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Biomechanics is the scientific study of the mechanical principles of living organisms, particularly their movement and structure. This course explores the application of physics and engineering concepts to biological systems, focusing on human movement, musculoskeletal mechanics, and the analysis of forces acting upon the body during various activities. Through theoretical study and practical experiments, students will learn how tissues respond to stress, how joints and muscles facilitate motion, and how biomechanical knowledge can be used to assess, improve, and rehabilitate human performance and injury prevention.
Recommended Textbook
Clinical Kinesiology and Anatomy 6th Edition by Lynn S. Lippert PT MS
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Q1) The ulna is where in relation to the humerus?
A) Medial
B) Lateral
C) Proximal
D) Distal
Answer: D
Q2) When a person grasps an overhead exercise bar and pulls it down,what type of motion is occurring at the shoulder joint?
A) Angular motion
B) Linear motion
C) Kinematic motion
D) Torque motion
Answer: A
Q3) When the scapula moves into a protracted position,they move in what direction in relation to the spine?
A) Superior
B) Inferior
C) Medial
D) Lateral
Answer: D
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Q1) Which type of bone makes up the dense,hard outer shell?
A) Compact bone
B) Cancellous bone
C) Marrow
D) Periosteum
Answer: A
Q2) The structure of the bone where growth occurs is the A) diaphysis.
B) medullary canal.
C) endosteum.
D) epiphyseal plate.
Answer: D
Q3) A bone marking that consists of a hole through which vessels,nerves,and ligaments pass is called a A) foramen.
B) crest.
C) head.
D) fossa.
Answer: A
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of a ligament?
A) They provide support to a joint.
B) They can serve as an attachment for cartilage.
C) They can serve as an attachment for fascia.
D) All of the above are true of a ligament.
Answer: D
Q2) What type of structure is located where tendons pass over a bone or joint and serves to decrease friction?
A) Cartilage
B) Fat pad
C) Bursa
D) Fibrocartilage
Answer: C
Q3) A broad,flat tendinous sheet is called
A) linea alba.
B) aponeurosis.
C) elastic cartilage.
D) labrum.
Answer: B
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Q1) Motions occurring within the joint that are necessary for joint motion but are not under voluntary control are called
A) osteokinematic movement.
B) accessory movement.
C) springy block.
D) manipulation.
Q2) The intervention of joint mobilization is best performed in the close-packed position at any given joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When a patient using a walker bears weight through the wrists,what type of accessory motion force is occurring at the wrist joints?
A) Shear
B) Traction
C) Approximation
D) Rotation forces
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of an eccentric contraction?
A) Contraction produces a greater force than a concentric contraction.
B) Contraction is used as an acceleration activity.
C) Muscle attachments move farther apart.
D) Movement occurs with gravity.
Q2) The majority of lower extremity functional activity occurs in a closed chain manner.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is NOT true of a concentric contraction?
A) Muscle attachments move closer together.
B) This type of contraction produces less of a force than an eccentric contraction.
C) Movement occurs against gravity.
D) A concentric contraction is an acceleration activity.
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Q1) A person with weakness of knee extension has damage to which of the following nerves?
A) Radial nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Femoral nerve
D) Common peroneal nerve
Q2) The white fatty substance present in the central nervous system (CNS)and peripheral nervous system (PNS)that serves to increase the speed of impulse conduction is called
A) myelin.
B) the node of Ranvier.
C) a neuron.
D) a tract.
Q3) The nerve plexus formed by the rami of C5 through T1 is called the A) cervical plexus.
B) brachial plexus.
C) thoracic plexus.
D) lumbosacral plexus.
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Q1) The joining of vessels to provide alternate circulation in case of a blood vessel blockage is referred to as which of the following?
A) Aneurysm
B) Anastomosis
C) Arteriole
D) Angion
Q2) The valve that allows one-way blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle is which of the following?
A) Pulmonary valve
B) Aortic valve
C) Tricuspid valve
D) Bicuspid valve
Q3) The main branch artery that supplies blood to the forearm and hand is which of the following?
A) Radial and ulnar
B) Axillary
C) Subclavian
D) Internal iliac
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Q1) If a PTA wishes to manually resist the knee extensors for an athlete and wishes to make the exercise as difficult as possible for the client,the best placement of her hand would be which of the following?
A) Proximal to the knee joint
B) Just distal to the tibial tuberosity
C) Midpoint of the tibia
D) Just proximal to the talus
Q2) Two forces acting in equal but opposite directions and resulting in a turning effect is called a
A) stabilizing force.
B) dislocating force.
C) moment of force.
D) force couple.
Q3) The state of equilibrium demonstrated when an object's COG is unchanged when it is disturbed is
A) stable equilibrium.
B) unstable equilibrium.
C) neutral equilibrium.
D) None of the above
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Q1) Which muscle is responsible for scapular protraction?
A) Pectoralis major
B) Serratus anterior
C) Coracobrachialis
D) Middle trapezius
Q2) Winging of the scapula is caused by weakness of which shoulder girdle muscle?
A) Pectoralis minor
B) Levator scapula
C) Serratus anterior
D) Middle trapezius
Q3) An example of a muscle group that forms a force couple is which of the following?
A) Upper trapezius,lower trapezius,levator scapula
B) Levator scapula,rhomboids,pectoralis minor
C) Rhomboids,upper trapezius,levator scapula
D) Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor
Q4) The acromioclavicular joint and the sternoclavicular joint contribute to scapular motions.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which muscle originates on the medial one-third of the clavicle and inserts on the lateral lip of the bicipital groove?
A) Anterior deltoid
B) Supraspinatus
C) Pectoralis major,clavicular portion
D) Coracobrachialis
Q2) Which of the following muscles perform shoulder hyperextension?
A) Teres major
B) Anconeus
C) Latissimus dorsi
D) Infraspinatus
Q3) Which bony landmark of the humerus is located on the lateral side near the midpoint of the shaft?
A) Bicipital groove
B) Lesser tubercle
C) Deltoid tuberosity
D) Humeral head
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Q1) The elbow flexor that is most effective (strongest)with the forearm in the neutral position is which of the following muscles?
A) Biceps brachii
B) Brachioradialis
C) Brachialis
D) Coracobrachialis
Q2) Weakness of the biceps brachii muscle could indicate trauma to which of the following nerves?
A) Musculocutaneous nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Ulnar nerve
D) Radial nerve
Q3) The muscles that would act on the forearm to neutralize forearm supination would be which of the following muscles?
A) Triceps and pronator teres
B) Pronator teres and pronator quadratus
C) Brachialis and brachioradialis
D) Triceps and anconeus
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Q1) The PT plan of care directs you to do ISOM strengthening of the wrist extensors in a shortened position.To do this you would place the wrist in which of the following positions?
A) Neutral
B) Flexion
C) Extension
D) Any of the above would be correct.
Q2) Which wrist muscle is the direct antagonist of the palmaris longus?
A) Flexor carpi ulnaris
B) Extensor carpi ulnaris
C) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
D) Pronator quadratus
Q3) The ligament that attaches to the styloid process of the radius and to the scaphoid and trapezium bones is the
A) radial collateral ligament.
B) ulnar collateral ligament.
C) dorsal radiocarpal ligament.
D) interosseous membrane.
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Q1) A person with inflammation in the carpal tunnel could have weakness in any of the following muscles EXCEPT the
A) extensor digitorum.
B) flexor digitorum superficialis.
C) flexor digitorum profundus.
D) abductor pollicis brevis.
Q2) Which muscle does NOT make up the anatomical snuffbox?
A) Abductor pollicis brevis
B) Extensor pollicis brevis
C) Extensor pollicis longus
D) Abductor pollicis longus
Q3) Your patient had trauma to the ulnar nerve and cannot actively abduct and adduct her fingers.You note weakness of which of the following muscles as a result of this?
A) Lumbricales three and four
B) Opponens digiti minimi
C) Dorsal and palmar interossei
D) Flexor digiti minimi
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Q1) Normal ROM for mouth opening in an adult would be which of the following?
A) One finger between the upper and lower teeth
B) Half a finger between the upper and lower teeth
C) Two to three fingers between the upper and lower teeth
D) Four fingers between the upper and lower teeth
Q2) Which cranial nerve is involved if your client has sensory loss to the face?
A) Cranial nerve V
B) Cranial nerve VI
C) Cranial nerve VII
D) A and C
Q3) Protraction is primarily achieved by which of the following muscles?
A) Lateral pterygoid
B) Medial pterygoid
C) Masseter
D) A and B
Q4) All of the following muscles are prime movers in mandibular elevation EXCEPT the A) lateral pterygoid.
B) medial pterygoid.
C) temporalis.
D) masseter.

Page 16
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Q1) The quadratus lumborum is a prime mover in which of the following trunk motions?
A) Trunk flexion
B) Compression of abdominal contents
C) Trunk extension
D) Lateral bending
Q2) The posteriorly located muscles that primarily serve to extend,laterally bend,and rotate the head are called the
A) erector spinae muscles.
B) hyoid muscles.
C) prevertebral muscles.
D) suboccipital muscles.
Q3) A spinal pathology characterized by chronic inflammation of the vertebral column and SI joints is which of the following?
A) Spondylosis
B) Stenosis
C) Scoliosis
D) Ankylosing spondylitis
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Q1) The most inferior tip of the sternum is called the A) xiphoid process.
B) manubrium.
C) demifacet.
D) tubercle.
Q2) Which muscles originate on the rib above and insert on the rib below and serve to elevate the ribs?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Diaphragm
D) Pectoralis major
Q3) During inspiration,air moves into the lungs due to which of the following explanations?
A) The size of the thoracic cavity decreases,and the air pressure inside decreases.
B) The size of the thoracic cavity increases,and the air pressure inside decreases.
C) Gravity allows it to flow from the nose down into the lungs.
D) None of the above explains why this happens.
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Q1) The muscle groups activated when you have a patient do a supine posterior pelvic tilt are the
A) hip flexors and trunk flexors.
B) hip flexors and trunk extensors.
C) hip extensors and trunk flexors.
Q2) The rotation of the pelvis when the left foot begins the swing phase in gait is
A) anterior left rotation.
B) posterior left rotation.
C) anterior right rotation.
D) posterior right rotation.
Q3) The supporting ligament of the symphysis pubis that attaches to the pubic tubercles is the
A) sacrospinous ligament.
B) iliolumbar ligament.
C) inferior pubic ligament.
D) superior pubic ligament.
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Q1) The gluteus minimus is a prime mover in which hip motion?
A) Flexion
B) Lateral rotation
C) Medial rotation
D) Adduction
Q2) All of the hamstring muscles are innervated by the sciatic nerve EXCEPT the
A) long head of biceps femoris.
B) short head of biceps femoris.
C) semitendinosus.
D) semimembranosus.
Q3) The BEST position to stretch the tensor fascia latae muscle is which of the following?
A) Hip flexion
B) Hip extension
C) Hip adduction and extension
D) Hip abduction and extension
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Q1) The bony landmark of the tibia that comprises the proximal medial end is called the A) medial malleolus.
B) medial condyle.
C) medial tubercle.
D) tibial tuberosity.
Q2) You are asked to instruct your client in eccentric strengthening of the hamstring muscles.The BEST instruction is
A) standing,slowly flex the knee.
B) standing,slowly extend the knee from a flexed position.
C) supine,slide the heel toward the hip.
D) side-lying,slowly extend the top knee from a flexed position.
Q3) Which muscle has its origin at the linea aspera,runs medially,and inserts at the tibial tuberosity?
A) Sartorius
B) Rectus femoris
C) Vastus intermedialis
D) Vastus medialis
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Q1) Shin splints is an overuse syndrome that can be caused by which of the following?
A) Sports that involve repetitive jumping
B) Running on tiptoes
C) Running on hard surfaces
D) Any of the above
Q2) If a patient has damage to the nerve supplying the anterior compartment of the lower leg,you would expect to focus efforts on strengthening which group of muscles?
A) Ankle evertors
B) Ankle plantar flexors
C) Toe flexors
D) Ankle dorsiflexors
Q3) Which muscle has its origin on the lateral tibia and interosseus membrane and inserts on the first cuneiform and first metatarsal?
A) Anterior tibialis
B) Posterior tibialis
C) Extensor hallucis longus
D) Extensor digitorum longus
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Q1) Causes of poor posture can be which of the following?
A) Habit
B) Congenital malformation
C) Paralysis of key postural muscles
D) Any of the above can be a cause of poor posture.
Q2) The antigravity muscles are considered to be all of the following EXCEPT the
A) hip and knee extensors.
B) trunk rotators.
C) neck extensors.
D) ankle pronators and supinators.
Q3) Pressure on the vertebral discs is greatest in which of the following positions?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying
C) Seated
D) Standing upright
Q4) Which two spinal curves are considered to be the secondary (antigravity)curves?
A) Cervical and thoracic
B) Thoracic and sacral
C) Cervical and lumbar
D) Lumbar and sacral

23
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Q1) The term used to describe the activity that occurs between the time of heel strike of one extremity and the heel strike of that same extremity is
A) double support.
B) stride length.
C) gait cycle.
D) cadence.
Q2) A verbal cue that you could give a patient with poor balance to improve their gait safety is
A) increase the cadence.
B) decrease the step length.
C) increase the width of walking base.
D) B and C
Q3) When pain is present in the leg,which phase of the gait cycle is shortened?
A) Preswing
B) Midswing
C) Swing
D) Stance
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