Biomedical Sciences
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that bridges the gap between biology and medicine, focusing on the study of the human body, disease mechanisms, and the development of medical interventions. The course covers a broad spectrum of topics including human anatomy and physiology, molecular and cellular biology, genetics, pharmacology, microbiology, and immunology. Through a combination of theoretical knowledge and practical laboratory skills, students learn how normal biological processes are altered in disease, gaining insight into diagnostics, therapeutics, and biomedical research techniques. This foundation prepares students for advanced studies or careers in healthcare, research, biotechnology, and medical industries.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics Concepts and Applications 9th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Q1) In which choice are the entries listed from smallest to largest?
A) Cell - genome - gene - DNA building block
B) DNA building block - gene - chromosome - genome
C) DNA building block - RNA building block - protein
D) Gene - cell - DNA - genome
E) Chromosome - genome - cell - DNA building block
Answer: B
Q2) A gene pool consists of all the alleles in a(n)
A) population.
B) individual.
C) family.
D) neighborhood.
E) nation.
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Cells
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Q1) Which sequence of events illustrates the steps of signal transduction?
A) First messenger to receptor molecules to second messenger to cellular response
B) Receptor molecules to first messenger to second messenger to cellular response
C) First messenger to second messenger to receptor molecules to cellular response
D) First messenger to second messenger to cellular responses to receptor
E) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
Answer: A
Q2) At the point in the cell cycle when mitosis begins
A) the chromatids have separated into two identical chromosomes.
B) DNA replication begins.
C) each chromosome consists of two identical chromatids joined at the centromere.
D) chromosome number is halved.
E) the cell enters a dormant phase.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Meiosis and Development
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Q1) The reason that starvation during prenatal development raises the risk for cardiovascular and metabolic problems in adulthood is that
A) starvation before birth and cardiovascular and metabolic disorders are all caused by a single mutation.
B) metabolism in the fetus shifts to preserve vital organs, accelerating weight gain in childhood.
C) lack of nutrients damages the heart in the uterus.
D) the child remembers the lack of nutrition in the uterus and eats too much.
E) it induces an allergic reaction to exercise.
Answer: B
Q2) Body parts derived from mesoderm are the
A) nervous system and sense organs.
B) muscle tissue, bone tissue, and internal reproductive organs.
C) epidermis, hair, nails, and glands of skin.
D) respiratory tract, urinary bladder, and urethra.
E) pancreas, kidneys, and lymphatic vessels.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Q1) Sickle cell disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.The genotype of an individual with sickle cell disease is
A) homozygous dominant.
B) homozygous recessive.
C) heterozygous dominant.
D) heterozygous recessive.
E) unable to be determined by the phenotype.
Q2) Destiny has distal symphalangism - her fingers and toes are stiff,with tiny nails.She looks it up and finds it is an autosomal dominant trait.Since her parents do not have it,she reasons that she is a new mutation.However,if she has children,each of them,assuming her partner does not have the condition,has a(n)___ probability of inheriting the condition.
A) 1/8
B) 1/4
C) 1/2
D) 0
E) unknown
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Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Law
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Q1) Types of genetic markers include
A) places in the genome where a base varies among individuals in a population.
B) places in the genome where all people have identical base sequences.
C) the types of mRNAs in a cell.
D) the proteins produced in a cell.
E) how many centromeres chromosomes have in a population.
Q2) When the cystic fibrosis gene was discovered in 1989,only one mutation was described,and a diagnostic test developed to detect it.Over the years,as more mutations were discovered,they were added to the test panel.Today,most pregnant women are offered a CF test that detects 100 or so alleles,although more than 1600 mutations have been discovered.These facts illustrate
A) multiple alleles.
B) pleiotropy.
C) phenocopy.
D) independent assortment.
E) lethal alleles.
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Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Q1) A healthy man and a healthy woman have a son with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome,an X-linked recessive trait.What are the chances that a daughter of this couple will inherit Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?
A) 0
B) 1/4
C) 1/2
D) 3/4
E) 2/3
Q2) Human males are the _______ sex.
A) homozygous
B) homogametic
C) heterogametic
D) heterozygous
E) hermaphroditic
Q3) In males,genes on the X chromosome are
A) expressed.
B) silenced.
C) disease-causing.
D) mutant.
E) autosomal.
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Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Q1) Genes that help to control body weight encode the proteins
A) fibrin, fibrinogen, and hemoglobin.
B) collagen, elastin, and dystrophin.
C) estrogen, testosterone, and progesterone.
D) leptin, ghrelin, and the melanocortin-4 receptor.
E) glucosamine, chondroitin, and hyaluronic acid.
Q2) Fingerprint pattern is inherited,but also affected by the environment.An example of how the environment naturally can alter fingerprint pattern is
A) a criminal taking off the fingertip skin with acid.
B) rubbing the prints off by using ones hands to climb mountains.
C) a fetus touching the developing toe and finger pads to the wall of the amniotic sac.
D) cancer of the digits.
E) the fingertips rubbing away from too much computer use.
Q3) Traditional ways of evaluating multifactorial traits include
A) empiric risk and heritability.
B) Punnett squares and pedigrees.
C) surveys that ask people what they have been exposed to.
D) tests for several Mendelian traits or diseases.
E) IQ tests and assessments of athletic performance.
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Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Q1) In the 1980s,when researchers began seeking gene variants that can cause or contribute to bipolar disorder,it seemed that each extended family had its own mutations.These findings,looking back,most likely mean that
A) the families have different allele combinations of the same gene.
B) bipolar disorder results from imitating the behavior of an affected family member.
C) Many gene variant combinations cause or contribute to bipolar disorder, but only a few such variants are seen in any one family.
D) many people fake the symptoms of bipolar disorder.
E) bipolar disorder reflects changes in gene expression, but not in mutations.
Q2) The biological basis of autism may be
A) exposure to Ebola viruses during pregnancy.
B) formation of aberrant synapses.
C) interference with the ability to form synapses during childhood that are a response to experience, impairing learning and memory.
D) binding to nicotinic receptors in a way that destroys neurons in the hippocampus.
E) a reaction to flu vaccine.
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Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Q1) In a molecule of DNA,purine bases form _______ bonds with pyrimidine bases.
A) phosphate
B) hydrogen
C) disulfide
D) phosphodiester
E) covalent
Q2) In DNA,cytosine binds with
A) uracil.
B) adenine.
C) thymine.
D) guanine.
E) amino acids.
Q3) In a DNA molecule,the base pairs provide information,and the sugar-phosphate backbone does not,because
A) the base pairs are all the same, but the sugar-phosphate backbone varies.
B) there are eight types of base pairs.
C) there are eight types of bases.
D) the bases form a sequence, and the sugar-phosphate backbone does not.
E) the sugar-phosphate backbone is highly unstable.
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Chapter 10: Gene Action: From Dna to Protein
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Q1) The most likely explanation for the fact that the human genome consists of 3.2 billion bases,and encodes about 20,325 proteins,is that
A) all of the genome encodes protein.
B) the genome includes many copies of the instructions for each type of protein.
C) amino acids encode DNA sequences.
D) much of the genome does not encode protein.
E) each protein is encoded by about 160,000 DNA bases.
Q2) Diseases that are caused by protein misfolding include
A) tuberculosis, malaria, and AIDS.
B) river blindness, leprosy, and African sleeping sickness.
C) cystic fibrosis, Huntington disease, and sickle cell disease.
D) acne, restless legs syndrome, and insomnia.
E) cancer, pulmonary embolism, and hypertension.
Q3) _______ "tag" misfolded proteins so that they can be refolded or sent to proteasomes.
A) Chaperones
B) Folding catalysts
C) Signal sequences
D) Proteosomes
E) Ubiquitin molecules
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Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Q1) Pseudogenes are
A) not transcribed.
B) transcribed but not translated.
C) transcribed and translated.
D) rare in the human genome.
E) double strand RNA loops.
Q2) Gene expression profiles differ from classic gene maps in that
A) gene expression profiles depict the relative locations of genes on chromosomes, and classic gene maps show the increase and decrease of transcription with time or in different tissues.
B) gene expression profiles depict the increase and decrease of transcription with time or in different tissues, and classic gene maps show the relative locations of genes on chromosomes.
C) gene expression profiles measure DNA and classic gene maps size-order the chromosomes.
D) gene expression profiles sequence genomes whereas classic gene maps do not actually sequence the DNA.
E) gene expression profiles have not yet been done in humans but classic gene maps have.
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Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Q1) In Huntington disease,the mutation causes the encoded protein to have a novel function from the wild type protein.This is an example of
A) a gain of function.
B) a loss of function.
C) a translocation of function.
D) a deletion.
E) a change in the genetic code.
Q2) Which addition to a DNA sequence would not cause a frameshift mutation?
A) T
B) GC
C) GCT
D) GGCT
E) AAAAA
Q3) A tautomer is
A) a mutagen.
B) an RNA base.
C) an alternate structure of a molecule.
D) a poison.
E) the type of bond that holds DNA bases together.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Q1) The centromere of human chromosome 15 creates a long arm and a very short arm.Therefore,this chromosome is
A) telocentric.
B) acrocentric.
C) submetacentric.
D) metacentric.
E) nanocentric.
Q2) In humans,the most frequently seen autosomal aneuploid is
A) monosomy 21.
B) trisomy 13.
C) trisomy 18.
D) trisomy 21.
E) tetraploidy.
Q3) CVS reveals a fetus has the karyotype 47,XX,+21.What is the diagnosis?
A) normal female
B) Edward syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) Down syndrome
E) Klinefelter syndrome
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Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Q1) Tay-Sachs disease affects in 1 in 3,600 Ashkenazim births.The value of q<sup>2</sup> is
A) 0.1.
B) 0.05.
C) 0.017.
D) 0.0003.
E) 100%.
Q2) Which of the following would not alter a gene's frequency in a population?
A) mutation
B) migration
C) random mating
D) inbreeding
E) a bottleneck
Q3) Which choice describes a biological population?
A) a bird, a lizard, and an insect in a cage at a zoo
B) an all-male army
C) people living in an apartment building
D) pebbles on a beach
E) a woman
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Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Q1) A person who is a heterozygote for G6PD deficiency is protected against A) malaria.
B) diphtheria.
C) tuberculosis.
D) cholera.
E) sickle cell disease.
Q2) Deleterious alleles are eliminated from populations by
A) natural selection.
B) mutation.
C) migration.
D) nonrandom mating.
E) genetic drift.
Q3) _______ in the human population reduced the incidence and virulence of tuberculosis in the early twentieth century.
A) Natural selection
B) Mutation
C) Migration
D) Nonrandom mating
E) Genetic drift
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Chapter 16: Human Ancestry
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Q1) Otzi the Ice Man's genome most closely resembled that of A) australopithecines.
B) Neanderthals.
C) orangutans.
D) modern humans.
E) the hominoids.
Q2) Mitochondrial DNA sequences are useful to track recent evolution because
A) it mutates faster than nuclear DNA.
B) it encodes more ancient proteins than does nuclear DNA.
C) it is more stable than nuclear DNA.
D) it is inherited from mothers only.
E) only primates have mtDNA.
Q3) _______ are ancestral to both apes and humans.
A) Hominins
B) Humanoids
C) Hominoids
D) Humanids
E) Homo erectus
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Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Q1) Scleroderma is an autoimmune disorder that can be caused by
A) retained fetal cells with surfaces that are similar to the mother's.
B) retained fetal cells with surfaces that are very different from those of the mother.
C) retained fetal cells with surfaces that are similar to the father's.
D) repeated exposure to the scleroderma virus.
E) receiving a transplant of a vital organ from someone with closely-matched cell surfaces.
Q2) HIV destroys the immune system by primarily destroying A) cytotoxic T cells.
B) B cells.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) erythrocytes.
Q3) The constant region of an antibody molecule is
A) the binding site for antigens.
B) part of the heavy chains only.
C) the same in all antibodies of a certain type.
D) at the tips of light chains only.
E) the binding site for two antigens.
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) A cancer cell is injected into a healthy mouse.The mouse develops tumors.This experiment indicates that cancer is
A) contact inhibited.
B) transplantable.
C) benign.
D) invasive.
E) malignant.
Q2) A gatekeeper gene
A) regulates mitosis and meiosis.
B) regulates its own mutation rate.
C) can destabilize the genome when mutant.
D) releases microRNAs that trigger parts of the cell membrane to open.
E) regulates apoptosis and mitosis.
Q3) Several genes that cause inherited forms of breast cancer have _____ in common.
A) broken single DNA strands
B) increased likelihood of a translocation
C) interference with repair of a double-strand DNA breaks
D) attracting radiation from the environment to the DNA, where it causes breaks
E) undergoing mutations that form ring chromosomes
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Chapter 19: Genetic Technologies: Amplifying, Modifying, and Monitoring DNA
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Q1) To create a transgenic organism,the researcher
A) introduces foreign DNA into a gamete or fertilized ovum.
B) injects a gene of interest into a somatic cell.
C) injects a gene of interest into several somatic cells.
D) introduces foreign DNA into somatic cells in culture and transplants them.
E) uses site directed mutagenesis on the adult.
Q2) Restriction enzymes are useful in creating recombinant DNA molecules because they
A) generate "sticky ends" by cutting at the same sequence on both strands.
B) are found only in human cells, where they naturally mend broken DNA strands.
C) are only attracted to and act on DNA sequences from different species.
D) are used to encapsulate and transport foreign DNA into cells of the target organism.
E) stimulate DNA amplification so that the desired cells or their products can be scaled up.
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Q1) A patient received bone marrow modified by an adeno-associated virus (AAV)carrying the human gene that encodes an enzyme her body could not make.This is an example of A) protein therapy.
B) germline gene therapy.
C) somatic gene therapy.
D) retroviral gene therapy.
E) IVF.
Q2) A test offered on the Web by a direct-to-consumer genetic testing company genotypes a gene for ability to taste bitter substances.This test is not regulated by the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)because
A) the test is not expensive.
B) the test provides information, not a diagnosis.
C) the test is offered in a state of the U.S. not covered by these regulations.
D) the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act outlawed CLIA.
E) it is not accurate.
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Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Q1) _______ was the first "test tube baby."
A) Louise Joy Brown
B) Adam Nash
C) J. Craig Venter
D) Lauren Woodward
E) Chloe O'Brien
Q2) Sperm may be "washed" prior to intrauterine insemination to remove
A) seminal fluid to prevent irritation of the woman's tissues.
B) sperm tails to enhance movement.
C) bacteria and debris to prevent infection.
D) the man's HLA antigens to prevent rejection by the woman's immune system.
E) excess DNA to prevent aneuploidy.
Q3) Which of the following techniques is most likely to lead to heteroplasmy?
A) cytoplasmic donation
B) embryo adoption
C) oocyte donation
D) in vitro fertilization
E) preimplantation genetic diagnosis
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Chapter 22: Genomics
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Q1) Once people began to have their genomes sequenced,it became clear that we vary more than had been thought.This is because the way that the genome was initially sequenced did not account for A) mutations.
B) copy number variants.
C) SNPs.
D) ethnic differences.
E) people who had undergone gene therapy.
Q2) The microbiome considers
A) DNA from microorganisms in the human body.
B) human DNA in microorganisms.
C) all DNA that is too small to be seen in a light microscope.
D) genes that contribute to or control metabolism.
E) all parts of the human genome that encode protein.
Q3) The part of the genome that encodes protein is called the A) encode.
B) intron.
C) exon.
D) exome.
E) prodrome.
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