Biomedical Science Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Biomedical Science is an interdisciplinary field that combines biology, chemistry, and medicine to investigate the mechanisms of health and disease at the molecular, cellular, and system levels. This course explores the structure and function of the human body, disease processes, diagnostic techniques, and emerging therapies. Students will gain a foundational understanding of anatomy, physiology, pathology, microbiology, genetics, and pharmacology, preparing them for careers in healthcare, research, and biotechnology. Through practical laboratory experiences and theoretical study, learners will develop essential skills in scientific analysis, critical thinking, and problem-solving relevant to modern biomedical challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Diagnostics Fundamentals Methods and Clinical Applications 2nd Edition by Lela Buckingham
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16 Chapters
448 Verified Questions
448 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) In sexual recombination, new combinations of genes are created by which of the following processes?
A) Transduction
B) Crossing over
C) Conjugation
D) Transformation
Answer: B
Q2) DNA replication proceeds with the new daughter strand synthesized in the following orientation:
A) 5'to 3'
B) 3'to 5'
C) The daughter strand is not synthesized in any order.
D) Either 5'to 3'or 3' to 5'
Answer: A
Q3) What is the fertility factor (F) observed by Hayes and Lederberg?
A) A chemical that encourages bacterial mating
B) A virus
C) A plasmid
D) A polysaccharide on the cell surface
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: RNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most frequently methylated base in vertebrates is:
A) Adenine
B) Cytosine
C) Guanine
D) Thymine
Answer: B
Q2) RNA is degraded by:
A) Helicases
B) Polymerases
C) Ribonucleases
D) Methylases
Answer: C
Q3) Which component of RNA polymerase is responsible for initiating transcription at the correct site?
A) (\(\alpha\))
B) (\(\beta\))
C) (\(\beta\)')
D) (\(\rho\))
E) (\(\sigma\))
Answer: E
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Chapter 3: Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the general structure of an amino acid?
A) Planar carbon-nitrogen ring with deoxyribose sugar
B) Pentose sugar bound to phosphate and purine or pyrimidine base
C) Central carbon with carboxyl group, amino group, hydrogen, and a side chain
D) Polymer of molecules bound together by a peptide bond
Answer: C
Q2) The sequence of amino acids in a protein constitutes which level of protein structure?
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
Answer: A
Q3) What amino acid is used to initiate most proteins in eukaryotes?
A) Methionine
B) Alanine
C) Proline
D) Aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Nucleic Acid Extraction Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) A DNA-specific dye that is used in fluorometry procedures to measure DNA concentration is:
A) Ethidium bromide
B) Diethyl pyrocarbonate
C) SYBR Green
D) Hoechst 33258
Q2) In organic isolation of RNA procedures, guanidinium isothiocyanate is added to:
A) Degrade DNA
B) Denature all proteins
C) Inhibit RNAses
D) Separate RNA from DNA
Q3) Isolated DNA has an absorbance at 260 nm of 0.268 and an absorbance at 280 nm of 0.191. What is the 260 nm/280 nm ratio?
A) 1:2
B) 1:4
C) 1:6
D) 1:8
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Chapter 5: Resolution and Detection of Nucleic Acids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following molecules will migrate fastest in capillary electrophoresis?
A) Large and positively charged
B) Small and positively charged
C) Large and negatively charged
D) Small and negatively charged
Q2) How does one prepare a 2% agarose gel?
A) Mix 0.01 g agarose/mL running buffer and heat.
B) Mix 0.02 g agarose/mL running buffer and heat.
C) Mix 2 g agarose/mL running buffer and heat.
D) Mix 1 g agarose/mL running buffer and heat.
Q3) Which of the following are used to make wells in a solidifying gel into which samples are loaded?
A) Brushes
B) Combs
C) Picks
D) Shovels
Q4) Nucleic acids migrate toward which pole in electrophoresis?
A) Cathode
B) Anode
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Chapter 6: Analysis and Characterization of Nucleic Acids and Proteins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following methods is best suited for qualitative analysis of DNA, such as mutational analysis, where many samples are compared simultaneously?
A) Dot blot
B) Traditional Southern blot
C) Western blot
D) Northern blot
Q2) The microarray or chip is an example of which of the following blotting procedures?
A) Southern blot
B) Dot blot
C) Reverse dot blot
D) Western blot
Q3) What is learned from the size of restriction fragments as determined by migration speed in gel electrophoresis?
A) The specificity of the restriction enzyme
B) The distance between restriction enzyme recognition sites
C) The rate of digestion of the enzyme
D) The number of restriction sites in the DNA
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Nucleic Acid Amplification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transcription-mediated amplification obtains:
A) DNA from RNA
B) RNA from DNA
C) DNA from DNA
D) DNA from RNA and RNA from DNA
Q2) TaqMan, molecular beacons, and scorpion-type primers are all used in which of the following procedures?
A) Branched DNA assays
B) Quantitative PCR
C) Transcription-mediated amplification
D) Multiplex PCR
Q3) Which of the following is the correct order of the steps that occur in a standard PCR cycle?
A) Annealing, denaturation, and extension
B) Denaturation, extension, and annealing
C) Denaturation, annealing, and extension
D) Extension, annealing, and denaturation
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9
Chapter 8: Chromosomal Structure and Chromosomal Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the proper order for the four phases of the cell cycle?
A) G1, S, M, G2
B) G1, S, G2, M
C) G2, S, M, G1
D) M, S, G1, G2
Q2) A nucleosome consists of DNA and which of the following combinations of histone proteins?
A) 2(H1), 2(H2A), 2(H3), 2(H4)
B) 2(H2A), 2(H2B), 2(H3), 2(H4)
C) 2(H1), 2(H2A), 2(H2B), 2(H4)
D) 2(H2), 2(H3), 2(H4), 2(H5)
Q3) Down's syndrome is caused when an extra copy of chromosome 21 is created, which is what kind of genetic event?
A) Gene mutation
B) Chromosome mutation
C) Genome mutation
D) Euploidy
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Gene Mutations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does the g designate in g.225A>C?
A) Gene sequence
B) Gradient
C) Genomic sequence
D) Genetic
Q2) A reference segment of DNA has the following sequence: GCTCACCATGG. The fourth nucleotide is changed to an A in a particular genetic disease. How would this mutation be denoted?
A) 4C>A
B) 8A>C
C) 4delC
D) C4A
Q3) Substitution of leucine with valine in an amino acid sequence is what type of mutation?
A) Conservative
B) Non-conservative
C) Silent
D) Nonsense
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Chapter 10: DNA Sequencing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the output from capillary electrophoresis of a fluorescent product?
A) Autoradiogram
B) Electropherogram
C) Pictogram
D) Nomogram
Q2) A Sanger sequencing procedure has been performed on a 300-bp piece of DNA. When the fragments were resolved on the gel, there were bands distributed throughout the T, C and A lanes, but in the G lane, there was one thick band at the bottom of the gel. What is the likely cause of these results?
A) No dGTP was added to the G reaction mix.
B) No ddGTP was added to the G reaction mix.
C) There was only one G in the whole 300-bp piece of DNA.
D) The 300-bp piece of DNA contained Gs only.
Q3) An analysis that takes place in silico is happening in which of the following places?
A) Computer
B) Laboratory
C) Biological organism
D) Tissue
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Chapter 11: DNA Polymorphisms and Human Identification
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Sample Questions
Q1) Southern blot is used to detect which of the following polymorphisms?
A) Edited RNA
B) Alternative splicing
C) Restriction fragment length polymorphisms
D) Modified nucleotides
Q2) DNA found at the scene of the crime was determined to have one peak at 212 bp at the amelogenin locus. The source of this DNA is which of the following?
A) Female
B) Male
C) Impossible to tell from one locus
D) This locus does not discriminate between males and females.
Q3) When two sources of DNA are compared by STR analysis in a crime scene, how many differences between alleles will determine that the two sources are different?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
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Chapter 12: Detection and Identification of Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) The following methods that are used to determine the HIV viral load in a newly diagnosed patient. Which uses signal amplification?
A) NASBA
B) bDNA
C) RT-PCR
D) Sequencing
Q2) In the interpretation of pulsed field gel electrophoresis patterns, what is the minimum number of bands that can differ between two organisms before those organisms are determined to be unrelated?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 6
D) 7
Q3) Which of the following is the molecular target for most epidemiological investigations of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A) katG
B) inhA
C) IS6110
D) IS481
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Molecular Detection of Inherited Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mutation in this gene product that catalyzes the conversion of 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate to 5-methyltetrahydrofolate can lead to cardiovascular disease and complications in pregnancy.
A) TP53
B) MTHFR
C) F5
D) HLA-H
Q2) One of the rarest genome mutations, in which the affected infant has a cleft palate, abnormal heart, and developmental delays and usually does not survive beyond 6 months because of trisomy 13, is which of the following syndromes?
A) Down's
B) Turner's
C) Patau's
D) Edward's
Q3) How are transmission patterns determined?
A) Family history
B) Karyotyping
C) Environmental studies
D) Comparing unrelated individuals
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Molecular Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following targets is tissue specific but not necessarily tumor specific?
A) PML/RARA
B) EWS/FLI-1
C) EGFR
D) BCR/ABL
Q2) T-cell receptor gene rearrangements were analyzed by PCR using forward and reverse primers complementary to the V<sub>\(\gamma\)</sub>1 and J<sub>\(\gamma\)</sub>1 regions, respectively, of the T-cell receptor gene region. The products were separated by polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis and bands visualized using ethidium bromide. The lane corresponding to the patient had a sharp band. All controls were acceptable. How is this result interpreted?
A) The patient has a monoclonal (monotypic) T-cell population.
B) The patient is normal and has polyclonal T cells.
C) This is a false positive because of amplification of immunoglobulin genes.
D) The assay should be repeated because the wrong primers were used.
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Chapter 15: DNA-Based Tissue Typing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following methods that can be used to determine HLA types is only a low-resolution method?
A) PCR-SSP
B) PCR-SSOP
C) CDC
D) SBT
Q2) In a complement-dependent cytotoxicity assay, lymphocytes were incubated in the presence of antibody of known HLA specificity. Complement was added, and the cells absorbed trypan blue. What is the interpretation of this assay?
A) The lymphocytes express antigens specific for the antibodies in the assay.
B) The lymphocytes do not have antigens specific for the antibodies in the assay.
C) This is not a valid method for identifying HLA antigens.
D) The cells are resistant to complement lysis.
Q3) Which is in the MHC class II region?
A) HLA-A
B) Complement C2
C) TNF-alpha
D) HLA-D
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17
Chapter 16: Quality Assurance and Quality Control in the Molecular Laboratory
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Sample Questions
Q1) An assay that detects an analyte associated with a particular disease only in patients who have that disease and not in patients who do not have the disease has which of the following?
A) Analytic specificity
B) Analytic sensitivity
C) Clinical specificity
D) Clinical sensitivity
Q2) Which of the following controls defines the lower limit of reproducible and accurate detection of a molecular target?
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Sensitivity
D) Amplification
Q3) The analysis of external specimens to assess technologist competency and assay performance is which kind of testing?
A) Proficiency
B) Quality control
C) Quality assurance
D) Competency
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