body
D) stagelike-occurring in a predictable sequence
Q3) At the end of the teenage years, nearly 70 percent of U.S. young people __________.
A) report regular heavy drinking
B) have used mobile dating apps
C) have had sexual intercourse
D) report binge drinking during the past month
Q4) Describe the theory of biological aging that emphasizes the programmed effects of specific genes.
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Q5) Describe the federal government's guidelines for dietary fat. How does the consumption of fat impact adult nutrition?

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Q1) Discuss Robert Sternberg's triangular theory of love. Define its components, and discuss how each changes over the course of a relationship.
Q2) From the college years through career exploration and settling into work roles,
A) other-sex friendships increase
B) same-sex friendships cease to be vital contexts for sharing
C) same-sex friendships decrease in importance
D) siblings become more frequent companions
Q3) In traditionally masculine fields, newly hired women whose training is equivalent to that of newly hired men are __________.
A) paid the same as the newly hired men
B) promoted more quickly than men
C) nevertheless paid less than men
D) more likely to find supportive mentors
Q4) Which statement is true about divorce in the United States?
A) Husbands usually report more serious marital problems than wives.
B) Men are twice as likely as women to initiate divorce proceedings.
C) Infidelity and substance abuse are among the strongest predictors of divorce.
D) Economically advantaged couples are especially likely to divorce.
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Q1) High-hardy individuals are likely to __________.
A) use active, problem-centered coping strategies in situations they can control
B) use emotion-centered and avoidant coping strategies in most situations
C) avoid seeking social support because they believe they can solve problems independently
D) deny that a stressful event occurred, or eat and drink to forget about it
Q2) Which sign of aging of the skin usually occurs first?
A) the appearance of "crow's feet" around the eyes
B) the appearance of numerous "age spots"
C) development of lines on the forehead
D) an increase in visible blood vessels
Q3) Shavonda fell and fractured her hip, and has since been diagnosed with osteoporosis. Shavonda's doctor will probably recommend __________.
A) removing vitamin D from the diet
B) endurance training
C) weight-bearing exercise
D) a vitamin C enriched diet
Q4) What is hardiness? How do hardy individuals cope with stress?
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Q5) Discuss the changes that the skin undergoes during the aging process.
Q6) Describe the Type A behavior pattern. How does it affect health?
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Q1) Which statement is true about the "big five" personality traits?
A) Agreeableness decreases slightly from adolescence through middle age.
B) They take into account motivations, preferred tasks, and coping styles.
C) Individual differences in the "big five" traits are large and highly stable.
D) They consider how certain aspects of personality are integrated.
Q2) By midlife, __________.
A) men have more close friends than women
B) men have more intimate friendships than women
C) friendships serve as current sources of pleasure and satisfaction
D) friendships protect against serious threats and losses
Q3) Possible selves are the __________ dimension of self-concept.
A) positive
B) negative
C) temporal
D) social
Q4) __________ increase(s) from early to middle adulthood.
A) Possible selves
B) Self-doubt
C) Destructiveness
D) Autonomy
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of primary aging?
A) blurred vision from macular degeneration
B) lung cancer from smoking cigarettes
C) weight gain from a sedentary lifestyle
D) high blood pressure from prolonged stress
Q2) After cardiovascular disease and cancer, the most common cause of death among the aged is __________.
A) strokes
B) respiratory diseases
C) Alzheimer's disease
D) osteoporosis
Q3) Earl has broad practical knowledge, emotional maturity, and the ability to apply his knowledge to make life more worthwhile. Earl demonstrates __________.
A) fluid intelligence
B) crystallized intelligence
C) generativity
D) wisdom
Q4) Define and describe ADLs and IADLs. What percentage of U.S. older adults have limitations carrying out these activities?
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Q1) Seventy-year-old Isabel's life goals emphasized money and prestige. She is likely to
A) fear the end of life
B) continue service to society
C) express acceptance of her own death
D) feel increased contentment in late life
Q2) Older adults who feel socially integrated into a residential community setting are __________.
A) at high risk for loneliness
B) more likely to experience declining health
C) more likely to consider it their home
D) at high risk for anxiety and depression
Q3) Today, retirement __________.
A) is usually highly streamlined and similar for workers in all occupations
B) means moving from full-time work to full-time leisure in a single event
C) is a dynamic process with multiple transitions serving different purposes
D) is more affordable than ever for workers in all occupations
Q4) Describe THE GREEN HOUSEĀ® model. How is it different from traditional nursing home care?
Q5) Describe George Vaillant's findings regarding successful aging.
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Q1) When Suzanne, Billie Jo's partner of 20 years, was dying, Suzanne's family barred Billie Jo from the hospital. And when Suzanne died, they prevented Billie Jo from attending the funeral. Consequently, Billie Jo may experience __________.
A) anticipatory grieving
B) disenfranchised grief
C) bereavement overload
D) emotional anesthesia
Q2) Family members who play the denial "game" __________.
A) are often brutally candid with dying patients
B) can make dying more difficult for patients
C) can help patients die with dignity
D) help patients preserve family relationships
Q3) Bereavement is __________.
A) the response to the loss of a loved one
B) the experience of losing a loved one by death
C) the culturally specified expression of thoughts and feelings after a death
D) intense physical and psychological distress
Q4) What is medical aid-in-dying? Is it legal in the United States?
Q5) Define and describe the three phases of death.
Q6) What is bereavement overload? Who is at risk for it?
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