Biomedical Science
Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Biomedical Science is an interdisciplinary field that applies principles of biology, chemistry, and physics to the study of human health and disease. It focuses on understanding the structure and function of the human body at the molecular, cellular, and systemic levels, and explores the mechanisms of diseases, their diagnosis, and treatment. Students of Biomedical Science examine core topics such as human anatomy, physiology, biochemistry, genetics, microbiology, immunology, pathology, and pharmacology. Through laboratory techniques, research methodologies, and the analysis of clinical cases, this course prepares students for careers in medical research, healthcare, diagnostics, and biotechnology, as well as for further study in medicine or related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 7th Australian Edition by Shane Bullock
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15 Chapters
666 Verified Questions
666 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Pharmacology Within the Social Context
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21573
Sample Questions
Q1) The Macusi Indians of Guyana have a place in the history of pharmacology as the first users of which type of drug?
A) A hallucinogenic agent related to LSD.
B) A narcotic analgesic.
C) A skeletal muscle relaxant.
D) A central nervous system stimulant.
Answer: C
Q2) From which plant is morphine derived?
A) Erythroxylum coca.
B) Papaver somniferum.
C) Cannabis sativa.
D) Claviceps purpurea.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following health professionals can decrease the incidence of polypharmacy?
A) Medical practitioner.
B) Pharmacist.
C) Nurse.
D) All of the above.
Answer: D
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Chapter 2: Pharmacology Within the Profesional Context
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dietitians are legally allowed to administer medications to clients.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Passive euthanasia involves:
A) the intentional act that leads to the client's death.
B) allowing the client to die by deliberately withholding or withdrawing life-supporting measures.
C) health care professionals carrying out actions that lead to the client's death without the client's consent.
D) the client voluntarily and freely choosing to die.
Answer: B
Q3) Australian regulations require nursing staff to maintain a ward register for administration of controlled drugs and periodically check the balance of ampoules, tablets and volumes of liquid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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4
Chapter 3: Medicine Administration and Professional
Responsibilities
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Administering enteric-coated medications via a NGT (nasogastric tube) is:
A) usually alright if a large flush of water is given afterwards.
B) not advisable as medications via NGT need to be crushed.
C) standard practice.
D) acceptable as long as the crushed tablet is not mixed with other medications.
Answer: B
Q2) Which drug is the most common cause of an anaphylactic reaction?
A) Aspirin.
B) Contrast media.
C) Penicillin.
D) Transfused blood.
Answer: C
Q3) Postural hypotension is an adverse effect often associated with drugs that:
A) block -adrenoceptors.
B) stimulate -adrenoceptors.
C) block -adrenoceptors.
D) stimulate -adrenoceptors.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: General Aspects of Pharmacology
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Into which 'medicines in pregnancy' category is a drug that has caused or is suspected of causing fetal harm, but not malformations?
A) Category B.
B) Category C.
C) Category D.
D) Category X.
Q2) In geriatric settings, it is desirable to:
A) arrange for all drugs to be dispensed to clients in childproof containers.
B) administer all drugs to all clients so that they can concentrate on resting and getting better.
C) encourage the client to learn about their medications prior to discharge.
D) use the deltoid muscle for intramuscular injection in a client with muscle wasting.
Q3) The extent of binding of a drug to a receptor is termed:
A) potency.
B) specificity.
C) affinity.
D) efficacy.
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6
Chapter 5: To Xicology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clients taking warfarin (which inhibits blood clotting) should be educated about their alcohol consumption, in particular that:
A) alcohol can decrease intravascular clotting, therefore making blood even 'thinner'.
B) alcohol causes increased thrombotic activity, which contradicts the intended effect of warfarin.
C) alcohol and warfarin will crystallise when taken together.
D) drinking alcohol is not problematic as long as warfarin is taken sublingually.
Q2) Which body organ is monitored before and during naltrexone treatment?
A) Brain.
B) Liver.
C) Heart.
D) Kidneys.
Q3) Systemic absorption of venoms can be minimised by:
A) the application of a pressure-immobilisation bandage.
B) lying down.
C) lying down and elevating the limbs.
D) the application of heat packs.
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Chapter 6: Autonomic Pharmacology
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscarinic agonists can be used in the management of:
A) tobacco dependence.
B) glaucoma.
C) bradycardia.
D) peptic ulcer.
Q2) Which of the following receptors, when stimulated, inhibit further release of noradrenaline?
A) Postsynaptic <sub>1</sub>.
B) Presynaptic <sub>2</sub>.
C) Postsynaptic <sub>1</sub>.
D) Presynaptic <sub>2</sub>.
Q3) Which presynaptic adrenergic receptors acts to enhance the release of noradrenaline?
A) <sub>1</sub><sub> </sub>receptors.
B) <sub>2</sub> receptors.
C) <sub>1</sub> receptors.
D) <sub>2</sub> receptors.
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8
Chapter 7: Chemical Mediators
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not act directly as a chemical mediator in cell-to-cell communication?
A) Angiotensin II.
B) Acetylcholine.
C) Cholesterol.
D) Insulin.
Q2) Which type of histamine receptor, located in the parietal cells of the stomach, is able to trigger gastric acid release upon activation?
A) H<sub>1</sub>
B) H<sub>2</sub>
C) H<sub>3</sub>
D) H<sub>4</sub>
Q3) H<sub>1</sub> antihistamines are useful in the management of:
A) peptic ulcers.
B) travel sickness.
C) moderately severe pain.
D) clotting disorders.
Q4) Topical use of antihistamines is safe.
A)True
B)False
9
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Chapter 8: The Modulat Ion of Behaviour, Cognition and Motor Activity
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter is:
A) Dopamine.
B) Glutamate.
C) Serotonin.
D) GABA
Q2) Spasmolytic muscle relaxants enhance the inhibitory transmitter GABA. How does this action produce a therapeutic effect in seizure management?
A) It reduces hyperexcitability of the motor pathways in the brain and spinal cord.
B) By inducing sedation in the patient.
C) By altering calcium levels that reduce skeletal muscle contraction.
D) Stimulation of GABAergic pathways in the spinal cord.
Q3) Akathisia, dystonic reactions and tardive dyskinesia are extrapyramidal symptoms associated with:
A) Antipsychotic use.
B) Anxiolytics.
C) Hypnotics.
D) Tetracyclic antidepressants.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Medicines Used to Relieve Pain and Produce
Anaesthesia
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which micronutrient should be supplemented with methotrexate use?
A) Folate.
B) Thiamin.
C) Riboflavin.
D) Pyridoxine.
Q2) When administering tramadol, it should not be given with drugs that:
A) affect coagulation.
B) affect blood vessel vasculature.
C) are largely metabolised renally.
D) increase seizure tendencies.
Q3) Which of the following local anaesthetics has a relatively long duration of action?
A) Procaine.
B) Lignocaine.
C) Bupivacaine.
D) Mepivacaine.
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Chapter 10: The Modulat Ion of Oxygenat Ion and Perfusion
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cardiac glycoside digoxin is also known as A) digitalis.
B) ACE.
C) carvedilol.
D) captopril.
Q2) Which one of the following is considered a cause of anaemia?
A) Vitamin D<sub>3</sub> deficiency.
B) Exposure to anabolic steroids.
C) Chronic renal failure.
D) Elemental iron overload.
Q3) The benefits of enoxaprin over heparin include that it:
A) is less likely to cause thrombocytopaenia and is more effective in reducing mortality and myocardial infarction in unstable angina.
B) has a longer half-life requiring less frequent monitoring and is safer in pregnancy.
C) A and B.
D) neither A or B.
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Chapter 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a proton pump inhibitor is:
A) misoprostol.
B) ranitidine.
C) astemizole.
D) omeprazole.
Q2) The coating of the gastric mucosa to protect it from acid and pepsin can be achieved with the use of:
A) cimetidine.
B) sucralfate.
C) misoprostol.
D) omeprazole.
Q3) Peppermint oil may be useful in the treatment of A) gallstones.
B) irritable bowel syndrome.
C) haemorrhoids.
D) GORD.
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13
Chapter 12: The Modulation of Body Growth, Development and Metabolism
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During spironolactone therapy, the blood levels of should be monitored.
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) urea
D) calcium
Q2) Which one of the following statements about uric acid is true?
A) It is a product of pyrimidine-based nucleic acid metabolism.
B) It tends to crystallise at relatively low physiological temperatures.
C) Hyperuricaemia always results in gout.
D) Uric acid is very water soluble in kidney filtrate.
Q3) Which of the following corticosteroids is classified as an intermediate-acting agent?
A) Hydrocortisone.
B) Dexamethasone.
C) Prednisolone.
D) Betamethasone.
Q4) To ensure maximum efficacy for post-coital contraception, it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nutritional and Natural Therapies
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Total parenteral nutrition is a(n) ________ solution that needs to be administered centrally.
A) nutrition
B) hypotonic
C) hypertonic
D) isotonic
E) iso-osmotic
Q2) How should iron preparations be consumed to facilitate maximal absorption?
A) On an empty stomach.
B) With food.
C) With milk.
D) At bedtime.
Q3) Ginkgo may help in improving the:
A) immune system.
B) circulation or blood flow to certain organs.
C) reproductive system.
D) excretory system.
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Chapter 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is a cell cycle specific cytotoxic drug group?
A) Alkylating agents.
B) Vinca alkaloids.
C) Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone analogues.
D) Cytotoxic antibiotics.
Q2) ________, which occur in about one-third of individuals on voriconazole, should be regularly monitored. These changes are reversible when voriconazole therapy is completed.
A) Hearing and vestibular changes
B) Vision changes
C) Muscle strength changes
D) Taste changes
Q3) Which of the following antimicrobial agents inhibits DNA replication?
A) Linezolid.
B) Mupirocin.
C) Colistin.
D) Norfloxacin.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Medicines Used Topically
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Topical corticosteroids for use in inflammatory eye conditions should not be used for more than ________ week(s).
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Q2) Drugs related to the antiviral agent aciclovir are used in the management of ophthalmic conditions such as:
A) trachoma.
B) CMV-induced retinitis.
C) Candida albicans infection
D) purulent bacterial infections.
Q3) Which of the following drug groups can be used as mydriatic agents?
A) -blockers.
B) Prostaglandin analogues.
C) Muscarinic agonists.
D) -adrenergic agonists.
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