Chemistry for Health Sciences Final Test Solutions - 3326 Verified Questions

Chemistry for Health Sciences

Final Test Solutions

Course Introduction

This course introduces fundamental concepts of chemistry with a focus on their application to health sciences. Topics cover atomic and molecular structure, chemical bonding, reactions, stoichiometry, gases, solutions, acids and bases, and organic and biochemical molecules relevant to human health. Emphasis is placed on understanding chemical principles underlying physiological processes, pharmacology, and diagnostics. Laboratory sessions reinforce theoretical knowledge through experiments and analytical techniques relevant to clinical and biomedical settings, preparing students for advanced coursework in health-related disciplines.

Recommended Textbook

Chemistry A Molecular Approach 1st Canadian Ediiton by Nivaldo J. Tro

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25 Chapters

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Units of Measurement for Physical and Chemical Change

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Sample Questions

Q1) A piece of metal ore weighs 8.25 g. When a student places it into a graduated cylinder containing water, the liquid level rises from 21.25 mL to 26.47 mL. What is the density of the ore?

A)0.312 g mL^-1

B)0.633 g mL^-1

C)1.58 g mL^-1

D)3.21 g mL^-1

Answer: C

Q2) A person is 64.00 inches tall. How tall is she in cm?

A)162.6 cm

B)25.20 cm

C)25.60 cm

D)192.0 cm

E)128.0 cm

Answer: A

Q3) A flash drive contains 4 gigabytes. How many bytes does it contain?

Answer: 4 000 000 000 bytes, or 4 292 967 296 bytes if you are is computer literate

Q4) Define random error.

Answer: Random error has an equal probability of being too high or too low.

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Atoms and Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) How many moles of potassium are contained in 449 g of potassium?

A)11.5 moles

B)17.6 moles

C)69.2 moles

D)23.9 moles

E)41.5 moles

Answer: A

Q2) Carbon has two naturally occurring isotopes, carbon-12 and carbon-13. The more common isotope of carbon is carbon-12 with an abundance of 98.93% while carbon-13 has an atomic mass of 13.00335 amu. Calculate the atomic mass of carbon-12 if the atomic mass of carbon is 12.0107 amu.

A)13.1 amu

B)13.0 amu

C)12.0 amu

D)12.8 amu

E)12.4 amu

Answer: C

Q3) Give the name of the element whose symbol is Na.

Answer: sodium

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Chapter 3: Molecules, Compounds, and Nomenclature

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the charge on the Cr ions in Cr₂O₃?

A)2-

B)1+

C)2+

D)3+

Answer: D

Q2) An ionic bond is best described as

A)the sharing of electrons.

B)the transfer of electrons from one atom to another.

C)the attraction that holds the atoms together in a polyatomic ion.

D)the attraction between two nonmetal atoms.

E)the attraction between two metal atoms.

Answer: B

Q3) Identify the formula for barium hydroxide octahydrate.

A)Ba(OH)₂8H₂O

B)BaOH8H₂O

C)B(OH)₃8H₂O

D)8Ba(OH)₂H₂O

E)8BaOHH₂O

Answer: A

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Chapter 4: Chemical Reactions and Stoichiometry

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Sample Questions

Q1) There are ________ mol of bromide ions in 0.900 L of a 0.500 mol L^-1 solution of AlBr₃.

Q2) Identify the net ionic equation for the reaction (if any)that occurs when aqueous solutions of K₂S and Fe(NO₃)₂ are mixed.

A)K⁺(aq)+ NO₃^-(aq) KNO₃(s)

B)Fe²⁺(aq)+ S^2-(aq)+ 2K⁺(aq)+ 2NO₃^-(aq) FeS(s)+ 2K⁺(aq)+ 2NO₃^-(aq)

C)Fe²⁺(aq)+ S^2-(aq)+ 2K⁺(aq)+ 2NO₃^-(aq) Fe²⁺(aq)+ S^2-(aq)+ 2KNO₃(s)

D)Fe²⁺(aq)+ S^2-(aq) FeS(s)

E)No reaction occurs.

Q3) Which of the following compounds is an Arrhenius base?

A)CH₃OH

B)CH₃CO₂H

C)HOCl

D)CsOH

Q4) Define an electrolyte.

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Chapter 5: Gases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Determine the density of CO₂ gas at STP.

A)1.94 g L^-1

B)1.80 g L^-1

C)2.24 g L^-1

D)4.46 g L^-1

E)5.10 g L^-1

Q2) Which of the following samples will have the greatest volume at STP?

A)22 g CO

B)22 g He

C)22 g O₂

D)22 g Cl₂

E)All of these samples would have the same volume at STP.

Q3) Calculate the root mean square velocity of nitrogen molecules at 25 °C.

A)729 m s^-1

B)515 m s^-1

C)149 m s^-1

D)297 m s^-1

Q4) Explain what the term "mean free path" describes. How does it change with decreasing pressure?

Q5) Define effusion.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Thermochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) 8.000 moles of H₂(g)reacts with 4.000 mol of O₂(g)to form 8.000 mol of H₂O(l)at 25 °C and a constant pressure of 1.0133 bar. If 546.4 kJ of heat are released during this reaction, and P V is equal to -29.60 kJ, then

A) H° = +546.4 kJ and U° = +576.06 kJ.

B) H° = +546.4 kJ and U° = +516.8 kJ.

C) H° = -546.4 kJ and U° = -516.8 kJ.

D) H° = -546.4 kJ and U° = -576.0 kJ.

Q2) The combustion of titanium with oxygen produces titanium dioxide: Ti(s)+ O₂(g) TiO₂(s)

When 2.060 g of titanium is combusted in a bomb calorimeter, the temperature of the calorimeter increases from 25.00 °C to 91.60 °C. In a separate experiment, the heat capacity of the calorimeter is measured to be 9.84 kJ K^-1. The heat of reaction for the combustion of a mole of Ti in this calorimeter is ________ kJ mol^-1.

A)14.3

B)19.6

C)-311

D)-0.154

E)-1.52 × 10⁴

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Page 8

Chapter 7: The Quantum-Mechanical Model of the Atom

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Sample Questions

Q1) The element that corresponds to the electron configuration 1s²2s²2p⁶ is ________.

A)sodium

B)magnesium

C)lithium

D)beryllium

E)neon

Q2) Identify the colour that has a wavelength of 460 nm.

A)blue

B)green

C)red

D)yellow

Q3) 2

A)number of unpaired electrons in Zn²⁺

B)number of unpaired electrons in Ti²⁺

Q4) What value of l is represented by a d orbital?

A)1

B)2

C)0

D)3

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Chapter 8: Periodic Properties of the Elements

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Sample Questions

Q1) Below is a list of successive ionization energies (in kJ mol^-1)for a period 3 element. Identify the element and explain how you came to that conclusion.

IE₂ = 2250 IE₃ = 3360 IE₄= 4560 IE₅= 7010 IE₆= 8500 IE₇= 27 100

Q2) How many valence electrons does an atom of Al possess?

A)1

B)2

C)5

D)3

E)8

Q3) What is the general valence-electron ground-state electron configuration for neutral alkaline earth metals?

A)ns¹

B)ns²

C)1s²2s¹

D)1s²2s²

Q4) Why do successive ionization energies increase?

Q5) Define electron affinity.

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Chapter 9: Chemical Bonding I: Lewis Theory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Choose the bond below that is the strongest.

A)N=O

B)N-I

C)N-O

D)N-S

E)N=N

Q2) Which ionic compound would be expected to have the highest lattice energy?

A)Rb₂O

B)SrO

C)In₂O₃

D)CO₂

Q3) Identify the complete electronic configuration for S^2-.

A)1s²2s²2p⁶3s²4p⁶

B)1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶

C)1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁵

D)1s²2s²3p⁶4s²5p⁶

E)1s²2s²p⁶3s²p⁶

Q4) Describe the difference between a pure covalent bond and a polar covalent bond.

Q5) List the most electronegative atom.

Q6) Draw the Lewis dot structure for Al³⁺.

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Chapter 10: Chemical Bonding Ii: Molecular Shapes,

Valence Bond Theory, and Molecular Orbital Theory

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Sample Questions

Q1) Choose the compound below that contains at least one polar covalent bond but is nonpolar.

A)HCN

B)CF₄

C)SeBr₄

D)ICl₃

E)Both B and C are nonpolar and contain a polar covalent bond.

Q2) Determine the electron geometry (eg)and molecular geometry (mg)of ICl₂ .

A)eg = tetrahedral, mg = bent

B)eg = tetrahedral, mg = trigonal pyramidal

C)eg = trigonal bipyramidal, mg = linear

D)eg = trigonal bipyramidal, mg = trigonal planar

E)eg = octahedral, mg = linear

Q3) What is the molecular geometry of SF₅^-?

A)octahedral

B)seesaw

C)square pyramidal

D)trigonal bipyramidal

Q4) According to molecular orbital theory, what is an antibonding orbital?

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Chapter 11: Liquids, Solids, and Intermolecular Forces

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Sample Questions

Q1) Determine _vapH for a compound that has a measured vapour pressure of 32.40 mbar at 273 K and 180.0 mbar at 325 K.

A)41 kJ mol^-1

B)79 kJ mol^-1

C)24 kJ mol^-1

D)13 kJ mol^-1

E)34 kJ mol^-1

Q2) The energy required to increase the surface area of a liquid by a unit amount is called ________.

A)viscosity

B)surface tension

C)dipole-dipole force

D)hydrogen bonding

E)capillary action

Q3) What type of intermolecular force causes the dissolution of NaCl in water?

A)hydrogen bonding

B)dipole-dipole forces

C)ion-dipole force

D)dispersion forces

E)none of the above

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Chapter 12: Solutions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Place the following solutions in order of increasing osmotic pressure. I. 0.15 mol L^-1 C₂H₆O₂ II. 0.15 mol L^-1 MgCl₂ III. 0.15 mol L^-1 NaCl

A)III < I < II

B)II < III < I

C)I < II < III

D)II < I < III

E)I < III < II

Q2) What happens to a supersaturated solution of potassium acetate once it is cooled and a small crystal of solid potassium acetate is added?

Q3) Calculate the freezing point of a solution of 40.0 g methyl salicylate, C₇H₆O₂, dissolved in 800. g of benzene, C₆H₆. K_f for benzene is 5.10 °C m^-1 and the freezing point is 5.50 °C for benzene.

A)-2.09 °C

B)2.09 °C

C)3.41 °C

D)7.59 °C

Q4) Define the Tyndall effect.

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Chapter 13: Chemical Kinetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) The second-order decomposition of HI has a rate constant of 1.80 × 10^-3

L mol^-1s^-1. How much HI remains after 27.3 s if the initial concentration of HI is 4.78 mol L^-1?

A)4.55 mol L^-1

B)0.258 mol L^-1

C)3.87 mol L^-1

D)2.20 mol L^-1

E)2.39 mol L^-1

Q2) t_1/2

A)activation energy

B)half-life

C)reaction order

D)rate constant

E)frequency factor

Q3) n, in Rate = k[A]ⁿ

A)activation energy

B)half-life

C)reaction order

D)rate constant

E)frequency factor

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Chapter 14: Chemical Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) The reaction below has a K_p value of 41 bar^-2. What is the value of K_c for this reaction at 400 K? N₂(g)+

3H₂(g) 2NH₃(g)

A)2.4 × 10^-2 M^-2

B)4.4 × 10⁴M^-2

C)41 M^-2

D)2.3 × 10^-5M^-2

E)1.9 × 10⁴M^-2

Q2) K 1

A)reaction will favour formation of reactants

B)reaction has a larger amount of products than reactants

C)reaction favours formation of more products

D)reverse reaction is favoured

E)reaction does not strongly favour reactants or products

F)reaction is at equilibrium

Q3) Why aren't solids or liquids included in an equilibrium expression?

Q4) How will equilibrium be affected for a reaction having the same number of moles of gaseous reactants and products if the pressure is increased?

Q5) Explain dynamic equilibrium. Use the generic reaction A(g) B(g)to explain.

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Chapter 15: Acids and Bases

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following oxides contribute to the formation of acid rain?

A)CO₂, SO₂, and NO₂

B)CO, SO₂,and NO₂

C)CO₂, SO,and NO₂

D)CO₂, SO₂,and NO

E)CO, SO₂,and NO

Q2) Determine the K_b for CN at 25 °C. The K_a for HCN is 4.9 × 10^-10.

A)4.9 × 10^-14

B)2.3 × 10^-9

C)1.4 × 10^-5

D)2.0 × 10^-5

E)3.7 × 10^-7

Q3) Which of the following is a Lewis acid?

A)BCl₃

B)CH₄

C)NH₃

D)CHCl₃

E)CCl₄

Q4) List the major source of energy in North America.

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Chapter 16: Aqueous Ionic Equilibrium

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Sample Questions

Q1) Calculate the percent ionization of nitrous acid in a solution that is 0.210 mol L^-1 in nitrous acid (HNO₂)and 0.290 mol L^-1 in potassium nitrite (KNO₂). The acid dissociation constant of nitrous acid is 4.50 × 10^-4.

A)58.0

B)0.154

C)16.6

D)2.74 × 10^-3

E)1.55

Q2) Describe the solubility of Al(OH)₃ with respect to pH.

A)soluble at low pH, insoluble in pH-neutral solution, and soluble at high pH

B)soluble at low pH, insoluble in pH-neutral solution, and insoluble at high pH

C)insoluble at low pH, insoluble in pH-neutral solution, and soluble at high pH

D)soluble at low pH, in pH-neutral solution, and at high pH

E)insoluble at low pH, in pH-neutral solution, and at high pH

Q3) Define a buffer.

Q4) Explain the common ion effect with respect to molar solubility.

Q5) Give the name of the compound that is in antifreeze and is toxic to pets.

Q6) Describe the information necessary (and why)to choose a good indicator for a weak acid-strong base titration.

Page 18

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Chapter 17: Gibbs Energy and Thermodynamics

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the Haber process, ammonia is synthesized from nitrogen and hydrogen: N₂(g)+ 3H₂(g) 2NH₃(g) _rG° at 298 K for this reaction is -33.3 kJ mol^-1. The value of _rG at 298 K for a reaction mixture that consists of 1.9 atm N₂, 1.6 atm H₂, and 0.65 atm NH₃ is ________ kJ mol^-1.

A)-1.8

B)-3.86 × 10³

C)-7.25 × 10³

D)-104.5

E)-40.5

Q2) Determine _rG° at 298 K using the following information: H₂(g)+ CO(g) CH₂O(g) _rH°= +1.9 kJ mol^-1; _rS°= -109.6 J K^-1mol^-1

A)+57.7 kJ mol^-1

B)-30.8 kJ mol^-1

C)+34.6 kJ mol^-1

D)-41.5 kJ mol^-1

E)+17.3 kJ mol^-1

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Chapter 18: Electrochemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) What element is being oxidized in the following (unbalanced)redox reaction?

MnO₄ (aq)+ H₂C₂O₄(aq) Mn²⁺(aq)+ CO₂(g)

A)C

B)O

C)Mn

D)H

Q2) Which of the following is the weakest oxidizing agent?

A)H₂O₂(aq)

B)Fe³⁺(aq)

C)ClO₂(g)

D)I₂(s)

E)Fe(s)

Q3) What is the difference between a voltaic cell and an electrolytic cell?

Q4) Which of the following metals will dissolve in HCl?

A)Au; E^o(Au³⁺/Au)= -1.50V

B)Ag; E^o(Ag⁺/Ag)= +0.80V

C)Cu; E^o(Cu²⁺/Cu)= +0.34V

D)Al; E^o(Al³⁺/Al)= -1.66V

E)Pt; E^o(Pt²⁺/Pt)= +1.19V

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Radioactivity and Nuclear Chemistry

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Sample Questions

Q1) How does a dosimeter measure exposure to radioactivity?

Q2) Why is an alpha emitter much more harmful if it is ingested than when applied to the skin?

Q3) Potassium-40 decays to argon-40 with a half-life of 1.27 × 10⁹ yr. The age of a mineral sample that has a mass ratio of ⁴⁰Ar to ⁴⁰K of 0.812 is ________ y.

A)1.56 × 10⁹

B)1.02 × 10⁹

C)1.47 × 10⁹

D)7.55 × 10⁸

E)1.09 × 10⁹

Q4) Write a nuclear equation to describe the neutron-induced fission of U-235 to form Xe-134 and Sr-100. Determine how many neutrons are produced in the reaction.

A)4

B)3

C)1

D)0

E)2

Q5) What is the mass defect?

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Chapter 20: Organic Chemistry I: Structures

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Q1) Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

A)1-butyne

B)cycloheptene

C)3-methylheptane

D)2-heptyne

Q2) What is the difference between primary, secondary, and tertiary amines?

Q3) What is the index of hydrogen deficiency in C₉H₁₆Br₂?

A)5

B)4

C)3

D)2

E)1

Q4) What does the term "racemic mixture" mean?

Q5) What is the index of hydrogen deficiency in C₂₀H₃₂?

A)5

B)4 C)3

D)2

E)1

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Chapter 21: Organic Chemistry II: Reactions

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Q1) Which of the following compounds is a Grignard reagent?

A)(C₂H₅)₂Mg

B)LiC₄H₉

C)CH₃Mg(OH)

D)CH₃CH₂MgBr

E)CH₃MgOCH₃

Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Elimination reactions proceed via either an E1 mechanism, which is a one-step mechanism, or an E2 mechanism, which is a two-step mechanism.

B)The E1 mechanism is somewhat similar to the S_N1 mechanism: they both start with a dissociation step in which a carbocation is formed.

C)Primary alcohols and alkylhalides are very likely to react via an E1 mechanism because they produce stable carbocations.

D)The strength of base used in elimination reactions is not important for the E2 mechanism because the base contributes only to the second step of the E2 mechanism.

E)E2 elimination reactions can occur at primary carbon centres but not at secondary and tertiary carbon atoms.

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Chapter 22: Biochemistry

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Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Cytosine and Thymine are a complementary base pair that forms three hydrogen bonds.

B)Thymine and Guanine are a complementary base pair that forms three hydrogen bonds.

C)Cytosine and Guanine are a complementary base pair that forms two hydrogen bonds.

D)Thymine and Adenine are a complementary base pair that forms two hydrogen bonds.

E)Thymine and Guanine are a complementary base pair that forms two hydrogen bonds.

Q2) The following is part of a DNA sequence. What is its complementary sequence?

AGTTCGAGCCT

A)AGTTCGAGCCT

B)TCCGAGCTTGA

C)CAGTCCA

D)AGGCTCGAACT

E)TCAAGCTCGGA

Q3) How do cis- and trans-fats differ?

Q4) Why are lipids well-suited as structural components of cell membranes?

Page 24

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Chapter 23: Chemistry of the Nonmetals

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the oxidation number of oxygen in Na₂O?

A)-4

B)+2 C)-2

D)-1

E)+1

Q2) pyroxene

A)Si₂O₅^2-

B)SiO₄^4-

C)Si₄O₁₁^6-

D)SiO₃^2-

E)Si₂O₇^6-

Q3) Refer to the above table. Use charge balance to determine the value of x in the pyrosilicate Zn_xSi₂O₇.

Q4) Describe the major production method for obtaining oxygen.

Page 25

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Chapter 24: Metals and Metallury

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Q1) Why is zinc used to coat steel objects?

Q2) Which of the following describes gangue?

A)the undesirable product formed during smelting

B)the undesirable portion of a metal-containing ore

C)the volatile product formed during calcination

D)a waste material that is the product of smelting a metal ore

E)a crude metal that still has to be further purified for industrial use

Q3) Which of the following describes flux?

A)a waste material that is the product of smelting a metal ore

B)the aqueous portion of the gangue separated from a metal ore

C)a low-density waste product, formed from the reaction of gangue with another substance, that can be easily separated from the metal ore of interest

D)a substance that reacts with the gangue to make a low-density liquid compound that can be easily separated from the metal of interest

E)a low-density material that floats on the liquid during purification by flotation

Q4) What is an advantage of hydrometallurgical processes over pyrometallurgical processes?

Q5) What is the difference between ferromagnetism and paramagnetism?

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Chapter 25: Transition Metals and Coordination Compounds

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Q1) How many unpaired electrons would you expect for the complex ion [Fe(CN)₆]^4-?

A)5

B)2

C)6

D)4

E)0

Q2) Choose the electron configuration for Cr³⁺.

A)[Ne]3s²3p⁶

B)[Ar]4s¹3d²

C)[Ar]4s²3d¹

D)[Ar]4s²3d⁷

E)[Ar]3d³

Q3) How many moles of aqueous ions will be produced from the dissolution of 1.0 mole of K₃[FeCl₆] in water?

A)4

B)10

C)2

D)9

E)1

Page 27

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