

Biomedical Sciences
Exam Review
Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences explores the fundamental principles underpinning human health and disease, integrating knowledge from biology, chemistry, physiology, and genetics. This course examines cellular and molecular mechanisms, human anatomy, biochemistry, immunology, and pathology, providing a foundation for understanding diagnostic, therapeutic, and research techniques used in modern medicine. Students develop critical analytical skills through laboratory work, data analysis, and the study of emerging biomedical technologies, preparing them for careers or further study in medical, research, or healthcare professions.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pathology 9th Edition by Vinay Kumar
Available Study Resources on Quizplus
23 Chapters
265 Verified Questions
265 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1129

Page 2
Chapter 1: Cell Injury, Cell Death, and Adaptations
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22166
Sample Questions
Q1) Ubiquitin-proteasome degradation of plasma proteins is opposed by A) insulin
B) interleukin-1
C) tumor necrosis factor
D) glucocorticoids
E) thyroid hormones
Answer: A
Q2) Continuous expression of the gene for atrial natriuretic factor in the myocardial cells of the left ventricle is typically a consequence of A) myocardial infarction
B) angina pectoris
C) hypertension
D) hypotension
E) ventricular fibrillation
Answer: C
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3

Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22167
Sample Questions
Q1) Fibrillin is important for the scaffolding and deposition of which other component of the extracellular matrix?
A) Collagen type I
B) Collagen type III
C) Elastic fibers
D) Fibronectin
E) Laminin
Answer: C
Q2) C-reactive protein binds to the surface of microbes in tissues acting as
A) a caspase
B) a peroxidase
C) an opsonin
D) an anaphylatoxin
E) a membrane attack protein
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolism, and Shock
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22168
Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old man who had longstanding congestive heart failure complained of pain under the right costal margin. He died of worsening heart failure. At autopsy, the liver appeared enlarged and congested, showing a "nutmeg pattern" on cross section. Histologically this liver will show
A) atrophy of bile ducts
B) dilatation of bile ducts
C) intralobular cholestasis
D) centrolobular necrosis and loss of hepatocytes
E) fibrosis of the Glisson capsule
Answer: D
Q2) Bernard-Soulier syndrome is a bleeding disorder caused by a defect of glycoprotein
Ib (GpIb) on platelets. Platelets lacking GpIb cannot adhere to the wall of the damaged blood vessels, because GpIb is the receptor for which essential coagulation protein?
A) Hageman factor (factor XII)
B) Von Willebrand factor
C) Fibrinogen
D) Factor VIII
E) Thrombin
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Diseases of the Immune System
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22169
Sample Questions
Q1) Which antibodies are considered to be markers of Sjögren syndrome?
A) Antinuclear antibody
B) Anti-double-stranded DNA
C) Anti-single-stranded DNA
D) Anti-topoisomerase
E) Anti-ribonucleoprotein antibody SS-A (Ro)
Q2) A 40-year-old man presents with hemoptysis and renal failure. A kidney biopsy specimen revealed linear deposits of IgG in glomerular basement membranes and crescents between the glomerular capillary loops and the Bowman capsule. The antibodies causing these pathologic changes react with
A) laminin
B) fibronectin
C) collagen type I
D) collagen type IV
E) podocytes of glomerular epithelial cells
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Chapter 5: Neoplasia
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22170
Sample Questions
Q1) Which enzymes in the liver account for the activation of most procarcinogens into carcinogens?
A) Cytochrome P-450-dependent mono-oxidases
B) Aminotransferases
C) Hydroxylases
D) Glutathione dehydrogenase
E) Caspases
Q2) Microsatellite instability, a marker of DNA mismatch repair, is typically found in
A) hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer
B) familial adenomatous polyposis coli
C) T-cell lymphoma
D) B-cell lymphoma
E) myelogenous leukemia
Q3) Which of the following tumors occurs most often in the ovary?
A) Chondroma
B) Hemangioma
C) Leiomyoma
D) Transitional cell papilloma
E) Cystadenoma
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Page 7

Chapter 6: Genetic and Pediatric Diseases
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22171
Sample Questions
Q1) The soft core of an aortic atheroma consists primarily of
A) triglycerides
B) cholesterol
C) free fatty acids
D) fibrin
E) pus
Q2) Splenomegaly and skeletal changes due to a nonlethal lysosomal storage disease caused by the mutation of the gene encoding glucocerebrosidase are features of which disease?
A) Tay-Sachs disease
B) Niemann-Pick disease
C) Hurler disease
D) Gaucher disease
E) Hunter syndrome
Q3) Chromosome 22q11 deletion is typically associated with
A) rocker-bottom feet
B) horseshoe kidneys
C) thymic hypoplasia
D) microphthalmia
E) simian crease on hands
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Chapter 7: Environmental and Nutritional Diseases
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22172
Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the most common preventable form of mental retardation in the United States?
A) Fetal rubella infection
B) Fetal toxoplasmosis
C) Fetal alcohol syndrome
D) Fetal cytomegalovirus infection
E) Fetal herpesvirus infection
Q2) Frontal bossing of the cranium that imparts a square appearance to the head, pigeon breast deformity, and bow legs are features of a deficiency of which vitamin?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
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9

Chapter 8: General Pathology of Infectious Diseases
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22173
Sample Questions
Q1) Infection of the uterus following a "criminal abortion" performed in a "back alley" is most likely caused by
A) anaerobic non-spore-forming bacteria
B) spore-forming anaerobes
C) pyogenic cocci
D) coliform bacteria
E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Q2) The diagnosis of malaria is best made by examining a A) biopsy specimen of the liver
B) biopsy specimen of the spleen
C) bone marrow biopsy
D) blood smear
E) serum sample for antibodies to plasmodia
Q3) Which African disease is complicated by elephantiasis of the legs?
A) Giardiasis
B) Onchocerciasis
C) Filariasis
D) Cryptosporidiosis
E) Schistosomiasis
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Page 10

Chapter 9: Blood Vessels
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22174
Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of vasculitis is typically associated with bronchial asthma?
A) Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Q2) "Pulseless disease" associated with giant cell granulomatous inflammation of the aorta and its major branches arising from the arch of the aorta are features of
A) temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Q3) Which of the following is the most common form of vasculitis in the elderly?
A) Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Heart
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22175
Sample Questions
Q1) At what time interval after the onset of infarction will the occlusive coronary artery thrombus most likely be seen by angiography?
A) 4 hours
B) 8 hours
C) 12 hours
D) 24 hours
E) 48 hours
Q2) Which marker of myocardial necrosis is elevated first in the blood of a patient with a myocardial infarction?
A) Aspartate aminotransferase
B) Creatine kinase
C) Creatine kinase M-B fraction
D) Troponin T
E) Lactate dehydrogenase
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12

Chapter 11: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22176
Sample Questions
Q1) The deletion of two -globin chains of hemoglobin is the cause of
A) -thalassemia trait
B) -thalassemia minor
C) salient carrier state
D) hemoglobin H disease
E) hydrops fetalis
Q2) Which test is abnormal in hemophilia A?
A) Bleeding
B) Platelet count
C) Prothrombin time
D) Partial thromboplastin time
E) Clot retraction
Q3) Which of the following bleeding tests is abnormal in patients with von Willebrand disease?
A) Prolonged bleeding time
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Prolonged prothrombin time
D) Shortened partial thromboplastin time
E) Increased levels of factor VIII in plasma
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Page 13

Chapter 12: Lung
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22177
Sample Questions
Q1) Which bacterium is the most common cause of lobar pneumonia in chronic alcoholics?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Legionella pneumophila
Q2) In the bronchiectases of cystic fibrosis, bronchial plugging with mucus is often accompanied by infection with which of the following pathogens?
A) Haemophilus influenzae
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Legionella pneumophila
Q3) Which is the most prevalent chronic occupational lung disease found worldwide?
A) Complicated coal workers' pneumoconiosis
B) Asbestosis
C) Berylliosis
D) Silicosis
E) Stannosis
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Chapter 13: Kidney and Its Collecting System
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7 Verified Questions
7 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22178
Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old boy is taken to the pediatrician because of generalized facial edema and somnolence. He has been passing dark brown urine. Physical examination reveals hypertension. Urinalysis shows oliguria, hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Nephritic syndrome
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Rapidly progressive acute renal failure
D) Chronic uremia
E) Nephrolithiasis
Q2) The normal glomerular basement membrane is composed of which type of collagen?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
E) Type V
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Chapter 14: Oral Cavity and Gastrointestinal Tract
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22179
Sample Questions
Q1) Which intestinal malabsorption syndrome is accompanied by a complete absence of chylomicrons, very-low-density lipoproteins, and low-density lipoproteins in plasma?
A) Crohn disease
B) Celiac sprue
C) Tropical sprue
D) Lactase deficiency
E) Abetalipoproteinemia
Q2) Carcinoma of the esophagus most often presents on gross examination as a A) polypoid exophytic lesion
B) flat induration of the mucosa
C) volcano-like excavated lesion
D) diffuse narrowing of the esophageal lumen
E) linitis plastica
Q3) Most gastric polyps are microscopically classified as A) tubular adenomas
B) villous adenomas
C) hyperplastic polyps
D) fundic gland polyps
E) carcinoids
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Chapter 15: Liver, Gallbladder, and Biliary Tract
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22180
Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of cirrhosis unrelated to alcohol, viral hepatitis, or metabolic diseases (i.e., the so-called "cryptogenic cirrhosis") is
A) latent bacterial infection
B) amyloidosis
C) circulatory disorders
D) steatohepatitis
E) autoimmune diseases
Q2) Transplacental infection of the fetus will most often occur in women who have been infected with which hepatotropic virus?
A) Hepatitis A virus (HAV)
B) HBV
C) HCV
D) HDV
E) HEV
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Chapter 16: Pancreas
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22181
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
A) Alcohol
B) Thiazide diuretics
C) Viruses
D) Trauma
E) Vascular thrombosis
Q2) A 65-year-old man complains of vague upper abdominal pain, weight loss, and loose fatty stools. Radiographs show visible calcifications within the pancreas. These findings are most consistent with a diagnosis of which of the following disorders?
A) Ductal carcinoma of the pancreas
B) Acinar cell carcinoma of the pancreas
C) Islet cell carcinoma
D) Chronic pancreatitis
E) Pancreatic pseudocyst
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Chapter 17: Male Genital System and Lower Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22182
Sample Questions
Q1) Nephrotic syndrome related to minimal change disease, combined with acute renal failure related to acute interstitial nephritis, is a well-documented adverse reaction to which of the following drugs?
A) Methicillin
B) Ampicillin
C) Rifampin
D) Ibuprofen
E) Hydrochlorothiazide
Q2) A patient who develops cancer later in life shows an increased tendency to develop urogenital congenital anomalies of the lower urinary tract. Which of the following anomalies is this patient most likely to develop?
A) Bladder diverticular
B) Bladder exstrophy
C) Hypospadia
D) Congenital urethral stenosis
E) Megaureters
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19
Chapter 18: Female Genital System and Breast
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22183
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nonneoplastic breast lesions is associated with the highest risk of mammary cancer?
A) Apocrine cysts
B) Sclerosing adenosis
C) Complex sclerosing lesion
D) Small duct papillomas
E) Atypical ductal hyperplasia
Q2) A 50-year-old woman sees her physician because she has noticed a bloody discharge from the left nipple. Upon physical examination, there are no palpable masses in the breast. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this discharge?
A) Solitary cyst
B) Fibrocystic change
C) Acute mastitis
D) Intraductal papilloma
E) Carcinoma
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20

Chapter 19: Endocrine System
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22184
Sample Questions
Q1) The best characterized molecular abnormality in pituitary adenomas involves which of the following?
A) Cell surface receptors
B) G-proteins mediating signal transduction
C) Adenylate cyclase related cytoplasmic effectors
D) Nuclear receptors
E) DNA repair enzymes
Q2) Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) is implicated in the pathogenesis of which complication of diabetes?
A) Cerebral infarcts
B) Intraretinal microangiopathy
C) Diabetic glomerulosclerosis
D) Gangrene of the foot
E) Peripheral neuropathy
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Chapter 20: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22185
Sample Questions
Q1) The primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET) of soft tissues has the same histologic features and the same chromosomal translocation as which of the following bone tumors?
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Ewing sarcoma
D) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
E) Giant cell tumor of bones
Q2) Osteoid osteoma is a small benign bone tumor associated with pain that is disproportionate to the size of the lesion. This pain is caused by an excess of which of the following substances?
A) Interleukin (IL)-1 and IL-6
B) Leukotrienes
C) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub>
D) Complement C<sub>3</sub>
E) Bradykinin
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22

Chapter 21: Peripheral Nerves and Muscles
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1 Verified Questions
1 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22186
Sample Questions
Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is mediated by which form of immune hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Atopic IgE-mediated reaction
B) Cytotoxic IgG antibody-mediated reaction
C) Circulating immune complex-mediated reaction
D) T cell-mediated reaction
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22187
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common source of septic thromboemboli in the cerebral arteries?
A) Leg veins
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Heart
D) Aorta
E) Carotid arteries
Q2) Posttraumatic hydrocephalus is most often caused by which of the following?
A) Hypersecretion of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Obstruction of the aqueduct
C) Obstruction of the foramen of Luschka
D) Obstruction of the foramen of Magendie
E) Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid absorption
Q3) Which of the following is the dominant protein component of neuritic plaques in the brain in Alzheimer disease?
A) Apoprotein
B) Tau protein
C) Neurofibrillin
D) Microtubules-associated protein 2 (MAP2)
E) A derived from amyloid precursor protein (APP)
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Chapter 23: Skin
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22188
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skin lesions becomes darker and more pigmented upon exposure to sunlight?
A) Vitiligo
B) Lentigo
C) Ephelis
D) Congenital melanocytic nevus
E) Dysplastic nevus
Q2) Basal cell carcinoma of the skin often contains mutations of the p53 gene and the gene called PTCH (mutated in congenital nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome). These mutations are most likely the result of action of which of the following?
A) Epidermal growth factor
B) G-protein signal transduction system
C) Chemical carcinogens from the environment
D) Ultraviolet light
E) Cosmic radiation
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