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Business Administration Exam Practice Tests - 2662 Verified Questions

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Business Administration Exam Practice Tests

Course Introduction

Business Administration is a multidisciplinary field that encompasses the planning, organization, direction, and control of business activities. This course introduces students to the fundamental principles and practices underlying the operation of todays businesses, including management, marketing, finance, accounting, and human resource management. Learners will explore how businesses are structured, how they operate within diverse environments, and how leaders address challenges such as strategic decision-making, organizational behavior, and ethical responsibilities. Through case studies and practical applications, students will develop problem-solving, critical thinking, and leadership skills essential for success in a competitive global marketplace.

Recommended Textbook MGMT6 New Engaging Titles from 4LTR Press 6th Edition by Chuck Williams

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54 Chapters

2662 Verified Questions

2662 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: Management

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121 Verified Questions

121 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41940

Sample Questions

Q1) After a year as a manager, new managers typically realize their job is:

A) to be a troubleshooter

B) to manage tasks

C) just as they expected

D) people management

E) to be a problem-solver

Answer: D

Q2) After the makers of Wonder Bread declared bankruptcy, their objectives were to increase revenues by at least 5 percent and reduce net losses by at least 80 percent. Which management function is used to set these goals and help the company meet them?

A) planning

B) organizing C) controlling D) motivating E) leading

Answer: A

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Chapter 1: Management: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which skills increase in their importance to success as managers rise through the managerial ranks?

A) human skills and decisional skills

B) informational skills and the motivation to manage

C) conceptual skills and the motivation to manage

D) conceptual skills, technical skills, and human skills

E) human skills and informational skills

Answer: C

Q2) After six months as a manager, new managers typically believe their job is:

A) to provide negative reinforcement

B) to exercise formal authority

C) to maintain control and avoid delegation

D) people development

E) to solve problems for subordinates

Answer: E

Q3) First-line managers are the only managers who do not supervise other managers.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 1: Management: Part B

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Sample Questions

Q1) Managers who train and supervise the performance of nonmanagerial employees, and who are directly responsible for producing the company's products or services, are categorized as:

A) general managers

B) middle managers

C) first-line managers

D) team leaders

E) top managers

Answer: C

Q2) The four classical functions of management are (1) making things happen, (2) meeting the competition, (3) organizing people, projects, and processes, and (4) leading.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q3) Upper-level managers may actually spend more time dealing with people than lower-level managers.

A)True

B)False

Answer: True

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Chapter 2: History of Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) At about the same time as management theorists were developing scientific management principles in the United States, Max Weber was in Europe developing

A) human relations management

B) group dynamics theory

C) systems management

D) contingency management

E) bureaucratic management

Q2) Frederick Taylor was the father of systems management.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following statements describes an advantage of the systems approach to management?

A) It simplifies the management process by supporting the principle of unity of command.

B) It allows managers to reward workers on the basis of their performance.

C) It allows managers to move comfortably in and out of the various managerial roles.

D) It forces managers to create coordinated communication.

E) It forces managers to view their organization as part of a whole.

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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) How did the Industrial Revolution change jobs and organizations?

A) Managers realized the importance of synergistic tasks.

B) Managers realized the importance of customer relations.

C) Low-paid, unskilled workers running machines began to replace high-paid, skilled artisans.

D) Skilled jobs were performed in homes rather than in factories.

E) Managers learned to use delegation.

Q2) At about the same time as management theorists were developing scientific management principles in the United States, Max Weber was in Europe developing:

A) human relations management

B) group dynamics theory

C) systems management

D) contingency management

E) bureaucratic management

Q3) According to the principles of scientific management, work and the responsibility for the work should be divided equally between workers and management.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 2: History of Management: Part B

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Sample Questions

Q1) A systems view of management allows managers to:

A) deal with the complex environment in which their companies operate

B) manage employee attendance

C) communicate efficiently

D) store and retrieve all types of information

E) eliminate production bottlenecks

Q2) Frederick Taylor was the father of systems management.

A)True

B)False

Q3) At about the same time as management theorists were developing scientific management principles in the United States, Max Weber was in Europe developing:

A) human relations management

B) group dynamics theory

C) systems management

D) contingency management

E) bureaucratic management

Q4) Human relations management focused on managers' roles and authority.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures

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Sample Questions

Q1) When Samsonite purchased American Tourister, one of the first things the new management did was to eliminate the American Tourister Gorilla mascot (which had appeared in all American Tourister ads for years and which represented the quality construction of American Tourister luggage). The gorilla had been a symbol of quality and commitment for American Tourister employees. The executive order to remove the gorilla posters from the walls of offices and factories was one of the means Samsonite used to change the organizational culture at American Tourister. The gorilla posters were an example of ____.

A) visible artifacts

B) iconic representations

C) organizational metaphors

D) organizational allegories

E) imbued technology

Q2) Which of the following companies is most likely operating in a dynamic environment?

A) a video game manufacturer

B) a bakery

C) a brewery, winery, or distillery in the liquor industry

D) a manufacturer of pet food

E) a cereal manufacturer

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Page 9

Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a component of Volkswagen's specific environment and will directly influence how it does business?

A) Renault, a French car maker

B) laws concerning air bags

C) inflation

D) gasoline prices

E) the fact consumers are buying fewer SUVs

Q2) The two kinds of external organizational environments are the general environment that affects all organizations and the specific environment that is unique to each company.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Changes in any sector of the general environment:

A) will typically not impact most organizations

B) tend to slow down how quickly an organization moves through the environmental cycle

C) inhibit the innovation process

D) influence customers first and then suppliers

E) will eventually affect most organizations

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Chapter 3: Organizational Environments and Cultures: Part

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Sample Questions

Q1) A key factor influencing the relationship between companies and their suppliers is:

A) how dependent they are on each other

B) how much they know about each other

C) how compatible their organizational cultures are

D) the type of product being manufactured

E) all of these

Q2) The two kinds of external organizational environments are the general environment that affects all organizations and the specific environment that is unique to each company.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The __________ is the set of key values, beliefs, and attitudes shared by organizational members.

A) industry code of ethics

B) internal environment

C) organizational culture

D) organizational strategy

E) organizational vision

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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility

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Sample Questions

Q1) The concept of magnitude of consequences is the total harm or benefit derived from an ethical decision.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Which of the following statements about social responsibility is true?

A) Companies are viewed as having social responsibilities only in economic, legal, and ethical areas.

B) The relative importance of economic, legal, ethical, and discretionary responsibilities is fixed and unchanging over time.

C) Economic and legal responsibilities play a larger role in a company's social responsibility than do ethical and discretionary responsibilities.

D) Companies will be considered unethical if they do not perform their discretionary responsibilities.

E) Economic responsibilities are often referred to as fiscal responsibilities.

Q3) List four of the seven requirements for an effective compliance program as established under the U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines.

Q4) Identify and briefly describe Kohlberg's three phases of moral development.

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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) Under the U.S. Sentencing Commission Guidelines, companies can be prosecuted and punished for the illegal or unethical actions of employees, even if management didn't know about the unethical behavior.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Ethics is the set of moral principles or values that defines right and wrong for a person or group.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The stakeholder model holds that the only social responsibility that businesses have is to maximize profits.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Workplace deviance can be categorized by how deviant the behavior is and:

A) how the behavior was motivated

B) where the motivation occurred

C) the target of the deviant behavior

D) the intent of the violator

E) organizational norms

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Chapter 4: Ethics and Social Responsibility: Part B

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is social responsibility?

A) a business's obligation to pursue policies, make decisions, and take actions that benefit society

B) a business tactic used to create relationship bonds with customers

C) what companies are obliged legally to do to protect their external environments

D) a business's responsibility to its shareholders

E) the fact businesses are responsible for monitoring their social environments so they can satisfy the needs of their customers

Q2) Secondary stakeholders are important to a company because:

A) it depends on them for long-term survival

B) they can affect public perceptions and opinions

C) the company is endangered by a termination of their relationship

D) they have the direct power to control management decisions

E) they create an awareness of overt organizational integrity

Q3) Ethics is the set of moral principles or values that defines right and wrong for a person or group.

A)True

B)False

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14

Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most popular approach to increasing goal commitment is ____.

A) encouraging workers' participation in goal setting

B) making goals public

C) getting top management's support

D) assigning realistic and attainable goals

E) management by mentoring

Q2) An organization's purpose must regularly change to adapt to changes in the environment over time.

A)True

B)False

Q3) According to the S.M.A.R.T. guidelines, goals should be ____.

A) Service-oriented

B) Measurable

C) Rational

D) Tactical

E) Actionable

Q4) List and briefly describe the three kinds of standing plans. Comment on their relative specificity.

Q5) List the steps in effective planning.

Q6) Identify the four basic steps in the management by objectives process.

Page 15

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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) S.M.A.R.T. goals are Specific, Meaningful, Active, Reachable, and Timely.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Managers can monitor __________ to track progress toward goal achievement.

A) action plans and their implementation

B) proximal and distal goals

C) one-way and two-way evaluative techniques

D) framing and non-framing goals

E) open-ended and close-ended techniques

Q3) Tactical plans specify how a company will use resources, budgets, and people to accomplish specific goals within its mission.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Management by objectives (MBO) is a management technique often used to develop and carry out_______plans.

A) single-use

B) standing

C) operational

D) tactical

E) hierarchical

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Chapter 5: Planning and Decision Making: Part B

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Sample Questions

Q1) S.M.A.R.T. goals are Specific, Meaningful, Active, Reachable, and Timely.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The first step in rational decision making is to:

A) conduct a systematic environmental analysis

B) define the problem

C) evaluate the alternatives

D) choose the solutions

E) create a management team

Q3) One method of weighting decision criteria uses ______, which is a process where each decision criterion is compared directly to every other criterion.

A) absolute comparisons

B) relative comparisons

C) valences

D) minimum threshold rule

E) comparative ranking scales

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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy

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Sample Questions

Q1) An organization is experiencing ____ when it is reluctant to change strategies or competitive practices that have been successful in the past.

A) strategic dissonance

B) strategic inertia

C) competitive dissonance

D) competitive inertia

E) sustained competitive disarray

Q2) Companies use their resources to improve organizational efficiency and effectiveness.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The positioning strategy that is always paired with one of the other two positioning strategies to produce a specialized product or service is ____.

A) focus

B) differentiation

C) cost leadership

D) diversification

E) repositioning

Q4) Differentiate between competitive inertia and strategic dissonance.

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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) There are four conditions that must be met if a firm's resources are to be used to achieve a sustainable competitive advantage. The resources must be valuable, rare, imperfectly imitable, and nonsubstitutable.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Reactors follow the consistent strategy of anticipating and reacting to potential external opportunities and threats prior to their occurrence.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In a situational analysis, a strategic group is a group of __________ that top managers choose for comparing, evaluating, and benchmarking their company's strategic threats and opportunities.

A) non-industry-specific companies

B) expert managers

C) trade journals and other relevant periodicals

D) other firms within an industry

E) consulting firms that use the Delphi technique

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Chapter 6: Organizational Strategy: Part B

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Sample Questions

Q1) The research on diversification in portfolio management indicates that the best approach is probably:

A) related differentiation

B) related diversification

C) unrelated diversification

D) repositioning

E) no diversification

Q2) An organization implementing a(n) ____________________ strategy would NOT follow a consistent strategy.

A) defender

B) pioneer

C) analyzer

D) reactor

E) prospector

Q3) The first step in the strategy-making process is to:

A) assess the need for strategic change

B) conduct a situation analysis

C) choose strategic alternatives

D) evaluate the impact of changes on the internal environment

E) create a strategic budget

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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change

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Sample Questions

Q1) How are technology cycles and innovation streams related?

Q2) A creative work environment requires organizational encouragement and supervisory encouragement as well as work group encouragement.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The ____ approach to innovation assumes that innovation is occurring within a highly uncertain environment and that the key to fast product innovation is to use intuition, flexible options, and hands-on experience to reduce uncertainty and accelerate learning and understanding.

A) compression

B) experiential

C) technological substitution

D) generational change

E) technological disruption

Q4) Technology cycles for low-tech products follow the typical U-curve pattern cycle of innovation.

A)True

B)False

Q5) What are innovation streams? Describe a typical innovation stream.

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Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) Resistance to change results from organizational factors, such as the absence of promotion guidelines, bonuses, and praise.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The research on technology cycles and technological innovation applies only to high-tech products developed in the bioengineering, robotics, and computer industries.

A)True

B)False

Q3) __________ is the knowledge, tools, and techniques used to transform inputs into outputs.

A) Resource manipulation

B) Procedural innovation

C) A transformation system

D) Technology

E) Creativity

Q4) Organizational decline is typically reversible at any of its five stages.

A)True

B)False

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Page 22

Chapter 7: Innovation and Change: Part B

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patterns of innovation over time that can create sustainable competitive advantage are called:

A) innovation maps

B) organization development

C) results-driven change

D) innovation streams

E) cyclical inventions

Q2) The __________ approach to managing innovation assumes that innovation is a predictable process made up of a series of steps and that compressing the time it takes to complete those steps can speed up innovation.

A) compression

B) milestones

C) dialectical

D) generational

E) prototypical

Q3) Resistance to change results from organizational factors, such as the absence of promotion guidelines, bonuses, and praise.

A)True

B)False

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Page 23

Chapter 8: Global Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) The Japanese government continues to use the high tariffs to make sure local farmers can earn a living. The tariff on rice is an example of ____.

A) a voluntary government restriction

B) geocentrism

C) protectionism

D) a security quota

E) a bureaucratic subsidy

Q2) Sodima is a French cooperative that owns the name, the trade secrets, and the patents on Yoplait yogurt. General Mills pays Sodima for the right to sell Yoplait yogurt in the United States. This is an example of ____.

A) licensing

B) a global joint venture

C) exporting

D) a strategic alliance

E) direct investment

Q3) Deciding where to "go global" is just as important as deciding how your company will go global.

A)True

B)False

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Page 24

Chapter 8: Global Management: Part A

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Q1) More than any other regional trade agreement, the Maastricht Treaty of Europe liberalizes trade between countries so that businesses can plan to operate in a single market instead of multiple national markets.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Hofstede's research has shown there are:

A) no cultural differences among nations in which Spanish is the national language

B) two distinct methods for dealing with cultural differences--adaptation and continuation

C) direct relationships existing between type of infrastructures and growth potential

D) five consistent dimensions of cultural differences across countries

E) four factors upon which a company should base its decision to globalize

Q3) Historically, companies have generally followed the phase model of globalization. A)True

B)False

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Chapter 8: Global Management: Part B

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Sample Questions

Q1) An expatriate is someone who:

A) claims dual citizenship

B) lives and works outside of his or her own country

C) believes strongly in nationalization

D) is unhappy with his or her present residence

E) desires to be employed in a country outside of his or her own

Q2) A country or region that has an attractive business climate for companies that want to go global has:

A) a large population of unskilled workers

B) an effective and cost-efficient place to build an office or manufacturing site

C) a small youth population

D) natural boundaries

E) all of these

Q3) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT):

A) replaced the United Nations court system

B) eliminated government subsidies

C) eliminated tariffs in ten specific industries

D) operated in a fashion similar to the Chamber of Commerce

E) did all of these

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Page 26

Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations

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Sample Questions

Q1) ____ departmentalization is defined as organizing work and workers into separate units responsible for particular business functions or areas of expertise.

A) Functional

B) Customer

C) Matrix

D) Product

E) Hierarchical

Q2) Like most large U.S. hospitals, University Health Care System spends an enormous amount on patient supplies. The hospital has more than 15,000 individual products that are purchased on a routine basis. Its purchasing manager instituted a hospital-wide purchasing policy that gave a specific code to each individual item. In other words, the purchasing manager engaged in ____.

A) consistency planning

B) organizational autonomy

C) standardization

D) problem empowerment

E) procedural planning

Q3) What is job specialization? Briefly explain its advantages and disadvantages.

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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part A

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Q1) Specialized jobs are generally inefficient.

A)True

B)False

Q2) __________ is the collection of activities that transforms inputs into outputs that customers value.

A) Reengineering

B) Functionalization

C) Organizational structure

D) Production positioning

E) Organizational process

Q3) The process view of an organization will typically be very similar to the structural, hierarchical view of the organization.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The core philosophy upon which the job characteristic model is based is:

A) reciprocity

B) empathy

C) autonomy

D) internal motivation

E) motivational valences

28

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Chapter 9: Designing Adaptive Organizations: Part B

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Q1) Organizational authority is traditionally characterized by:

A) chain of command

B) empowerment

C) behavioral informality

D) reengineering

E) all of these

Q2) __________ is the collection of activities that transforms inputs into outputs that customers value.

A) Reengineering

B) Functionalization

C) Organizational structure

D) Production positioning

E) Organizational process

Q3) One of the key assumptions underlying the chain of command is __________, which means that workers should report to just one supervisor.

A) delegation of command

B) empowerment

C) synergistic authority

D) unity of command

E) centralization of authority

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Chapter 10: Managing Teams

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Sample Questions

Q1) A preference for teamwork (i.e., collectivism), team level, and team diversity can help companies choose the right team members.

A)True

B)False

Q2) How are organizations using teams to help increase customer satisfaction?

A) by instituting a system of increased formalization throughout the organization

B) by creating problem-solving teams to study ways to improve customer satisfaction and make recommendations for improvements

C) by creating outsourcing opportunities that improve organizational effectiveness and efficiency by creating economies of scale

D) by developing ideal solutions to organizational problems through the use of information management systems (most notably expert systems)

E) by taking direct responsibility for service quality

Q3) What are virtual teams? Speculate on their likely role in global organizations in the future.

Q4) What are the five guidelines managers use to determine the use of teams?

Q5) How does a team's size influence its performance?

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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following kinds of team is defined as a permanent part of the organization's structure?

A) cross-functional teams

B) project teams

C) virtual teams

D) employee involvement teams

E) none of these

Q2) In the decision-making process, teams can do a much better job than individuals in defining the problem and generating alternative solutions.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Structural accommodation means giving teams the ability to change organizational structures, policies, and practices if it helps them meet their stretch goals.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 10: Managing Teams: Part B

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Q1) The achievement of stretch goals is made easier when the team members have:

A) localized synergy

B) bureaucratic immunity

C) strategic diversity

D) organizational accommodation

E) limited cohesiveness

Q2) How would you respond to the following statement? "Group conflict is always bad."

A) Affective conflict is strongly associated with improvements in team performance.

B) Both a-conflict and c-conflict are harmful, but b-conflict is not.

C) All cognitive conflict is bad, but all affective conflict is beneficial to the group.

D) Cognitive conflict is strongly associated with improvements in team performance.

E) The statement is correct.

Q3) In the decision-making process, teams can do a much better job than individuals in defining the problem and generating alternative solutions.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems

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Q1) The International Gay Rodeo Association (IGRA) began in 1976. By the end of the 1980s, gay rodeos were being held in more than a dozen states, and today there are 24 chapters that have raised millions for charity. But even the IGRA is not exempt from concerns about discrimination. To avoid claims of ____, straights are allowed to participate in all IGRA events.

A) bona fide discrimination

B) disparate treatment

C) gender selectivity

D) quid pro quo selectivity

E) hostile impact

Q2) Which of the following statements about employee separation is true?

A) Employee separations may be voluntary or involuntary.

B) Examples of employee separation would include terminations, downsizing, retirements, and turnover.

C) Wrongful discharge is a legal doctrine that requires employers to have a job-related reason for terminating an employee.

D) Outplacement services provide employment-counseling services for employees faced with downsizing.

E) All of these statements about employee separation are true.

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Page 33

Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part A

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41969

Sample Questions

Q1) The only time that gender, age, religion, etc. can be used to make employment decisions is when they are considered a bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ).

A)True

B)False

Q2) Functional turnover is the loss of high-performing employees who choose to leave the organization.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Background checks can be used to verify the truthfulness and accuracy of information that applicants provide about themselves.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Human resource management (HRM) is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people to form a qualified work force.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 11: Managing Human Resource Systems: Part B

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Sample Questions

Q1) To which of the following aspects of the human resource management process does federal employment law apply?

A) selection decisions

B) compensation decisions

C) performance appraisals

D) training and development activities

E) all of these

Q2) Human resource management (HRM) is the process of finding, developing, and keeping the right people to form a qualified work force.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which of the following type of tests accurately predicts job performance in almost all kinds of jobs?

A) specific ability tests

B) cognitive ability tests

C) personality tests

D) achievement tests

E) work sample tests

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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work Force

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120 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41973

Sample Questions

Q1) Bentley College launched a comprehensive diversity initiative that includes frequent diversity retreats for faculty, staff, and student leaders; innovative recruitment efforts; employee benefits for domestic partners; and extensive support services focused on race, gender, and disability. Bentley uses the ____ paradigm for managing diversity.

A) learning and effectiveness

B) reward and equality

C) access and legitimacy

D) equality and support

E) discrimination and fairness

Q2) A modem factory in the U.S has 1,200 workers who speak 20 different languages. This factory illustrates ____.

A) acculturation

B) diversity

C) affirmative action

D) cultural organization

E) organizational plurality

Q3) List and briefly describe the four types of discrimination commonly associated with surface-level diversity. Which of those typically produce the so-called glass ceiling?

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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work

Force: Part A

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10 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41972

Sample Questions

Q1) The four dimensions of surface-level diversity that many managers use to form initial impressions can sometimes lead to discrimination. They are:

A) Gender, personality, age, and values

B) Physical capabilities, gender, Race/ethnicity, and age

C) Values, attitudes, personality, and gender

D) Race/ethnicity, age, personality, and beliefs

E) Gender, physical capabilities, age, and attitudes

Q2) __________ consists of differences communicated through verbal and nonverbal behaviors, such as personality and attitudes that are learned only through extended interaction with others.

A) Organizational plurality

B) Behavioral diversity

C) Surface-level diversity

D) Deep-level diversity

E) Ego-driven heterogeneity

Q3) Affirmative action is required by law for all private employers, and diversity is voluntary.

A)True

B)False

37

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Chapter 12: Managing Individuals and a Diverse Work

Force: Part B

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11 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Research has shown that performance capabilities decline with age.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Organizational plurality is consistent with:

A) the paradigm of commonality

B) the determination and fairness paradigm

C) the learning and effectiveness paradigm

D) the access and legitimacy paradigm

E) none of these

Q3) Conscientiousness is:

A) the degree to which someone is organized, hardworking, responsible, and achievement oriented

B) the degree to which someone is curious

C) the degree to which someone is active and gregarious

D) the degree to which someone is cooperative, flexible, good-natured, tolerant, and trusting

E) defined by none of these

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Page 38

Chapter 13: Motivation

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to expectancy theory, instrumentality is strong when employees believe that improved performance will lead to better and more rewards.

A)True

B)False

Q2) A manager who wants to use reinforcement theory to motivate workers should first

A) evaluate critical behavior

B) identify critical performance-related behavior

C) analyze motivational cues

D) measure the value of existing extrinsic and intrinsic rewards

E) intervene using a change agent

Q3) A group of actors gather to read the critical reviews of the new play they presented to audiences last night. The actors are looking for ____ rewards.

A) extrinsic

B) psychological

C) assigned

D) intangible

E) intrinsic

Q4) Define expectancy theory. Identify the theory's three key concepts.

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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Goal acceptance is most similar to the idea of:

A) goal congruity

B) goal commitment

C) goal valence

D) goal expectancy

E) groupthink

Q3) Which of the following statements about goal-setting theory is true?

A) Feedback should not be specific.

B) Goals should be specific, measurable, attainable, and generalized.

C) Workers do not have to truly accept organizational goals for goal-setting theory to be motivational.

D) Goals can energize behavior.

E) None of the above statements about goal-setting theory is true.

Q4) Punishment is also called avoidance learning.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 13: Motivation: Part B

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is a basic component of equity theory?

A) valences

B) reinforcement

C) referents

D) instrumentality

E) expectancy

Q2) In general, extrinsic rewards are more important to workers than intrinsic rewards.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Goal acceptance is most similar to the idea of:

A) goal congruity

B) goal commitment

C) goal valence

D) goal expectancy

E) groupthink

Q4) Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 14: Leadership

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140 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) United Fruit Company is the owner of the Chiquita brand of bananas. United Fruit emphasized how the fruit was to be picked and packed for transportation and shows no concern for the workers. United Fruit can be considered using _____ type of managing.

A) Achievement

B) Charisma

C) Consideration

D) initiating structure

E) Vision

Q2) Successful business leaders are not like other people. Successful business leaders

____.

A) have a desire to lead

B) have emotional stability

C) are knowledgeable about business

D) are self-confident

E) are accurately described by all of these

Q3) The leadership trait of integrity refers to the extent to which leaders do what they said they would do.

A)True

B)False

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Page 42

Chapter 14: Leadership: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) The most important situational factor in Fieldler's Contingency Theory is:

A) Task structure

B) Procedural power

C) Leader relations

D) Position power

E) Leader-member relations

Q2) According to the path-goal theory of leadership, __________ means setting challenging goals, having high expectations of employees, and displaying confidence that employees will assume responsibility and put forth extraordinary effort.

A) directive leadership

B) supportive leadership

C) participative leadership

D) achievement-oriented leadership

E) empowerment leadership

Q3) Which of the following is the best leadership style for all situations?

A) team management

B) middle of the road management

C) authority-compliance

D) country club management

E) none of these

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Chapter 14: Leadership: Part B

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following approaches to implementing Fiedler's contingency theory in the workplace has proven effective?

A) accurately measuring and matching leaders to situations

B) teaching managers how to change situational favorableness

C) arbitrary definition of situations

D) only hiring supervisors with appropriate leadership traits

E) creating standing plans concerning leader actions and reactions

Q2) Transactional leaders:

A) reward followers for good behavior and punish followers for poor behavior

B) help followers see how their jobs fit with the organization's vision

C) pay special attention to individual needs by creating learning opportunities

D) motivate followers by providing them with meaningful and challenging work

E) are accurately described by all of these

Q3) Fiedlers contingency theory assumes:

A) leaders are effective when their work groups perform well

B) leadership styles cannot be matched to the proper situation

C) leaders can change their leadership styles to fit the situation

D) favorable situations permit leaders to influence group members

E) leaders should be judged according to how they perform--not how their subordinates perform

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Chapter 15: Managing Communication

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131 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41982

Sample Questions

Q1) Karl was injured at work when a shelving unit fell on him. Karl was trying to reach an item on a high shelf by climbing on the shelving unit rather than using a ladder. His employer would be committing a(n) ____if Karl's employer blamed the entire incident on Karl.

A) fundamental attribution error

B) reactive perception error

C) error of culpability

D) proactive perceptual error

E) primary perceptual oversight

Q2) According to attribution theory, we use two general reasons or attributions to explain people's behavior. They are ____.

A) formalized and non-formalized attributions

B) self-serving and defensive attributions

C) objective and subjective attributions

D) internal and external attributions

E) centralized and decentralized attributions

Q3) Briefly define perceptual filters. How do perceptual filters impact the perception process?

Q4) Briefly differentiate between active listening and empathetic listening.

Q5) List and briefly define the four parts of the perception process.

Page 45

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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) The steps of the basic perception process are:

A) Interpretation, attention, retention, and organization

B) Organization, interpretation, attention, and retention

C) Attention, organization, interpretation, and retention

D) Retention, organization, interpretation, and attention

E) Interpretation, retention, attention, and organization

Q2) Managers with better listening skills are rated as better managers by their employees and are much more likely to be promoted.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In the perceptual process, apprehension is the process of remembering interpreted information.

A)True

B)False

Q4) In general, blogs serve no value in the corporate world.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 15: Managing Communication: Part B

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13 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) One of the best ways for top managers to hear what others feel and think is through:

A) company hotlines

B) surprise visits

C) survey feedback

D) frequent informal meetings

E) participative management

Q2) The first thing that managers need to recognize when communicating feedback one-on-one to employees is that feedback can be:

A) constructive or destructive

B) bureaucratic or participative

C) regulated or unregulated

D) formalized or unformalized

E) extrinsic or intrinsic

Q3) In the perceptual process, apprehension is the process of remembering interpreted information.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 16: Control

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122 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41985

Sample Questions

Q1) Which approach to control monitors inputs rather than outputs?

A) feedforward control

B) feedback control

C) concurrent control

D) stasis control

E) all of these

Q2) In October 2005, Cadbury Schweppes losses caused it to scale back its financial projections for the remainder of the year. These financial projections were ____ for the beverage company.

A) autonomous measurements

B) standards

C) value ratios

D) dependence measurements

E) performance charts

Q3) Budgets are used to project costs and revenues, to prioritize and control spending, and to ensure that expenses don't exceed available funds and revenues.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Explain the term cybernetic and its relevance to the control process.

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Chapter 16: Control: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) The basic control process begins with:

A) either benchmarking or keystoning

B) the establishment of clear standards of performance

C) the comparison of actual performance to expected performance

D) problem identification

E) determining what corrective action will be if actual performance does not equal or exceed expected performance

Q2) Control is an intermittent activity that requires periodic attention from managers once or twice a month.

A)True

B)False

Q3) __________ is a control method that encourages managers to look beyond traditional measures to evaluate four different perspectives on company performance.

A) Optimization

B) Customer churn

C) Balanced scorecard

D) Customer defection

E) Financial ratio analysis

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Chapter 16: Control: Part B

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Sample Questions

Q1) According to the text, which of the following levels of waste minimization produces the greatest minimization of waste?

A) waste prevention and reduction

B) recycle and reuse

C) waste treatment

D) waste disposal

E) waste remarketing

Q2) In terms of the basic methods of control, __________ control is an improvement over __________ control because it attempts to eliminate or shorten the delay between performance and feedback about the performance. A) feedback; concurrent B) concurrent; feedback C) feedback; feedforward

D) feedforward; feedback E) concurrent; stasis

Q3) Benchmarking is the process of setting corporate norms.

A)True

B)False

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50

Chapter 17: Managing Information

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41988

Sample Questions

Q1) Extranets are used to handle organizational transactions with suppliers and distributors.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Understanding that consumers wanted clean, convenient food when they were away from home was the information the first fast food restaurant founder used to

A) acquire a source of perceived knowledge

B) create a tactical advantage

C) create a first-mover advantage

D) pioneer sales in the consumer food industry

E) sustain a competitive advantage

Q3) Which type of personal computer security measure would salespeople who are on the road dealing with customers' questions want the company to use? Why?

Q4) In today's hypercompetitive business environments, capital (i.e., money) is still more important than information for business success.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Define data mining. Briefly describe the two general approaches to data mining.

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Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part A

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Sample Questions

Q1) Two critical steps are required to make sure that data can be accessed by authorized users and no one else. They are:

A) authentication and authorization

B) authorization and empowerment

C) delegation and empowerment

D) encryption and empowerment

E) authentication and encryption

Q2) The goal of an executive information system (EIS) is to:

A) replace the need for intuition in decision making

B) create a link among authorized data and network users

C) protect organizational data from hackers

D) provide accurate, complete, relevant, and timely information to managers

E) do none of these

Q3) Data mining is the:

A) automated, electronic capture of data

B) process of hypothesis testing in large databases

C) process of verifying known relationships in large amounts of data

D) process of discovering unknown patterns and relationships in large amounts of data

E) method used to identify and eliminate perishable data

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Page 52

Chapter 17: Managing Information: Part B

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information is true?

A) Raw data become information as soon as the facts and figures are manipulated.

B) For information to be useful, it has to be malleable, concrete, reliable, and timely.

C) Obtaining good information incurs negligible costs in terms of acquisition, processing, storage, retrieval, and communication.

D) Useful information does not come cheaply.

E) All of these statements about the characteristics and costs of useful information are true.

Q2) Raw data contain useful information that communicate a clear and readily understandable message to the person for which the data were gathered.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Unsupervised data mining is unethical.

A)True

B)False

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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing Operations

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125 Verified Questions

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/41989

Sample Questions

Q1) What is quality? List and define three characteristics of quality for goods and for services. Explain why these characteristics are different for goods and services. Then identify the one dimension that is common in both lists. Finally, specify a good or service that you were very dissatisfied with during the past year, and explain which of these quality dimensions the good or service was deficient on.

Q2) Durability is a quality characteristic that applies to products that are can't be repaired, only replaced.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The ____ of a maker of cloth dolls would include over 200 yards of fabric, 100 yards of ribbon, a box of 500 wiggle eyes, stuffing, 20 dolls in various stages of completion, and 15 completed dolls.

A) raw materials

B) component materials

C) finished products

D) inventory

E) SKUs

Q4) Briefly describe total quality management (TQM).

Q5) List and describe the four kinds of inventory that a manufacturer stores.

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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing

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Sample Questions

Q1) Inventory is defined as the number of finished products that a company has in its possession either in the factory, in warehouses, or on delivery vehicles.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The three basic measures of inventory are inventory turnover, average aggregate inventory, and:

A) inventory depreciation

B) inventory amortization

C) weeks of supply

D) multifactor inventory

E) speed of obsolescence

Q3) Which of the following types of operations are most dependent on the accuracy of sales forecasts?

A) project manufacturing

B) assemble-to-order operations

C) make-to-order operations

D) buy-to-sell operations

E) make-to-stock operations

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Chapter 18: Managing Service and Manufacturing

Operations: Part B

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12 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The first step in the service-profit chain is external service quality or the quality of treatment that employees receive from a company's internal service providers.

A)True

B)False

Q2) The three principles that characterize TQM are continuous improvement, teamwork, and:

A) third party certification

B) delegation

C) participative management

D) customer focus and satisfaction

E) distinctive competence

Q3) The three basic measures of inventory are inventory turnover, average aggregate inventory, and:

A) inventory depreciation

B) inventory amortization

C) weeks of supply

D) multifactor inventory

E) speed of obsolescence

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