Cell Biology Study Guide Questions
Course Introduction
Cell Biology explores the structure, function, and processes of cells, the fundamental units of life. This course covers topics such as cellular organelles, membrane dynamics, cell signaling, energy production, cell cycle regulation, and cellular communication. Emphasis is placed on understanding how cells interact within tissues, respond to their environment, and contribute to the development and maintenance of multicellular organisms. Laboratory techniques and current research in cell biology are integrated to provide practical experience and insight into modern advances in the field.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Cell Biology 8th Edition by Harvey Lodish
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23 Chapters
1018 Verified Questions
1018 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Chemical Foundations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What produces the dipole of a water molecule?
Answer: The dipole of a water molecule is caused by the difference in electronegativity between O and H.The oxygen atom has a greater electronegativity than the hydrogen atom.As a result,oxygen attracts the electrons in the O-H bond more strongly,and the oxygen side of the bond has a slight net negative charge.This results in a dipole moment.
Q2) What is the major structural difference between starch and cellulose?
A)the types of monosaccharide subunits in the molecules
B)the amount of branching that occurs in the molecule
C)that humans can only ingest starch
D)the type of glycosidic linkages in the molecule
Answer: D
Q3) You discover that you suffer from a deficiency in the amino acid tryptophan.At the pharmacy,you find both d-tryptophan and l-tryptophan supplements.Which do you purchase? Why?
Answer: You should choose l-tryptophan.All amino acids can exist as one of two stereoisomers (d or l)because of asymmetry around the carbon.Proteins consist of the l form of amino acids,and as these stereoisomers possess distinct biological properties and are not readily interconverted,you should choose the form that is normally utilized by cells.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Molecular Genetic Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following polymerase chain reaction techniques is widely used to study the amount of a specific mRNA within a cell or tissue?
A)qualitative regional transcribed-PCR
B)quantitative reverse targeted-PCR
C)quantitative reverse transcriptase-PCR
D)qualitative regional transposase-PCR
Answer: C
Q2) What is epitope tagging? What is its application?
Answer: Epitope tagging is a method by which a cloned cDNA sequence is modified by the addition of a short DNA sequence that encodes a peptide recognized by a known monoclonal antibody.The short encoded peptide is called the epitope.This modified cDNA can be introduced and expressed in cells,and the location of the modified protein can be determined immunologically.Because the modified protein now expresses the epitope,the monoclonal antibody to the epitope can be used to detect the presence of the epitope-tagged protein.Epitope tagging allows the use of a single antibody for detection of any epitope-modified protein and eliminates the need to generate an antibody to each protein of interest.
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Protein Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kinases,which are responsible for the activation or inactivation of a number of proteins,add phosphate groups onto:
A)tryptophan residues.
B)serine residues.
C)cysteine residues.
D)tryptophan and cysteine residues.
Answer: B
Q2) A protein containing several proline residues is:
A)not likely to form quarternary structures.
B)likely to be an integral membrane protein.
C)not likely to form alpha helices.
D)likely to be found in beta turns.
Answer: C
Q3) Monomeric proteins do not contain a:
A)primary structure.
B)secondary structure.
C)tertiary structure.
D)quaternary structure.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Culturing and Visualizing Cells
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Q1) Fluorescence microscopy of cells that are labeled with a green fluorescent antibody against microtubules (a cytoskeletal component)differs from cells expressing green fluorescent protein (GFP)tagged to beta tubulin (a component of microtubules)in all the following ways EXCEPT:
A)the antibody labeled cells need to be permeabilized before visualization,while the GFP cells do not.
B)the microtubules could change their localization over time in the GFP cells,but not in the antibody labeled cells.
C)the GFP cells do not need to be treated with fixatives,but the antibody labeled cells do.
D)the antibody labeled cells will identify the microtubule structures,while the GFP will be observed in other places in the cell because it is not as specific as an antibody.
Q2) To visualize cells by immunofluorescence microscopy,the cells must be:
A)placed in a vacuum.
B)living.
C)sectioned.
D)permeabilized.
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Chapter 5: Fundamental Molecular Genetic Mechanisms
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Q1) Which of the following are enzymes that play a key role in the base excision repair of nucleotide mismatches and damaged bases?
A)glycosamines
B)glycosidases
C)glycosylases
D)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is not a constituent of deoxyribonucleotides?
A)phosphate moieties
B)deoxyribose
C)ribose
D)organic bases
Q3) Nucleotide bases within a single strand of DNA are held together by which of the following bonds?
A)phosphodiester
B)pentose-phosphate
C)polynucleotide
D)phosphoester
Q4) Why is the enzyme reverse transcriptase found within retroviral virions?
Q5) What is the difference between lytic and lysogenic bacteriophages?
Q6) What is the difference between a nucleoside and a nucleotide?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Bio-membrane Structure
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Q1) Cholesterol and phospholipids are transported between organelles by A)Golgi-dependent mechanisms.
B)incompletely characterized vesicle populations.
C)direct contact between membranes and,to some extent,small,soluble lipid-transfer proteins.
D)b and c
Q2) Describe how charged amino acids guide the assembly of membrane complexes such as the T-cell receptor.
Q3) Movement of phospholipids from one leaflet to the other A)occurs routinely.
B)requires cholesterol.
C)requires flippases.
D)is impossible.
Q4) Glycolipids and glycoproteins are especially abundant in the A)nucleus.
B)mitochondrial inner membrane.
C)cytosol.
D)plasma membrane.
Q5) Describe how you would prepare liposomes from a biological membrane.
Q6) What experimental evidence supports the fluid mosaic model of biomembranes?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Genes Genomics and Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pairs of proteins are considered to be paralogous?
A)yeast -tubulin and yeast -tubulin
B)yeast -tubulin and worm -tubulin
C)fly -tubulin and human -tubulin
D)worm -tubulin and human -tubulin
Q2) Open reading frame (ORF)analysis is not effective in identifying genes in higher eukaryotes because of the presence of A)promoters.
B)enhancers.
C)introns.
D)repetitious DNA.
Q3) All the following steps are performed by the enzyme transposase during transposition of bacterial insertion sequences except A)excision of the IS element from the donor DNA molecule.
B)introduction of staggered cuts into the target DNA molecule.
C)ligation of the IS element to the target DNA.
D)synthesis of DNA to fill in the single-stranded gaps.
Q4) Describe the proposed mechanism discussed in this chapter for the origin of gene families.
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Chapter 8: Transcriptional Control of Gene Expression
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the functional difference between enhancers and promoter proximal elements?
Q2) Describe the functional properties of TFIID and TFIIH.
Q3) What family of proteins plays an essential role in the repression of genes that help to direct the formation of specific tissues and organs in a developing embryo?
A)Retinoblastoma
B)Trithorax
C)Polycomb
D)Pax
Q4) All of the following statements about the essential carboxy terminal domain (CTD)of RNA polymerase are true except:
A)The CTD is present in RNA polymerase I,II,and III.
B)The CTD can become phosphorylated.
C)The CTD is critical for viability.
D)The CTD of mammals contains more than 50 repeats of a heptapeptide.
Q5) Describe the structure and function of the carboxy terminal domain (CTD)of RNA polymerase II.
Q6) Define the terms cis-acting DNA sequences and trans-acting proteins.
Q7) Describe the structure and function of a zinc-finger motif.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Post-Transcriptional Gene Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do researchers visualize the cellular locations of specific RNA molecules?
Q2) Synthesis of pre-rRNA occurs in the A)nucleolus.
B)endoplasmic reticulum.
C)extranucleolar area of the nucleus. D)cytosol.
Q3) A ribozyme is an RNA sequence
A)that uses Mg² ions as a cofactor.
B)with catalytic ability to cleave RNA.
C)that acts in the spliceosome.
D)all of the above
Q4) Components of the spliceosome include
A)a pre-mRNA
B)proteins that react immunologically with the sera of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus.
C)U1 snRNA,which interacts with the 5´ splice site in pre-mRNA.
D)all of the above
Q5) How is the 5´ cap added to nascent RNAs?
Q6) What are the main features of splicing pre-tRNAs that distinguish it from splicing pre-mRNAs?
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Chapter 10: Transmembrane Transport of Ions and Small Molecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statement(s)is (are)true of V-class proton pumps?
A)They are ATPases.
B)They are present in membranes of plant vacuoles.
C)They serve to decrease the pH inside a lysosome.
D)all of the above
Q2) The G calculation for the two-Na /one-glucose symporter includes which of the following terms?
A)RT ln [glucose n]/[glucose t]
B)2RT ln [Na n]/[Na t]
C)2FE
D)all of the above
Q3) Describe how aquaporins facilitate the movement of water across the plasma membrane.
Q4) ABC superfamily proteins are thought to act as ATP-dependent flippases in transporting:
A)lipophilic drugs out of mammalian cells.
B)Ca² out of mammalian cells.
C)H out of mammalian cells.
D)Na out of mammalian cells,K into mammalian cells.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Cellular Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Calvin cycle:
A)converts glucose into energy in the form of NADH and ATP.
B)uses glucose and electrons from NADPH to make ATP.
C)uses ATP and glucose to make NADPH.
D)uses electrons from NADPH and ATP to produce glucose.
Q2) In photosynthesis,all of the following reactions are directly dependent on light,except:
A)carbon fixation.
B)synthesis of ATP.
C)electron transport.
D)removal of electrons from H O.
Q3) A major source of reactive oxygen species (ROS)in animal cells is:
A)glycolysis.
B)electron transport in the mitochondria.
C)the reactions catalyzed by catalase and glutathione peroxidase.
D)vitamin E and lipoic acid.
Q4) Each cytochrome in the electron transport chain has a different reduction potential.What is the importance of these differences for electron transport?
Q5) Which components of PSII are responsible for producing the proton-motive force?
Page 13
Q6) What is the source of the energy for carbon fixation?
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Chapter 12: Moving Proteins Into Membranes and Organelles
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Q1) Which of the following is present in the nuclear export sequence of PKI (an inhibitor of protein kinase A)?
A)a proline-rich sequence
B)a leucine-rich sequence
C)a lysine-rich sequence
D)all of the above
Q2) During the import of proteins into the nucleus,the importin subunit binds directly to:
A)FG nucleoporins.
B)Ran·GDP
C)basic nuclear localization signals in cargo proteins.
D)all of the above
Q3) All the following proteins interact with exposed amino acids during protein folding in the ER,except:
A)BiP.
B)calnexin.
C)PDI.
D)prolyl isomerase.
Q4) What is the meaning of "quality control in the ER?"
Q5) How are proteins imported into the thylakoids of chloroplasts?
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Chapter 13: Vesicular Traffic, Secretion, and Endocytosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is VSV G protein one of the more useful tools in analyzing membrane trafficking?
Q2) Which of the following is TRUE about lysosomes?
A)They contain enzymes only capable of breaking down nucleic acids.
B)They are bound by a single membrane but can engulf organelles containing double membranes.
C)Proteins targeted to the lysosome are glycosylated in the ER and a specific mannose is phosphorylated.
D)The final,functional state of lysosomal enzymes contains mannose-6-phosphate.
Q3) The mannose 6-phosphate residue is important,as it is required to target soluble enzymes to the__________.The two enzymes responsible for attaching this residue onto these soluble enzymes reside in the ____________.
A)peroxisome;RER
B)lysosome;cis-Golgi
C)nucleus;medial-Golgi
D)endosome;trans-Golgi
Q4) Which portion of a clathrin coat recognizes internalization signals such as Leu-Leu,Asn-Pro-X-Tyr,and Tyr-X-X- in the cytosolic domain of cell-surface endocytic receptors?
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Signal Transduction and G-Protein Coupled Receptors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pull-down assays can be used to detect when small G proteins like Rac1 have been activated by various growth factors.If you were given two lysates,one having been treated with platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)and the other treated with PDGF that had been heat-inactivated,briefly describe the pull-down assay and what you would expect to see following the assay.
Q2) How does the body respond to decreases in blood glucose levels below about 5 mM?
Q3) Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate (PIP )is cleaved by phospholipase C into:
A)1,2-diacylglycerol (DAG).
B)phosphatidylinositol (PI).
C)inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP ).
D)1,2-diacylglycerol (DAG)and inositol 1,4,5-trisphosphate (IP ).
Q4) In trimeric G proteins,GTP binds to:
A)the subunit.
B)the subunit.
C)the subunit.
D)the activated trimer.
Q5) Describe experimental evidence supporting that intrinsic GTPase activity of the G subunit is important for terminating effector activation.
Q6) Describe the differences between an agonist and an antagonist. Page 16
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Page 17
Chapter 15: Signaling Pathways That Control Gene Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Predict the consequences of a temperature-sensitive mutation in which phosphorylation of the -catenin protein is blocked.Above the permissive temperature:
A) -catenin levels will increase and -catenin will be constitutively active.
B) -catenin levels will increase and -catenin will be inactive.
C) -catenin levels will decrease.
D) -catenin will remain constant but cells will be unresponsive to Wnt signaling.
Q2) The order of events in a signaling pathway can be determined by the analysis of mutants.Cells that express a mutant defective Raf protein cannot be stimulated to proliferate uncontrollably by constitutively active Ras (dominant active).This indicates:
A)quiescent cells can be induced to proliferate in the absence of growth factors if they contain a constitutively inactive mutant Raf protein.
B)Raf is upstream of Ras in the signaling pathway.
C)Ras is upstream of Raf in the signaling pathway.
D)Ras mutants are recessive to Raf mutants.
Q3) What feature allows TGF signaling molecules to be quickly mobilized?
Q4) How does activation of protein kinase B promote cell survival?
Q5) Describe the mechanism by which Ras is cycled from its active to inactive form.
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Chapter 16: Cell Organization and Movement I: Microfilaments
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Q1) At ATP-G-actin concentrations that are intermediate between the Cc for the (+)end and the Cc for the (-)end,_____ will be observed.The Cc needed for elongation at the (+)end is _____ than that at the (-)end of actin microfilaments.
A)growth;lower B)shrinking,higher
C)treadmilling,lower D)none of the above
Q2) Many actin cross-linking proteins contain:
A)an ATP-binding cleft.
B)a head domain.
C)a CH domain.
D)only one actin-binding site.
Q3) What actin-binding protein mediates gel-sol transitions,and how is this protein's activity regulated?
Q4) Actin-binding proteins that generate actin filament bundles:
A)are long and flexible.
B)bind only to the ends of actin filaments.
C)can also bundle microtubules.
D)are short and inflexible.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Cell Organization and Movement II: Microtubules
and Intermediate Filaments
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Q1) Capture of microtubule (+)ends by chromosomes occurs during: A)metaphase.
B)prometaphase.
C)anaphase.
D)telophase.
Q2) What is the role of the basal body in generating axoneme structure?
Q3) What is a microtubule protofilament?
Q4) The EB1 protein has several functions.Which of the following is/are true regarding EB1?
A)It promotes microtubule growth by enhancing polymerization at the (+)end.
B)Other microtubule plus-end tracking proteins use EB1 to "hitchhike" onto the growing microtubule.
C)It can bind further back from the blunt end of microtubules.
D)all of the above
Q5) What are the effects of colchicine and taxol on cells?
Q6) In cells,the -tubulin ring complex is found:
A)in the hollow core of the microtubule.
B)at the microtubule ( )end.
C)at the microtubule (+)end.
Page 20
D)along the outer wall of the microtubule.
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Page 21
Chapter 18: Regulating the Eukaryotic Cell Cycle
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Q1) Name three activities of G cyclin-CDKs that ensure progression through the cell cycle.
Q2) Breakdown of the nuclear envelope during mitosis is accomplished by CDK-dependent phosphorylation of lamins:
A)A and C,but not B.
B)A and B,but not C.
C)B and C but not A.
D)A,B,and C.
Q3) Compare cohesin function during mitosis and meiosis.
Q4) Chk1is activated by:
A)ATR.
B)Mad1.
C)p53.
D)Mad1 and p53.
Q5) Injection of an immature Xenopus oocyte with MPF induces: A)meiosis.
B)oocyte maturation.
C)synthesis of progesterone.
D)meiosis and oocyte maturation.
Q6) How does p53 function as a tumor-suppressor protein?
Page 22
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Chapter 19: Integrating Cells Into Tissues
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Q1) Which extracellular matrix component is expressed in a cell-specific manner and binds to the tripeptide sequence Arg-Gly-Asp?
A)integrins
B)collagen
C)proteoglycans
D)fibronectins
Q2) Cellular responses to adhesion receptor signaling do NOT include:
A)cell proliferation.
B)cytoskeletal organization.
C)gene transcription.
D)all of the above
Q3) Basal lamina include all of the following,except:
A)type I collagen.
B)type IV collagen.
C)laminin.
D)nidogen.
Q4) What is the role of Ca² in NCAM-mediated homophilic cell-cell adhesion?
Q5) What is the oligomeric structure of integrins?
Q6) What kinds of polymerized structures do collagen types form?
Q7) How are multiple forms of fibronectin generated?
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Chapter 30: Cell Birth, Lineage, and Death
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Q1) Briefly describe how Yamanaka and colleagues induced differentiated cells to form stem cells.
Q2) Shmoo formation allows budding yeast to grow toward a concentration of mating factor.Describe how asymmetric changes in the haploid yeast cell promote the formation of this mating projection.
Q3) Which of the following triggers apoptosis?
A)Fas ligand
B)NGF
C)TNF
D)Fas ligand and TNF
Q4) In the Drosophila ovary,which of the following proteins is secreted from the cap cell and is responsible for creating and maintaining the niche for germ-line stem cells?
A)Hedgehog
B)FGF
C)Arm
D)Ptc
Q5) Describe how the stem cell niche contributes to the maintenance of germ-line stem cells in Drosophila.
Q6) Describe gamete fusion that occurs during mammalian fertilization.
Page 24
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Chapter 21: Nerve Cells
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Q1) Evidence that synaptotagmin is the Ca² sensor for exocytosis of neurotransmitters includes:
A)Ca² binding by synaptotagmin.
B)partial loss-of-function mutations of synaptotagmin in Drosophila and C.elegans that result in neurons that are defective in Ca² -stimulated vesicle exocytosis.
C)uncoordinated embryonic muscle contractions in Drosophila and c.elegans mutants that lack synaptotagmin.
D)all of the above
Q2) Botulinum toxin acts on:
A)SNARES to promote vesicle fusion.
B)AMPA receptors to inhibit LTP.
C)calcium receptors to increase acetylcholine release.
D)VAMP to prevent fusion with SNARE complexes.
Q3) Signaling at synapses is usually terminated by:
A)calcium influx.
B)potassium influx.
C)inhibitory neurotransmitters.
D)degradation or reuptake of neurotransmitters.
Q4) How does opening and closing of voltage-gated cation channels occur?
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Chapter 22: Immunology
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Q1) Describe how the heavy chains and light chains are arranged in IgA or IgG antibody molecules.
Q2) Compare the class I and class II pathways of antigen processing and presentation.What kinds of antigens are involved? Which types of T cells recognize the antigen-MHC protein complexes?
Q3) _____ sense the presence of cytoplasmic pathogen-derived nucleic acids.
A)Inflammasomes
B)Antigen-presenting cells
C)Toll-like receptors
D)High-affinity antibodies
Q4) Which immunoglobulin is secreted as a pentamer?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Q5) Why has the live-attenuated polio vaccine been recently discontinued?
Q6) What roles do natural killer cells play in the innate immune response?
Q7) Fluid and immune system cells can escape from blood vessels to provide nutrients and defensive proteins to tissues.How are the cells and fluid replaced to maintain homeostasis in the bloodstream?
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Chapter 23: Cancer
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Q1) Direct-acting carcinogens are those that:
A)chemically react with nitrogen and phosphorous atoms in DNA.
B)work in conjunction with cytochrome P-450 in the endoplasmic reticulum.
C)are mainly reactive electrophiles.
D)all of the above
Q2) Germ-line mutations in which of the following has(have)been implicated in hereditary cancers?
A)HPV
B)BRCA1
C)Rb
D)BRCA1 and Rb
Q3) A bone tumor sample appears to be heterozygous for a p53 mutation.The most likely explanation for this finding is:
A)Mutated p53 is an oncogene.
B)The p53 mutation is resulting in a dominant negative p53 protein.
C)The p53 mutation is resulting in a premature stop codon,and no functional protein is made from that allele.
D)There was a mistake in labeling the tissue sample-all tumors musts lack p53.
Q4) Describe the differences between direct-acting and indirect-acting carcinogens.
Q5) Describe gain-of-function and loss-of-function mutations with respect to cancer.
Page 27
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