Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences
Chapter Exam Questions
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that integrates principles from biology, chemistry, and medicine to understand the mechanisms underlying human health and disease. This course explores topics such as human anatomy and physiology, molecular and cellular biology, genetics, immunology, and pathology, providing a comprehensive foundation for understanding how biological systems function in normal and diseased states. Students will gain insights into laboratory techniques, diagnostic methods, and current biomedical research, preparing them for diverse careers in healthcare, medical research, biotechnology, and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics Concepts and Applications 9th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) A melon that has been altered to produce a protein normally made only in a cabbage is
A) transformed.
B) transgenic.
C) genomic.
D) transgendered.
E) recessive.
Answer: B
Q2) The distinction between mutations and gene expression is that
A) mutations affect only autosomes and gene expression affects only sex chromosomes.
B) mutations are dangerous and gene expression promotes health.
C) mutations are changes in the DNA sequence, whereas gene expression refers to the extent to which a gene is transcribed and translated, producing protein.
D) gene expression refers to changes in the DNA sequence, whereas mutation refers to the processes of DNA replication, RNA transcription, and protein synthesis.
E) mutations occur in RNA and gene expression affects DNA.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sequence of events illustrates the steps of signal transduction?
A) First messenger to receptor molecules to second messenger to cellular response
B) Receptor molecules to first messenger to second messenger to cellular response
C) First messenger to second messenger to receptor molecules to cellular response
D) First messenger to second messenger to cellular responses to receptor
E) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
Answer: A
Q2) In which disease is cellular adhesion abnormal?
A) heart disease
B) Parkinson disease
C) pattern baldness
D) arthritis
E) irritable bowel syndrome
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Meiosis and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) An embryo develops rudiments of all organs by week __ of prenatal development.
A) 8
B) 16
C) 24
D) 32
E) 33
Answer: A
Q2) Centenarians are
A) segmented worms.
B) people in the military.
C) people who live past 100 years.
D) people who die just before their 100<sup>th</sup> birthday.
E) people who live past 90.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A(n)______ cross yields a genotypic ratio of 1:2:1 and a phenotypic ratio of 3:1.
A) allelic
B) monohybrid
C) test
D) dihybrid
E) trihybrid
Q2) Cystic fibrosis is autosomal recessive.This means that
A) both sexes can be affected and affected individuals and carriers pass the mutation.
B) carrier mothers pass the mutation to some of their sons, but not to their daughters.
C) each affected individual has at least one affected parent.
D) both sexes are affected because new mutations occur frequently.
E) in any particular family, only one sex can be affected.
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6
Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) A gene may have many alleles,but a person has only two alleles for a gene,because
A) having more than two alleles is always lethal.
B) a gene can be altered in many ways, but a person has only two copies of any gene.
C) a person is haploid because of meiosis.
D) having more than two alleles unbalances the chromosomes.
E) humans are not normally triploid.
Q2) Can a woman with blood type A have a child with blood type O with a man who is AB?
A) Yes, because of codominance between the I<sup>A</sup> and I<sup>B</sup> alleles.
B) No, because a man with type AB blood could not contribute an i allele.
C) Yes, because of epistasis between the I and the H genes.
D) No, because the child's genotype must be ii.
E) Cannot tell from the phenotypes.
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Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Sample Questions
Q1) Imprinting affects the phenotype when
A) both alleles of a gene are imprinted.
B) both alleles of a gene are inactivated or deleted.
C) one allele is imprinted and the other is inactivated or deleted.
D) an embryo is exposed to methyl groups.
E) an embryo arises from two female genomes or two male genomes.
Q2) Chloe has the scaly skin condition icthyosis,which is X-linked recessive.Which of the following is most likely true?
A) Her mother and father were both unaffected carriers.
B) Her mother was affected and her father was unaffected.
C) Her father was a carrier.
D) Her mother was a carrier and her father was affected.
E) She is a new mutation.
Q3) Indifferent gonads develop
A) during the first two weeks of prenatal development.
B) during the fifth week of prenatal development.
C) during the ninth week of prenatal development.
D) when the embryo becomes a fetus.
E) at puberty.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes that help to control body weight encode the proteins
A) fibrin, fibrinogen, and hemoglobin.
B) collagen, elastin, and dystrophin.
C) estrogen, testosterone, and progesterone.
D) leptin, ghrelin, and the melanocortin-4 receptor.
E) glucosamine, chondroitin, and hyaluronic acid.
Q2) Empiric risk is based on ______,which is ___________.
A) prevalence; rate at which a certain event occurs
B) incidence; rate at which a certain event occurs
C) prevalence; proportion of individuals in a population with a particular disorder at a specific time.
D) incidence; proportion of individuals in a population with a particular disorder at a specific time.
E) Mendelian inheritance; the transmission pattern of a single-gene trait.
Q3) An assumption of twin studies is that
A) twins are more intelligent than singletons.
B) both twins of a pair have had similar experiences.
C) the twins are monozygotic.
D) the twins are dizygotic.
E) the twins are the same age.
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Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Q1) In the 1980s,when researchers began seeking gene variants that can cause or contribute to bipolar disorder,it seemed that each extended family had its own mutations.These findings,looking back,most likely mean that A) the families have different allele combinations of the same gene.
B) bipolar disorder results from imitating the behavior of an affected family member.
C) Many gene variant combinations cause or contribute to bipolar disorder, but only a few such variants are seen in any one family.
D) many people fake the symptoms of bipolar disorder.
E) bipolar disorder reflects changes in gene expression, but not in mutations.
Q2) The lifetime risk for major depressive disorder in the general population is
A) 0 - 1%.
B) 1 - 2%.
C) 5 - 10%.
D) 25 - 45%.
E) unknown.
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Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Q1) In experiments to show that DNA is the genetic material,Hershey and Chase labeled DNA with radioactive
A) amino acids.
B) sulfur.
C) phosphorus.
D) carbon.
E) nitrogen.
Q2) Purines and pyrimidines refer to the ______ of the DNA molecules.
A) nitrogenous bases
B) sugar-phosphate backbone
C) hydrogen bonds
D) nucleus
E) histones
Q3) When DNA folds and winds into the nucleus of a cell,it shrinks in length by a factor of A) 10.
B) 100.
C) 1,000.
D) 7,000.
E) 3.2 billion.
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Chapter 10: Gene Action: From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) The human genome encodes about ___ transcription factors.
A) 12
B) 112
C) 875
D) 2,000
E) 3.2 billion
Q2) A(n)_______ carries a specific amino acid to a ribosome,where the amino acid bonds to another.
A) mtDNA
B) rRNA
C) mRNA
D) tRNA
E) siRNA
Q3) The linear order of amino acids in a polypeptide is the _______ structure of a protein.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) chaperone
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Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In chromatin remodeling,acetyl groups bind
A) mRNA.
B) the DNA sense strand.
C) lysines that are part of histones.
D) microRNAs.
E) globin genes.
Q2) Blood plasma contains about ____ different types of proteins,but only ___ types account for 90 percent of the total number of proteins.
A) 40,000; 10
B) 20,000; 20
C) 1,000; 100
D) 500; 35
E) 20; 10
Q3) A typical human cell contains
A) one copy of each of 100 different microRNAs.
B) one copy of each of 3.2 billion different microRNAs.
C) one copy of each of about 20,000 different microRNAs.
D) from 1,000 to 200,000 microRNAs of about 1,000 types.
E) no microRNA unless the person develops cancer.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutations and polymorphisms are both changes in a DNA sequence,but polymorphisms are more common because
A) they less severely affect the phenotype, so that individuals can reproduce and transmit them.
B) more people have them.
C) mutations are always lethal.
D) they more severely affect the phenotype, so that individuals cannot reproduce and transmit them.
E) mutations refer to a real situation, whereas a polymorphism is an idealized state that biologists hypothesized to explain genetic change.
Q2) Palindrome sequences are often found at mutation hotspots.Which of the following is a palindrome?
A) AAAATTTT
B) ATATGCGC
C) GATCCTAG
D) GATCGATC
E) UCGUGGCCUU
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Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) A chromsomal inversion that does not include the centromere is
A) epicentric.
B) paracentric.
C) metacentric.
D) isocentric.
E) pericentric.
Q2) People with Klinefelter syndrome have which chromosome constitution?
A) XXY
B) XY
C) YO
D) XXX
E) XO
Q3) A man with trisomy 21 could pass Down syndrome to offspring if he A) produces sperm that have two copies of chromosome 21.
B) produces sperm lacking chromosome 21.
C) also has Turner syndrome.
D) is a carrier of a deletion for chromosome 21.
E) drinks too much alcohol just before the child is conceived.
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15
Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which choice describes a biological population?
A) a bird, a lizard, and an insect in a cage at a zoo
B) an all-male army
C) people living in an apartment building
D) pebbles on a beach
E) a woman
Q2) The parts of the genome that are used in markers of identity in DNA profiling
A) are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a phenotype.
B) are in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a genotype.
C) are not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a phenotype.
D) are not in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and therefore not affected by natural selection acting on a genotype.
E) have very distinctive phenotypes that are associated with particular populations.
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16
Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) The collection of deleterious alleles in a population is called the
A) mutation load.
B) mutation bottleneck.
C) genetic load.
D) genome polymorphism.
E) mutant allele.
Q2) _______ in the mycobacterium tuberculosis population reduced the incidence and virulence of tuberculosis in the early twentieth century.
A) Natural selection
B) Mutation
C) Migration
D) Nonrandom mating
E) Genetic drift
Q3) The prevalence of a Y chromosome with the same sequences as Genghis Khan illustrates
A) mutation.
B) natural selection.
C) nonrandom mating.
D) gene therapy.
E) consanguinity.
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Chapter 16: Human Ancestry
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a single-gene trait that distinguishes humans from other primates is
A) the presence of two sides to the brain.
B) the abundance of fetal hemoglobin in humans.
C) the lack of adult hemoglobin in marmosets and lemurs.
D) our non-opposable thumbs.
E) tool use.
Q2) _______ are ancestral to both apes and humans.
A) Hominins
B) Humanoids
C) Hominoids
D) Humanids
E) Homo erectus
Q3) Comparison of common chromosomal banding patterns between humans and 5 other species are given below.Based on these data,humans are least related to A) gorillas: 99% common chromosome bands.
B) orangutans: 99% common chromosome bands.
C) African green monkeys: 95% common chromosome bands.
D) domestic cats: 35% common chromosome bands.
E) mice: 7% common chromosome bands.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The functions of antibodies include
A) causing pieces of antigen genes to form new combinations.
B) activating complement, inactivating pathogens, and clumping pathogens.
C) activating macrophages, stimulating mast cells, and increasing the white blood cell count.
D) creating a warm and swollen area near the site of infection, which harms the pathogens.
E) causing B cells to bind to T cells, forming clumps that are visible to the immune system.
Q2) People do not develop a secondary immune response to influenza because
A) the immune system mutates from season to season.
B) flu vaccines are not always effective.
C) secondary immune responses are only possible against bacteria.
D) the primary immune response is sufficient to protect against flu.
E) the virus mutates, so it is different each season.
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) The first mutation typically detected in FAP colon cancer is A) APC.
B) TGF.
C) P53.
D) PRL-3.
E) RB.
Q2) A(n)_______ is a type of cancer-causing gene that promotes cancer by activating cell division at an inappropriate time or place.
A) DNA repair gene
B) tumor suppressor gene
C) oncogene
D) proto-oncogene
E) teratoma
Q3) A proto-oncogene can become an oncogene when A) it is shut off.
B) it is translocated next to a highly expressed gene.
C) it is translocated next to a gene that is not being expressed.
D) checkpoints are added to the cell cycle.
E) the cell cycle temporarily runs backwards.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Genetic Technologies: Amplifying, Modifying, and Monitoring DNA
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Q1) A naturally-occurring,small,circle of DNA used as a vector to transmit DNA is a
A) plasmid.
B) prion.
C) liposome.
D) lipofectin.
E) ring chromosome.
Q2) Transgenic pharming uses _______ to produce recombinant proteins in _______.
A) cows; milk
B) bacteriophage; bacteria
C) bacteria; culture media
D) fungi; culture media
E) viruses; cell culture
Q3) Which technique uses tiny needles to deliver DNA into animal cells?
A) electrophoresis
B) microinjection
C) particle bombardment
D) electroporation
E) bacteriophage bombardment
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Q1) A test offered on the Web by a direct-to-consumer genetic testing company genotypes a gene for ability to taste bitter substances.This test is not regulated by the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)because
A) the test is not expensive.
B) the test provides information, not a diagnosis.
C) the test is offered in a state of the U.S. not covered by these regulations.
D) the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act outlawed CLIA.
E) it is not accurate.
Q2) A patient received bone marrow modified by an adeno-associated virus (AAV)carrying the human gene that encodes an enzyme her body could not make.This is an example of
A) protein therapy.
B) germline gene therapy.
C) somatic gene therapy.
D) retroviral gene therapy.
E) IVF.
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22
Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Q1) A woman has a child using intrauterine insemination.The woman is the child's
A) gestational mother only.
B) genetic mother only.
C) gestational and genetic mother.
D) gestational and surrogate mother.
E) clone.
Q2) Which of the following is an assisted reproductive technology?
A) producing human insulin in bacteria
B) a couple conceive using sperm from a sperm bank
C) a man donates part of his liver to his daughter, who has cystic fibrosis
D) a woman has breast reduction surgery to alleviate back pain
E) a boy with a form of hereditary blindness receives injections of the wild type gene in his retinas to restore his vision
Q3) The fertility drug clomiphene causes a woman to
A) produce more oocytes.
B) ovulate more than one oocyte a month.
C) ovulate more than one time a month.
D) have only one menstrual period a year.
E) conceive.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Two technologies that sped progress of the human genome project in 1991 were
A) recombinant DNA technology and PCR.
B) amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling.
C) screening for sickle cell disease and FISH to identify aneuploidy.
D) the invention of the Internet and personal computers.
E) expressed sequence tags and microarrays.
Q2) The following sequence is part of a genome.
Fragments corresponding to it that would be useful in deriving the sequence are
A) \(G U C U C \quad G A U C \quad A C C A U \quad A U U G A \quad G A C U C \quad C U C A G \quad A G U G \)
B) \( C TGTG \quad CTAG \quad TGGTA \quad TAACT \quad CTGAG \quad GAGTC \quad TCAC \)
C) \(CACT \quad CTGAG \quad GAGTC \quad TCAAT \quad ATGGT \quad GATC \quad GTGTC \)
D) \(ACG \quad GTGAT \quad CTGTA \quad CTGTGTAC \quad GTG \quad CTGACTG \)
E) \( CTGATGT \quad CGTGT \quad CTGTGATGC \quad CGTGTA \quad CCCGTA \)
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