Biomedical Sciences
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological and physiological principles underlying health and disease in humans. This course covers fundamental topics such as human anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, microbiology, genetics, and pathology. Students will gain an understanding of how cellular and molecular mechanisms contribute to bodily function and the progression of various diseases. The curriculum also emphasizes the application of scientific research methods and modern technologies in diagnosing, treating, and preventing illness. Biomedical Sciences prepares students for careers in healthcare, research, and related fields, as well as for further studies in medicine and biomedical research.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 5th Edition by Herlihy
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Chapter 1: Introduction to the Human Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is another name for the frontal plane?
A) Sagittal plane
B) Cross section
C) Transverse plane
D) Coronal plane
Answer: D
Q2) The lungs are located in all the following except the A) thoracic cavity.
B) mediastinum.
C) ventral cavity.
D) pleural cavity.
Answer: B
Q3) Which organ is located in both the ventral and thoracic cavities?
A) Stomach
B) Liver
C) Lung
D) Spinal cord
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Basic Chemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which compound is the universal solvent?
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Oxygen
C) ATP
D) Water
Answer: D
Q2) Which group is correct?
A) Subatomic particles located within the nucleus: protons, neutrons, electrons
B) Common cations: Na<sup>+</sup>, K<sup>+</sup>, HCO3<sup>-</sup>, NH4<sup>+</sup>
C) Common molecules: O<sub>2</sub>, N<sub>2</sub>, H<sub>2</sub>O
D) Bases: NaOH, Na HCO<sub>3</sub><sup>-</sup>, HCl
Answer: C
Q3) The word ferrous refers to
A) an acid solution.
B) an alkaline solution.
C) any cation.
D) iron.
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) If plasma protein leaks into the tissue spaces, A) edema develops.
B) the tissue space becomes dehydrated as excess tissue fluid enters the capillaries.
C) blood volume expands as excess fluid is absorbed into the blood vessels (capillaries).
D) all of the above occur.
Answer: A
Q2) Which structure is described as rough or smooth?
A) Ribosome
B) Mitochondrion
C) Cilia
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: D
Q3) Which word means "the bursting of red blood cells"?
A) Endocytosis
B) Hemolysis
C) Crenation
D) Catalyst
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Cell Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transcription
A) occurs within the nucleus.
B) involves DNA and mRNA.
C) involves tRNA and mRNA.
D) More than one of the above are true.
Q2) Which of the following represents base pairing?
A) CCGTTACTG
B) Sugar-phosphate, sugar-phosphate, sugar-phosphate
C) Ribose-deoxyribose, ribose-deoxyribose, ribose-deoxyribose
D) A-T, T-A, C-G, A-U
Q3) Which of the following is true of glycogen?
A) It is an end product of fatty acid catabolism.
B) It is stored in adipose tissue.
C) It is the storage form of glucose.
D) It is an essential amino acid.
Q4) Translation involves
A) ribose and deoxyribose.
B) thymine and uracil.
C) DNA and mRNA.
D) mRNA and tRNA.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Microbiology Basics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least descriptive of a vector?
A) Is a carrier of pathogens from one host to another
B) Can be an insect such as the mosquito carrying the plasmodium to humans
C) Must be living
D) Can be a contaminated syringe (fomite)
Q2) Clostridium tetani and Clostridium difficile
A) are gram-negative bacilli.
B) are anaerobic.
C) are always pathogenic.
D) cause the "tineas," such as athlete's foot and ringworm.
Q3) Cocci,bacilli,and curved rods are classified as A) viruses.
B) pathogens.
C) bacteria.
D) parasites.
Q4) A pox infection
A) is always caused by herpes varicella-zoster.
B) occurs only in humans.
C) is a skin lesion.
D) is communicable but never contagious.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Tissues and Membranes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The epithelium is described as being avascular,meaning that it
A) is single-layered.
B) has no blood supply of its own.
C) is colorless.
D) contains sudoriferous glands but not sebaceous glands.
Q2) Chondrocytes,perichondrium,and chondroblasts are most associated with A) immature cells.
B) tissue that is classified as striated and nonstriated.
C) cartilage.
D) simple squamous epithelium.
Q3) Which of the following is descriptive of the peritoneum?
A) Serous membrane
B) Abdominopelvic cavity
C) Parietal and visceral layers
D) All of the above
Q4) Which type of cell conducts an action potential or electrical signal?
A) Astrocyte
B) Glial cell
C) Neuron
D) Ependymal cell
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Chapter 7: Integumentary System and Body Temperature
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person feels warmer on a humid day because
A) the decrease in evaporation of water from the skin surface decreases the loss of heat.
B) the body produces more heat on a humid day.
C) a person breathes slower on a humid day and exhales less heated air.
D) All of the above are true.
Q2) Which of the following is true of sebaceous glands?
A) They are exocrine glands.
B) They are primarily responsible for temperature regulation.
C) They secrete melanin in response to ultraviolet radiation.
D) They secrete vitamin D in response to ultraviolet radiation.
Q3) Apocrine glands
A) become active at puberty.
B) are exocrine glands.
C) are found primarily in the axillary and genital areas.
D) All of the above are true.
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Chapter 8: Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which group is incorrect?
A) Types of bones: long, short, flat, irregular
B) Long bones: humerus, femur, tibia, parietal
C) Bones of the skull: frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital
D) Abnormal curvatures of the spine: scoliosis, kyphosis, lordosis
Q2) At which joint do the humerus and ulna meet?
A) Hip
B) Elbow
C) Knee
D) Wrist
Q3) The symphysis pubis is a slightly movable joint associated with the A) coxal bones.
B) femur.
C) sacrum.
D) ischial tuberosity.
Q4) Which group is incorrect?
A) Sinuses: frontal, maxillary, sphenoidal, ethmoidal
B) Spinal curvatures: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral
C) Bones of the lower extremities: femur, tibia, fibula
D) Bones of the vertebral column: atlas, axis, coxal bone
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Actin is
A) located within the neuromuscular junction.
B) a contractile protein that is part of the thin filament.
C) called the thick filament.
D) stored within the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Q2) With regard to skeletal muscle contraction,which event comes last?
A) Shortening of the sarcomere
B) Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) Activation of the NM receptors by ACh
D) Release of neurotransmitter (ACh) from the somatic motor neuron
Q3) Creatine phosphate provides the skeletal muscle with A) energy used to synthesize ATP.
B) lactic acid.
C) oxygen.
D) myoglobin.
Q4) The muscles of mastication must insert on the A) maxilla.
B) palatine bone.
C) mandible.
D) zygomatic bone.
11
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Chapter 10: Nervous System: Nervous Tissue and Brain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Endorphins are
A) natural morphine-like substances that can reduce anxiety and induce a sense of well-being.
B) energy sources much like ATP.
C) secreted by the choroid plexus and circulated within the subarachnoid space.
D) waste products generated by depolarizing neurons.
Q2) Which group is incorrect?
A) Parts of the brain: cerebrum, diencephalon, brain stem, cerebellum
B) Meninges: pia mater, corpus callosum, dura mater
C) Protective structures of the CNS: bone, meninges, cerebrospinal fluid, blood-brain barrier
D) Types of glia: astrocytes, ependymal cells, oligodendrocytes, microglia
Q3) The precentral gyrus
A) is the primary motor area.
B) is located in the parietal lobe.
C) is called the vital center.
D) contains the medulla oblongata.
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Chapter 11: Nervous System: Spinal Cord and Peripheral
Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) A lumbar puncture is done by inserting a needle into the A) dural sinus.
B) central canal.
C) arachnoid villus.
D) subarachnoid space.
Q2) Which of the following is located within the spinal cavity?
A) Cauda equina
B) Cervical plexus
C) Brachial plexus
D) Vagus nerve
Q3) Which of the following is not descriptive of the optic nerve?
A) Sensory
B) Cranial nerve
C) Move the eyeball
D) Vision
Q4) Which of the following is true of CNs III,IV,and VI? All
A) are sensory and send information to the primary visual cortex.
B) stimulate the levator palpebrae superioris to raise the eyelid.
C) send information to the occipital lobe.
D) move the eyeballs.
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Chapter 12: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves
A) are somatic motor neurons.
B) supply voluntary skeletal muscles.
C) include the phrenic, sciatic, and brachial nerves.
D) innervate the viscera.
Q2) Which of the following is least associated with monoamine oxidase (MAO)?
A) Enzyme that degrades norepinephrine
B) Found within all cholinergic nerve terminals
C) Associated with sympathetic activity
D) Associated with adrenergic fibers
Q3) Which neurotransmitter is secreted by a cholinergic fiber?
A) Adrenaline
B) Epinephrine
C) Acetylcholine
D) Norepinephrine
Q4) Which of the following is an effect of postganglionic parasympathetic discharge?
A) Slowed heart rate
B) Increased blood pressure
C) Dilation of the pupil of the eye
D) Stronger contraction of the heart
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Sensory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is most related to refraction?
A) Rods and cones
B) Retina
C) Lens
D) Light
Q2) Which ossicle sits in the oval window?
A) Malleus
B) Hammer
C) Stapes
D) Incus
Q3) What does a "choked disc," or papilledema,indicate?
A) Increased intraocular pressure
B) Glaucoma
C) Increased intracranial pressure
D) Strabismus
Q4) Which of the following is most related to the stapes?
A) Cerumen
B) Semicircular canal
C) Organ of Corti
D) Middle ear ossicle
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Chapter 14: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A deficiency of ADH is most likely to A) elevate blood glucose levels.
B) cause diabetes mellitus.
C) induce polyuria.
D) expand blood volume.
Q2) Cushing syndrome and Addison's disease are
A) forms of chronic adrenal cortical hypofunction.
B) forms of chronic adrenal cortical hypersecretion.
C) treated with replacement doses of cortisol (i.e., prednisone).
D) disorders of the adrenal cortex.
Q3) Virilization is characterized by A) hirsutism.
B) buffalo hump.
C) truncal obesity.
D) gonadal atrophy.
Q4) "Sugar,salt,and sex" is descriptive of A) ACTH, TSH, and somatotropic hormone.
B) cortisol, aldosterone, and testosterone.
C) epinephrine, norepinephrine, and estrogen.
D) insulin, glucagon, and cortisol.
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Chapter 15: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is least related to the other words?
A) Fibrinolysis
B) Platelet plug formation
C) tPA
D) Plasmin
Q2) Which of the following mom-baby combinations is most apt to induce erythroblastosis fetalis?
A) Mom A(-), baby A(+)
B) Mom A(-), baby O(-)
C) Mom A(+), baby A(-)
D) Mom A(+), baby A(+)
Q3) Which of the following is caused by agglutination of the RBCs?
A) Hemolysis
B) Coagulation
C) Crenation
D) Hemostasis
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Chapter 16: Anatomy of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a result of ventricular contraction?
A) The AV valves open.
B) The semilunar valves close.
C) Blood is pumped into the pulmonary artery and the aorta.
D) Blood flows back into the atria.
Q2) Under what condition is blood most likely to flow "backward" (e.g.,from the left ventricle back into the left atrium)?
A) Pulmonary artery hypertension
B) Left ventricular hypertrophy
C) An insufficient mitral valve
D) Pulmonary edema
Q3) Which of the following is true of the structures of the electrical conduction system?
A) The AV valve is the pacemaker.
B) In normal sinus rhythm, the electrical signal arises within the SA node.
C) The His-Purkinje system spreads the electrical system from the right atrium to the left atrium.
D) The purpose of the AV node is to increase the speed at which the cardiac impulse moves from the atria to the ventricles.
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Chapter 17: Function of the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is descriptive of a drug that causes a (+)inotropic effect,a (+)dromotropic effect,and a (+)chronotropic effect?
A) Vagomimetic
B) Sympathomimetic
C) Antimuscarinic
D) Vagolytic
Q2) With which term is afterload most associated?
A) Preload
B) End-diastolic volume
C) Resistance
D) Hypoxemia
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to relieve an anxiety-induced tachycardia?
A) Vagolytic drug
B) Beta1-adrenergic agonist
C) Sympathomimetic
D) Beta1-adrenergic blocker
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Chapter 18: Anatomy of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which artery contains receptors (baroreceptors)for blood pressure regulation?
A) Vertebral
B) Carotid
C) Jugular
D) Pulmonary
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to cause portal vein hypertension?
A) Carotid artery occlusion
B) Defective valves in the deep veins of the legs
C) Cirrhosis of the liver
D) Ruptured aortic aneurysm
Q3) Which blood vessel carries unoxygenated blood?
A) Pulmonary artery
B) Aorta
C) Carotid
D) Circle of Willis
Q4) The saphenous vein
A) is the shortest vein in the body.
B) is part of the hepatic-portal system.
C) extends from the foot to the thigh.
D) joins with the mesenteric vein to form the portal vein.
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Chapter 19: Functions of the Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which term refers to drugs that cause vasodilation and reduce vascular resistance?
A) Diuretics
B) Vasodepressors
C) Inotropics
D) Sympathomimetics
Q2) Which artery is most often used to measure blood pressure?
A) Carotid
B) Brachial
C) Femoral
D) Circle of Willis
Q3) In the dehydrated state,
A) capillary oncotic pressure decreases; fluid accumulates in the tissue spaces.
B) capillary filtration pressure decreases; tissue fluid is absorbed.
C) capillary filtration rate increases, thereby increasing lymph formation.
D) plasma protein is filtered into the tissue spaces, causing edema.
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Chapter 20: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A young woman is diagnosed with breast cancer.She is most apt to have
A) a sentinel node biopsy before the mastectomy is performed.
B) a sentinel node biopsy after breast reconstruction surgery.
C) the sentinel node radiated during the mastectomy surgical procedure.
D) a mastectomy and excision of all axillary lymph nodes; only then is the sentinel node biopsied.
Q2) Lymph is
A) pumped by the left heart into the systemic circulation.
B) formed when fluid is filtered across the subclavian veins into the tissue spaces.
C) formed from tissue fluid.
D) red, like blood.
Q3) Thymosin
A) is a hormone.
B) is the fluid within the lymph nodes.
C) is secreted by all lymph nodes.
D) plays no known role.
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Chapter 21: Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person has an infection and his phagocytes respond appropriately by releasing pyrogens,thereby resetting the body's thermostat.What happens next?
A) He shivers, thereby producing heat.
B) He sweats and his blood vessels dilate, thereby losing heat.
C) He forms pus around the hypothalamus.
D) His body temperature declines.
Q2) What is the name of the toxin that has been altered so that it is harmless yet still antigenic?
A) Vaccine
B) Antibody
C) Gamma globulin
D) Toxoid
Q3) What is the name of a severe hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Cyanosis
B) Immunocompetence
C) Autoimmunity
D) Anaphylaxis
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Chapter 22: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which respiratory muscles are located between the ribs?
A) Diaphragm
B) Bronchiolar smooth muscle
C) Intercostals
D) Sternocleidomastoids
Q2) Where is blood oxygenated?
A) Within the left ventricle
B) Within the left anterior descending artery
C) Within the coronary sinus
D) Across the alveolus/pulmonary capillary membrane
Q3) Which of the following is a structure located within the lungs?
A) Visceral pleura
B) Primary bronchi
C) Parietal pleura
D) Intrapleural space
Q4) Contraction of the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles
A) stimulates the phrenic and intercostal nerves.
B) decreases thoracic volume.
C) causes air to move out of the lungs.
D) is responsible for inhalation.
24
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Chapter 23: Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Impaired hepatic function
A) causes a deficiency of intrinsic factor and pernicious anemia.
B) often causes plasma drug levels to increase to toxic concentrations.
C) causes lactose intolerance.
D) causes gastric reflux and pyrosis.
Q2) The pancreas
A) secretes the most potent digestive enzymes.
B) responds to both CCK and secretin.
C) is only important because of its exocrine function.
D) Two of the above are true.
Q3) Which membrane resembles an apron draped over the abdominal organs?
A) Cecum
B) Omentum
C) Cementum
D) Gingiva
Q4) The wall of which structure secretes cholecystokinin?
A) Stomach
B) Pylorus
C) Duodenum
D) Cecum
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystitis refers to inflammation of the
A) kidneys.
B) meatus.
C) urinary bladder.
D) renal pelvis.
Q2) Aldosterone
A) is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.
B) acts on the collecting duct blocking the reabsorption of water.
C) stimulates the reabsorption of water but has no effect on potassium.
D) is a mineralocorticoid that stimulates the reabsorption of sodium.
Q3) What is the urine-making structure of the kidney?
A) Trigone
B) Renal pyramid
C) Renal capsule
D) Nephron unit
Q4) Urea is
A) transported from the liver to the kidneys by the blood.
B) made in the liver.
C) excreted by the kidneys.
D) All of the above are true.
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Chapter 25: Water, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) Most body water is located within which space?
A) Interstitial
B) Intravascular
C) Intracellular
D) Transcellular
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to cause acidosis?
A) Persistent vomiting
B) Accumulation of plasma H+
C) Renal loss of albumin
D) Diuresis
Q3) Which of the following is a pH descriptive of ketoacidosis?
A) 7.50
B) pH > 7.45
C) 14.0
D) 7.25
Q4) K
A) is a cation.
B) is an acid.
C) neutralizes H<sup>+</sup>.
D) is the chief extracellular cation.
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Chapter 26: Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which of the following is true of the interstitial cells?
A) Secrete testosterone
B) Are located within the prostate gland
C) Produce sperm
D) Line the ejaculatory ducts
Q2) Which hormone is also called interstitial cell-stimulating hormone and stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone?
A) FSH
B) Estrogen
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Chorionic gonadotropin
Q3) Which of the following is most likely to cause sterility in the female?
A) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
B) Cystitis
C) Repeated bouts of gonorrhea
D) Torn hymen
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28
Chapter 27: Human Development and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these hormones is released in response to suckling and activation of the hypothalamus and neurohypophysis?
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Oxytocin
D) Prolactin
Q2) What is the outer extraembryonic membrane that forms finger-like projections called villi and helps form the placenta?
A) Amnion
B) Chorion
C) Umbilicus
D) Trophoblast
Q3) The chorionic villi sit in blood-filled endometrial spaces called A) the umbilical cord.
B) the lacunae.
C) the yolk sac.
D) allantois.
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