Course Introduction
Biomedical Sciences
Chapter Exam Questions
Biomedical Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the biological and physiological principles underlying human health, disease, and medical treatment. Students in this course examine the molecular, cellular, and systemic mechanisms that govern normal function and pathological conditions, integrating knowledge from biology, chemistry, anatomy, physiology, microbiology, and genetics. Emphasis is placed on understanding disease processes, diagnostic methods, and therapeutic strategies, preparing students for further study or careers in healthcare, research, pharmaceuticals, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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Q1) Blood glucose concentration rises after a meal and stimulates the pancreas to release the hormone insulin.Insulin travels in the blood and stimulates the uptake of glucose by body cells from the bloodstream,thus reducing blood glucose concentration.This is an example of _________.
A) negative feedback
B) positive feedback
C) dynamic equilibrium
D) integration control
E) set point adjustment
Answer: A
Q2) The study of mechanism of disease is called __________.
A) histology
B) neuroanatomy
C) pathophysiology
D) endocrinology
E) neurophysiology
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A drastic conformational change in a protein in response to extreme heat or pH is called __________.
A) contamination
B) denaturation
C) saturation
D) sedimentation
E) deconformation
Answer: B
Q2) Na (atomic no.11)reacts with Cl (atomic no.17)to become stable.In the reaction,Na will ____________,while Cl will ____________.
A) accept one electron;give up one electron
B) give up one proton;accept one proton
C) share one electron with chlorine;share one electron with sodium
D) become an anion;become a cation
E) give up one electron;accept one electron
Answer: E
Q3) Minerals are organic elements extracted from the soil by plants.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plasma membrane of cells lining the small intestine has __________,which are specialized for absorption of nutrients.
A) flagella
B) cilia
C) microvilli
D) a glycocalyx
E) dynein arms
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following organelles is not involved in protein synthesis?
A) Smooth ER
B) Rough ER
C) The Golgi complex
D) The nucleus
E) Ribosomes
Answer: A
Q3) Both the nucleus and the mitochondrion are surrounded by a two layer membrane.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anticodons,codons,and base triplets correspond to __________ respectively.
A) tRNA,DNA,and mRNA
B) DNA,tRNA,and mRNA
C) tRNA,mRNA,and DNA
D) DNA,RNA,and pre-mRNA
E) RNA,DNA,and pre-mRNA
Q2) All proteins made by the ribosomes are exported from a cell for use elsewhere in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) All of the body's nonreproductive cells,called __________,usually have 23 pairs of chromosomes and are thus called __________ cells.
A) germ cells;haploid (n)
B) germ cells;diploid (2n)
C) somatic cells;haploid (n)
D) somatic cells;diploid (2n)
Q4) Although all cells synthesize phospholipids,there are no genes for phospholipids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Astronauts in zero gravity are able to move food through their digestive tracts because __________.
A) smooth muscle produces waves of contractions that propel material through the digestive tract
B) skeletal muscle puts pressure on the digestive tract
C) cardiac muscle maintains a high pressure that moves material through the digestive tract
D) striated muscle creates a pressure gradient that forces material from one end of the digestive tract to the other
E) skeletal muscle sphincters contract and allow materials to move through the digestive tract
Q2) The clear gel inside a cell is called __________.
A) matrix
B) ground substance
C) interstitial fluid
D) cytosol
E) tissue fluid
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Embarrassment can be perceived by an abnormal coloration of the skin called cyanosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In whom are mammary glands found?
A) In lactating females
B) In lactating and non-lactating females
C) In non-lactating females
D) In non-lactating females and males
Q3) Looking at a slide of axillary skin under the microscope,you notice the presence of __________ glands that are absent on slides of the scalp.
A) merocrine
B) apocrine
C) sebaceous
D) ceruminous
E) perspiration
Q4) The deeper of the two layers of the skin is the hypodermis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Q1) The cortex of the long bone's diaphysis is made of _________.
A) marrow
B) compact bone
C) spongy bone
D) dense regular connective tissue
E) articular cartilage
Q2) The expanded head at each end of a long bone is called the __________.
A) epiphysis
B) diaphysis
C) articular cartilage
D) periosteum
E) endosteum
Q3) Red bone marrow does not contain __________.
A) myeloid tissue
B) yellow bone marrow
C) hemopoietic tissue
D) white blood cells
E) red blood cells
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A newborn passes through the__________ of its mother during birth.
A) obturator foramen
B) pelvic inlet
C) pelvic outlet
D) acetabulum
E) false pelvis
Q2) The acromion is an anatomical feature of the __________.
A) clavicle
B) scapula
C) ulna
D) scaphoid
E) pollex
Q3) All the bones below belong to the axial skeleton,except the __________,which belongs to the appendicular skeleton.
A) frontal bone
B) mandible
C) scapula
D) thoracic vertebra
E) stapes
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following structures prevents knee hyperextension?
A) The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
B) The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
C) The fibular (lateral)collateral ligament
D) The medial meniscus
E) The lateral meniscus
Q2) Which of the following structures is not found in the shoulder?
A) The glenohumeral ligament
B) The transverse humeral ligament
C) The coracohumeral ligament
D) The radioulnar ligament
E) The rotator cuff
Q3) Symphyses are the most common type of fibrous joints.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bursae are structures associated with fibrous,cartilaginous,and synovial joints.
A)True
B)False
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11
Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Q1) The muscles that laterally rotate and depress the scapula,as in shrugging and lowering the shoulders,are the __________.
A) trapezius and serratus anterior
B) pectoralis minor and serratus anterior
C) levator scapulae and rhomboideus
D) trapezius and rhomboideus
E) trapezius and latissimus dorsi
Q2) Tennis elbow is a common term describing injury to the attachment of which of the following?
A) Extensor hallucis longus
B) Pronator quadratus
C) Extensor carpi radialis longus
D) Subscapularis
E) Flexor digitorum profundus
Q3) Some people suffer involuntary urination due to incompetence of what muscle?
A) External urethral sphincter
B) Bulbospongiosus
C) Compressor urethrae
D) Ischiocavernosus
E) Levator ani
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Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The absence or inhibition of acetylcholinesterase at a synapse would lead to
A) flaccid paralysis
B) tetanus
C) atrophy
D) numbness
E) muscle wasting
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a muscle cell?
A) Plasticity
B) Contractility
C) Conductivity
D) Extensibility
E) Excitability
Q3) Which of the following is true concerning isotonic concentric contraction?
A) The muscle shortens but tension remains constant.
B) The muscle lengthens but tension remains constant.
C) The muscle tenses and shortens.
D) The muscle tenses but length remains unchanged.
E) The muscle lengthens and tension declines.
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nerves are __________ of the nervous system.
A) organs
B) tissues
C) organ systems
D) organelles
E) cells
Q2) During the absolute refractory period which of the following is true?
A) If a neuron reaches threshold,the action potential goes to completion.
B) The neuron fires at its maximum voltage if a stimulus depolarizes the neuron to threshold.
C) The signal grows weaker with distance.
D) It is possible to trigger a new action potential,but only with an unusually strong stimulus.
E) No stimulus of any strength will trigger a new action potential.
Q3) What occurs during hyperpolarization of a neuron membrane?
A) Sodium ions are entering the cells
B) Sodium ions are leaving the cell
C) Potassium ions are entering the cell
D) Potassium ions are leaving the cell
E) Both sodium and potassium ions are leaving the cell
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic
Reflexes
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Q1) Voluntary motor impulses leave the spinal cord via the _________ of gray matter.
A) anterior horn
B) posterior horn
C) anterior column
D) posterior column
E) lateral horn
Q2) "Somatosensory" does not refer to sensory signals from __________.
A) bones and muscles
B) joints
C) proprioceptors
D) the viscera
E) the skin
Q3) Which of the following nerves originates in the lumbosacral plexus?
A) Axillary
B) Sciatic
C) Phrenic
D) Ilioinguinal
E) Obturator
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) The pyramidal cells of the precentral gyrus are called __________ neurons.
A) stellate
B) third-order
C) first-order
D) upper motor
E) lower motor
Q2) The great majority of which tracts pass through the corpus callosum?
A) Ascending
B) Descending
C) Projection
D) Commissural
E) Association
Q3) A lesion in which structure would cause a person to have an erratic waking/sleeping cycle?
A) Satiety center
B) Mammillary nucleus
C) Suprachiasmatic nucleus
D) Pituitary gland
E) Medial geniculate nucleus
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the enteric nervous system?
A) Its reflex arcs are associated with the spinal cord.
B) It does not arise from the spinal cord.
C) It innervates smooth muscle.
D) It innervates glands.
E) It does not arise from the brainstem.
Q2) A neuron that synapses in the adrenal medulla is a ___________ neuron,and releases the neurotransmitter ___________.
A) preganglionic;acetylcholine (ACh)
B) postganglionic;norepinephrine (NE)
C) preganglionic;norepinephrine (NE)
D) postganglionic;acetylcholine (ACh)
E) somatic;norepinephrine (NE)
Q3) Most autonomic efferent pathways involve one neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Most preganglionic fibers synapse with postganglionic fibers in the dorsal root ganglia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Q1) The initial effect of a stimulus on a sensory receptor is a local electrical change specifically called a(an)__________.
A) action potential
B) graded potential
C) local potential
D) sensory potential
E) receptor potential
Q2) Which cells are responsible for photopic (day)vision as well as trichromatic (color)vision?
A) Bipolar cells
B) Rods
C) Cones
D) Ganglion cells
E) Pigment cells
Q3) What do pheromones stimulate?
A) Hair cells
B) Supporting cells
C) Taste cells
D) Olfactory cells
E) Olfactory glands
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Q1) __________ secretion is controlled by neuroendocrine reflexes,whereas __________ secretion is controlled by negative feedback mechanisms.
A) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH);luteinizing hormone (LH)
B) Oxytocin (OT);antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH);oxytocin (OT)
D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH);thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
E) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH);luteinizing hormone (LH)
Q2) _________ are secreted by one cell into the tissue fluid,diffuse to nearby cells in the same tissue,and stimulate their physiology.
A) Neurotransmitters
B) Neuromodulators
C) Hormones
D) Parahormones
E) Paracrines
Q3) Cholesterol is essential for the synthesis of steroid hormones.
A)True
B)False
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Q1) The cessation of bleeding is specifically called __________.
A) a vascular spasm
B) homeostasis
C) hemostasis
D) platelet plug formation
E) coagulation
Q2) The number of __________ typically increases in response to bacterial infections.
A) basophils
B) monocytes
C) erythrocytes
D) eosinophils
E) neutrophils
Q3) Rh incompatibility between a sensitized Rh<sup>+</sup> woman and an Rh<sup>-</sup> fetus can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
A)True
B)False
Q4) After a wound is sealed,tissue repair is followed by fibrinolysis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Q1) In a normal ECG,the deflection that is generated by ventricular repolarization is called the __________.
A) R wave
B) QRS wave
C) P wave
D) S wave
E) T wave
Q2) When the left ventricle contracts,the __________ valve closes and the __________ valve is pushed open.
A) mitral;pulmonary
B) right AV;pulmonary
C) right AV;aortic
D) mitral;aortic
E) aortic;pulmonary
Q3) Hypercapnia and acidosis have positive chronotropic effects.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Parasympathetic stimulation reduces heart rate.
A)True
B)False
Page 21
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) Where is the greatest volume of blood found in the body?
A) Pulmonary circuit
B) Heart
C) Arteries
D) Veins
E) Capillaries
Q2) What is the most important force in venous flow?
A) Cardiac suction
B) The pressure generated by the heart
C) The skeletal muscle pump
D) The thoracic (respiratory)pump
E) The one way flow due to valves
Q3) Decompensated shock is normally corrected by the body's homeostatic mechanisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Blood flow through a capillary bed is regulated by precapillary sphincters.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) Pyrogens act by increasing the set point for body temperature in the thalamus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Helper T (T<sub>H</sub>)cells recognize antigens when they are bound to a(n)__________.
A) hapten
B) immunoglobulin
C) natural killer cell
D) major histocompatibility complex (MHC)protein
E) basophil
Q3) When an enemy cell is present,a(n)__________ secretes perforins,which bore a hole in the enemy cell membrane.
A) interferon
B) interleukin
C) natural killer cell
D) antibody
E) opsonization
Q4) The antigenicity of a molecule is due to specific regions of it called haptens.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which bronchus is about 5cm long and slightly narrower and more horizontal than the one on the opposite side?
A) Left segmental bronchus
B) Right segmental bronchus
C) Right lobar bronchus
D) Left main bronchus
E) Right main bronchus
Q2) In one passage through a bed of systemic blood capillaries,the blood gives up about what percentage of its oxygen?
A) 5% to 10%
B) 10% to 15%
C) 20% to 25%
D) 30% to 40%
E) 70% to 85%
Q3) According to the Bohr effect,a low level of oxyhemoglobin enables the blood to transport more CO<sub>2</sub>.
A)True
B)False
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24
Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Q1) The urine is most likely to be hypotonic when the __________.
A) body's water volume is high
B) body's pH is low
C) output of antidiuretic hormone is high
D) output of natriuretic peptides is high
E) person is lost and deprived of drinking water
Q2) Which of the following is not found in the ureter?
A) Adventitia
B) Two layers of smooth muscle
C) Three layers of smooth muscle
D) Transitional epithelium
E) Skeletal muscle
Q3) Micturition is another term for __________.
A) the production of nitrogenous wastes
B) glomerular filtration
C) the countercurrent multiplier process
D) inflammation of the urinary bladder
E) the elimination of urine
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Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Q1) Ina state of fluid balance, average daily fluid gains and losses are equal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The kidneys secrete ADH in response to dehydration.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where is the greatest volume of water in the body found?
A) Intracellular fluid (ICF)
B) Extracellular fluid(ECF)
C) Tissue(interstitial)fluid
D) Blood plasma and lymph
E) Transcellular fluid
Q4) What determines osmosis from one fluid compartment to another?
A) The temperature difference between compartments
B) The relative concentration of solutes in each compartment
C) The relative volume in each compartment
D) The relative size of each compartment
E) The blood pressure
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Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following is the proper sequence by which proteins are digested by different enzymes?
A) Pepsin,trypsin,carboxypeptidase,dipeptidase
B) Pepsin,trypsin,dipeptidase,carboxypeptidase
C) Trypsin,pepsin,carboxypeptidase,dipeptidase
D) Trypsin,pepsin,dipeptidase,carboxypeptidase
E) Dipeptidase,carboxypeptidase,pepsin,trypsin
Q2) The small intestine uses segmentation to mix chyme with digestive enzymes,increase its contact with the mucosa,and propel it forward through the digestive tract.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Infants have __________ deciduous teeth,whereas adults have __________ permanent teeth.
A) 20;32
B) 16;20
C) 28;20
D) 32;20
E) 32;32
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) The first step in using amino acids as fuel is to __________ them.
A) digest
B) deaminate
C) transaminate
D) aminate
E) synthesize
Q2) What process produces most of the NADH that contributes to ATP synthesis in the cell?
A) Glycolysis
B) The citric acid cycle
C) Anaerobic fermentation
D) The mitochondrial proton pumps
E) The electron transfer from FADH<sub>2</sub>
Q3) Which of the following occurs during the absorptive state?
A) Glucagon levels increase
B) Blood glucose falls
C) Fatty acids are oxidized for fuel
D) Lipolysis is occurring
E) Gluconeogenesis is suppressed
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Page 28
Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) The __________ is the site of sperm maturation and storage.
A) spermatic cord
B) epididymis
C) rete testis
D) seminiferous tubules
E) ductus (vas)deferens
Q2) The __________ is the gonad and the __________ is the gamete.
A) testis;ovary
B) testis;semen
C) testis;sperm
D) sperm;semen
E) semen;sperm
Q3) The acrosome contains enzymes used to __________.
A) dissolve the mucosa of the vagina
B) dissolve the mucosa of the uterus
C) dissolve the stickiness of the semen
D) penetrate the vagina
E) penetrate barriers surrounding the ovum
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Most primary oocytes undergo atresia during climacteric.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The nonpregnant uterine wall consists mostly of __________.
A) perimetrium
B) endometrium
C) dense regular connective tissue
D) dense irregular connective tissue
E) myometrium
Q3) The uterus is a thick muscular chamber inferior to the urinary bladder.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What is the midlife change in estrogen and progesterone levels referred to as?
A) Climacteric
B) Menopause
C) Atresia
D) Menarche
E) Pubarche
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Q1) The fossa ovalis is a remnant of the __________ of the fetus.
A) ductus arteriosus
B) ductus venosus
C) umbilical artery
D) umbilical vein
E) foramen ovale
Q2) During implantation,the trophoblast divides into a superficial layer called the __________,which is composed of a multinucleate mass of cytoplasm.
A) chorion
B) embryoblast
C) amnion
D) syncytiotrophoblast
E) cytotrophoblast
Q3) Regarding fertilization,which of the following events happens first?
A) Formation of a fertilization membrane
B) The fast block to polyspermy
C) The slow block to polyspermy
D) The cortical reaction
E) The acrosomal reaction
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human
Anatomy
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Q1) The __________ system provides protection,water retention,thermoregulation,and vitamin D production.
A) lymphatic
B) muscular
C) skeletal
D) integumentary
E) digestive
Q2) In the appendicular region,the wrist is called the _________ region,and the ankle is called the ___________ region.
A) manual;pedal
B) brachial;crural
C) crural;antebrachial
D) carpal;tarsal
E) metacarpal;metatarsal
Q3) The heart is in the __________ cavity and is covered by the __________.
A) thoracic;pleura
B) thoracic;pericardium
C) pericardial;pleura
D) pericardial;peritoneum
E) cranial;meninges
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