Biology with Physiology Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Biology with Physiology is an in-depth course that explores the fundamental principles of biology, with a particular emphasis on the structure and function of living organisms at the physiological level. Students examine cellular processes, genetics, and the organization of life, progressing into an exploration of how different biological systems operate and interact to maintain homeostasis in animals and plants. The course covers major physiological systems such as the nervous, endocrine, respiratory, circulatory, digestive, and excretory systems, integrating key concepts of molecular biology, biochemistry, and anatomy to provide a comprehensive understanding of organismal function and adaptation. Through laboratory work and critical analysis, students develop practical skills and scientific reasoning essential for further study or careers in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Biology Today and Tomorrow with Physiology 4th Edition by Cecie Starr
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28 Chapters
3839 Verified Questions
3839 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Invitation to Biology
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101 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are organisms within the domain eukarya with one exception.Select the exception.
A) bacteria.
B) animals.
C) protists.
D) fungi.
E) plants.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following organisms is a multi-celled producer?
A) an oak tree
B) Candida, a pathogenic fungus
C) E. coli, a common intestinal bacterium
D) a Siberian tiger
E) more than one of these
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Molecules of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hydrophobic molecules are ____ water.
A) attracted by
B) absorbed by
C) repelled by
D) mixed with
E) polarized by
Answer: C
Q2) Large polymers are formed from smaller sub-units by what type of reaction?
A) oxidation
B) reduction
C) condensation
D) hydrolysis
E) decarboxylation
Answer: C
Q3) the bond between the NaCl
A)hydrogen
B)ionic
C)covalent
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) What cellular structure assembles amino acids into polypeptides?
A) Golgi bodies
B) mitochondria
C) ribosomes
D) centrioles
E) lysosomes
Answer: B
Q2) DNA
Answer: F
Q3) The relative impermeability of membranes to water soluble molecules is a result of
A) the nonpolar nature of water.
B) the presence of large proteins that extend through both sides of membranes.
C) the presence of inorganic salt crystals scattered through some membranes.
D) the presence of cellulose and waxes.
E) the presence of phospholipids in the lipid bilayer.
Answer: E
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Energy and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process by which a lysosome expels its contents into the extracellular environment.
Q2) The enzyme that breaks down ethanol is alcohol
A) dehydrogenase.
B) oxidase.
C) peroxidase.
D) catalase.
E) protease.
Q3) The sodium-potassium pump is used in A) facilitated diffusion.
B) simple diffusion.
C) active transport.
D) osmosis.
E) bulk flow.
Q4) molecule remaining at the end of a reaction
Q5) phosphate-group transfer
Q6) attaching a phosphate group by forming a higher energy bond
Q7) often a vitamin or mineral that improves enzyme functioning
Page 6
Q8) This process explains the movement of molecules against their concentration gradient.
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Chapter 5: Capturing and Releasing Energy
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many ATP molecules (net yield)are produced per molecule of glucose during glycolysis?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 36
E) 38
Q2) Which of the following molecules is (are)formed at the end of the electron transfer process?
A) ATP only
B) NADPH only
C) ATP and NADPH
D) NADP+
E) ATP and NADP+
Q3) Which of the following generates the most energy in the form of ATP?
A) aerobic respiration
B) photosynthesis
C) alcoholic fermentation
D) lactate fermentation
E) all generate the same amount, but through different means
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Chapter 6: DNA Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common source of DNA mutation is
A) cigarette smoke
B) UV light
C) errors in DNA replication
D) errors in protein synthesis
E) pesticides on the food we eat
Q2) What are the length of DNA from a single human cell?
A) 2 nanonmeters
B) 2 micrometers
C) 2 millimeters
D) 2 centimeters
E) 2 meters
Q3) breakdown products of this mutagen binds irreversibly to DNA
Q4) The DNA-histone complex is most analogous to
A) a pearl necklace.
B) a waterproof watch.
C) a microwave oven.
D) the gears on a bicycle.
E) a flashlight.
Q5) this mutagen causes dimers to form
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Chapter 7: Gene Expression and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nucleotide forms the tail of a completed messenger RNA transcript?
A) adenine
B) thymine
C) cytosine
D) guanine
E) a combination of more than one of these
Q2) Which of the letters in the genetic code are most important for the translation of many amino acids?
A) the first one
B) the first two
C) the last two
D) the last one
E) all three are equally important for all amino acids
Q3) A Barr body exists for the purpose of
A) protein dosage compensation.
B) insuring fertilization.
C) blocking the activity of the Y chromosome.
D) turning on the SRY gene.
E) activating master genes.
Q4) The DNA sequence AAC would pair with this codon.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: How Cells Reproduce
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following cells would not proceed past G??
A) most skin cells
B) most liver cells
C) most intestinal cells
D) most red blood cells
E) most nerve cells
Q2) Meiosis in a diploid organism typically results in the production of
A) two diploid cells.
B) four diploid cells.
C) four haploid cells.
D) two haploid cells.
E) one triploid cell.
Q3) Which of these is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction?
A) only half of the parent's genes are passed on to offspring
B) less genetic diversity in offspring
C) more rapid reproductive rate
D) none of these are disadvantages of asexual reproduction
E) all of these are disadvantages of asexual reproduction
Q4) nuclear division
Q5) when DNA is replicated
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amniocentesis is
A) a surgical means of repairing deformities.
B) a form of chemotherapy that modifies or inhibits gene expression or the function of gene product.
C) used in prenatal diagnosis to detect chromosomal mutations and genetic disorders in embryos.
D) a form of gene replacement therapy.
E) all of these.
Q2) In the figure above,how many plants would have white flowers and short stems?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 9
E) 16
Q3) What best explains why some organisms 'breed true" for certain traits?
A) they have identical alleles for these traits
B) their parents had the same phenotype
C) both alleles for the trait are on the same chromosome
D) their genotypes match their phenotypes
E) they are heterozygous for these traits
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Chapter 10: Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the DNA sequence recognized by EcoRI,where is the cut made?
A) after the G
B) between the two As
C) between the two Ts
D) after the second T
E) after the C
Q2) What technology using bacteria is used to genetically engineer plants?
A) plasmid vectoring
B) DNA profiling
C) whole genome sequencing
D) SNPing
E) PCR
Q3) What proteins do the APOE gene code for?
A) lipoproteins
B) surface antigens
C) myofilaments
D) hydrolytic enzymes
E) nucleases
Q4) collections of DNA fragments produced by restriction enzymes and incorporated into cloning vectors
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Chapter 11: Evidence of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) How much more powerful than an atomic bomb was the impact of the asteroid that created the Barringer Crater in Arizona?
A) 10 times
B) 15 times
C) 100 times
D) 150 times
E) 1000 times
Q2) Whose view on the geological formation of the Earth is most accepted by modern geologists?
A) Lyell's
B) Cuvier's
C) Aristotle's
D) Lamarck's
E) Malthus's
Q3) half life is 5,370 years
Q4) Change in the line of descent of a species.
Q5) trilobites evolved
Q6) Pangea breaks up
Q7) Wallace
Q8) bees and butterflies appear
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Chapter 12: Processes of Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) prairie grouse females choose males to mate with that have the most intricate dance and make the loudest thumping noise with their chests
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a condition of genetic equilibrium in a population?
A) no mutations in the population
B) the population is small
C) the population is isolated
D) mating is random
E) all of these ARE conditions of genetic equilibrium in a population
Q3) If a population speciates in the absence of a physical barrier it is known as
A) sympatric speciation.
B) disruptive selection.
C) directional selection.
D) hybrid sterility.
E) allopatric speciation.
Q4) often follows extinction or the exploitation of a new habitat by a new species
Q5) this type of isolation is most closely related to allopatric speciation
Q6) the grouping of species on the basis of shared characteristics
Q7) diagram that summarizes how a group of species evolved
Q8) lineage that rapidly diversifies into several new species
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Chapter 13: Early Life Forms and the Viruses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Four of the five answers listed below are related by a common association.Select the EXCEPTION.
A) archaea
B) methanogens
C) photoautotroph
D) halophiles
E) thermophiles
Q2) The pathway on the left is named for what is happening in the figure labeled with letter ____.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q3) Which of the following forms of Plasmodium infects human red blood cells?
A) merozoites
B) gametocytes
C) cysts
D) sporozoites
E) spores
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Chapter 14: Plants and Fungi
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Bryophytes have a short-lived sporophyte phase.
B) Bryophytes lack true leaves and stems but possess true roots.
C) Zygotes of bryophytes are released into the environment after their formation.
D) Bryophytes do not reproduce asexually.
E) Bryophytes produce male and female gametophytes that are identical in appearance.
Q2) Ginkgo extracts have been used in the treatment of
A) Parkinson's disease.
B) Alzheimer's disease.
C) cystic fibrosis.
D) sickle cell disease.
E) malaria.
Q3) general group of plants that form their seeds on the surface of ovules
Q4) gametophyte is the dominant part of their life cycle
Q5) meiosis occurs within the sporophyte
Q6) gametophyte is independent and short-lived; sporophyte is dominant part of life cycle
Q7) general group that produces seeds with endosperm food reserve
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Animal Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Reef-building polyps get their sugars from mutualistic
A) green algae.
B) cyanobacteria.
C) dinoflagellates.
D) euglenoids.
E) planarians.
Q2) most likely closest ancestor to H.neanderthalensis and H.sapiens
Q3) This mammal has forward facing eyes,can rotate its front limbs 360 degrees,nails instead of claws,and hair.This animal is
A) an orangutan.
B) a rat.
C) a lemur.
D) a bird.
E) more than one of these.
Q4) All primates have both grasping feet and hands except A) humans.
B) chimpanzees.
C) new world monkeys.
D) lemurs.
E) old world monkeys.
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Chapter 16: Population Ecology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The age-structure diagram for rapidly growing populations
A) is in the form of a pyramid.
B) is characterized by a large percentage of the population in the post-reproductive years.
C) has a very broad base, showing a large number of young.
D) has about equal distribution among all age groups.
E) is in the form of a pyramid and has a very broad base showing a large number of young.
Q2) In which demographic model is population growth the fastest?
A) pre-industrial
B) transitional
C) industrial
D) postindustrial
E) transformational
Q3) a necessary resource,the depletion of which halts population growth
Q4) the number of organisms of a particular population in a given area
Q5) Elephants,humans,and dogs all fit into this model
Q6) Long life spans,few offspring,extended care of young
Q7) the birth rate minus the death rate
Q8) the United States has the biggest one of these
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Chapter 17: Communities and Ecosystems
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Sample Questions
Q1) spotted owls eating mice
Q2) Which of the following is NOT dependent on the others as a food supply?
A) carnivores
B) herbivores
C) producers
D) detritivores
E) decomposers
Q3) primary consumers
Q4) The interaction in which one species benefits and the second species is neither harmed nor benefited is
A) mutualism.
B) parasitism.
C) commensalism.
D) competition.
E) predation.
Q5) a zebra grazing on savanna grass
Q6) Lyme disease is caused by a bacterium carried by a tick.The disease is rarely ever fatal but can persist for long periods of time.
Q7) primary consumer
Q8) second trophic level
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Chapter 18: The Biosphere and Human Effects
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following species is NOT threatened or endangered?
A) ivory-billed woodpecker
B) Western prairie orchid
C) Texas blind salamander
D) red imported fire ants
E) all of these species are threatened or endangered
Q2) What percentage of the earth is covered by deserts?
A) 7%
B) 12%
C) 18%
D) 20%
E) 26%
Q3) Name two factors that will influence the composition of aquatic communities.
Q4) Which of the following is the greatest threat to most species survival?
A) overharvesting
B) pollution
C) habitat loss
D) oceanic desalinization
E) none of these is a threat to species survival
Q5) most extensive biome
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Chapter 19: Animal Tissues and Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) moves body parts
Q2) Most epidermal cells are ___.
A) melanocytes
B) keratinocytes
C) collagenocytes
D) phagocytes
E) erythrocytes
Q3) Which of the following substances is released by an endocrine gland?
A) mucus
B) hormones
C) saliva
D) milk
E) tears
Q4) Which organ system delivers nutrients and oxygen to the cells?
A) respiratory
B) urinary
C) digestive
D) lymphatic
E) circulatory
Q5) Prolonged exposure to __________ can lead to hypothermia.
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Chapter 20: How Animals Move
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Sample Questions
Q1) a tapeworm has this type of skeleton
Q2) Why are girls less likely than boys to suffer from Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
A) girls have less testosterone than boys
B) they are protected as heterozygotes
C) they do not have a Y chromosome
D) girls are NOT less likely to suffer from Duchenne muscular dystrophy than boys
E) a combination of more than one of the first three answers is correct
Q3) In clinical studies,nutritional supplements that block the activity of myostatin had which of the following effects?
A) increased muscle mass in both homozygotes and heterozygotes
B) increased muscle mass in homozygotes only
C) increased muscle mass in heterozygotes
D) reduced muscle mass in both heterozygotes and homozygotes
E) the nutritional supplements had on effect at all
Q4) When a new molecule of ATP binds to the _____ head,the cross-bridge between actin and myosin _____.
Q5) of all of these,the largest unit
Q6) In the viral disease,_____,motor neurons are destroyed.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Circulation and Respiration
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Sample Questions
Q1) Plasma is responsible for transporting A) nutrients.
B) wastes.
C) signaling molecules.
D) various proteins.
E) all of these.
Q2) An average person has approximately ___ liters of blood in their bodies.
A) 1.5
B) 2.5
C) 3.5
D) 4.5
E) 5.5
Q3) The structure labeled "G" is the A) aorta.
B) pulmonary vein.
C) pulmonary artery.
D) inferior vena cava.
E) superior vena cava.
Q4) structure not found in the human respiratory system
Q5) the windpipe
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Chapter 22: Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) set of immune defenses tailored to specific pathogens
A)innate immunity
B)antibody-mediated immunity
C)adaptive immunity
D)cell-mediated immunity
E)autoimmunity
Q2) The cell-mediated immune response is most effective against
A) cancer cells.
B) viral infected cells.
C) bacteria circulating in the blood.
D) cancer cells and viral infected cells.
E) bacteria circulating in the blood and viral infected cells.
Q3) Antihistamines relieve allergy symptoms by
A) inhibiting the release of histamines and cytokines.
B) binding directly to histamines.
C) destroying mast cells before they can produce histamines.
D) binding to the allergens.
E) stimulating effector T cells to produce more cytokines.
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Chapter 23: Digestion and Excretion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT true of kwashiorkor?
A) it is the result of a diet poor in fatty acids
B) symptoms include brittle hair
C) symptoms include muscle loss and fatigue
D) symptoms include an enlarged liver
E) all of these are true of kwashiorkor.
Q2) The large intestine
A) contains bacteria that makes vitamins we need.
B) absorbs water that was not absorbed by the small intestine.
C) concentrates indigestible material into feces.
D) absorbs water that was not absorbed by the small intestine and concentrates indigestible material into feces.
E) does all of these.
Q3) Which molecule is our primary source of energy?
A) protein
B) fatty acids
C) carbohydrates
D) nucleic acids
E) triglycerides
Q4) the process essential for pH homeostasis
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Chapter 24: Neural Control and the Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major relay station of the brain is the A) thalamus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) midbrain.
D) pons.
E) medulla oblongata.
Q2) A brief reversal of the electric gradient across the plasma membrane is called
A) a threshold potential.
B) an action potential.
C) a reverse potential.
D) a resting potential.
E) an ionic potential.
Q3) The ____ of the eye is a tissue that is densely packed with photoreceptors.In the above diagram of the eye,which letter identifies it?
A) lens; A
B) vitreous body; C
C) retina; C
D) sclera; A
E) cornea; D
Q4) unevenly curved cornea
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldosterone is most similar in its effect to what other hormone?
A) calcitonin
B) insulin
C) cortisol
D) anti-diuretic hormone
E) growth hormone
Q2) Acromegaly is the result of excessive secretion of which of the following by adults?
A) mineralocorticoid
B) glucocorticoid
C) thyroxine
D) testosterone
E) growth hormone
Q3) This gland produces a hormone that regulates metabolism and has roles in growth and development.
Q4) posterior lobe of pituitary
Q5) This hormone induces protein synthesis and cell division in young animals.
Q6) The gland at letter "C" is the __________.
Q7) Seasonal affective disorder
Q8) The gland at letter "D" is the __________.
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is NOT directly required for successful reproduction?
A) ovary
B) oviduct
C) clitoris
D) vagina
E) uterus
Q2) Which of the following is an extraembryonic tissue that burrows into and thus attaches to maternal tissues?
A) the amnion
B) the yolk sac
C) the chorion
D) the blastocyst protein coat
E) the inner cell mass
Q3) In gamete formation in humans,what does the increased release of estrogens cause?
A) the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus
B) the maturation of ovarian follicles
C) the completion of meiosis I
D) the thickening of the uterine lining
E) more than one of these is caused by the release of estrogens
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Chapter 27: Plant Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure at letter "E" is properly called
A) stigma.
B) holes.
C) openings.
D) veins.
E) stomata.
Q2) thickened portions of underground stolons
Q3) This tissue is for structural support.
Q4) seeds with one cotyledon
Q5) Which of the following is true of movement through the phloem?
A) movement through phloem is through live cells
B) movement between sieve tube members is via plasmodesmata
C) movement through the phloem is not necessarily up
D) the phloem cells through which movement occurs are non-nuclear
E) all of these are true about movement through the phloem
Q6) palisade mesophyll
Q7) veins usually parallel
Q8) a lily is one of these
Q10) companion cells Page 29
Q9) plant tissue involved in regeneration following a wound
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Chapter 28: Plant Reproduction and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is colony collapse disorder (CCD)a problem for all of us?
A) the pathogen responsible for CCD can infect multiple hosts
B) the decline in honey production could cause our economy to collapse
C) bees are the main pollinators of about half of our agricultural crops
D) actually, it's not-- there are other pollinators that can take over for the bees
E) more than one of these (a through c) is a problem for all of us
Q2) Which of the following is NOT caused by the positive feedback loop of ethylene action?
A) fruit ripening
B) leaf abscission
C) germination
D) cell expansion
E) all of these are caused by the positive feedback loop of ethylene action
Q3) In a eudicot,what is the fate of the cotyledons?
A) they shrivel up and fall off the seedling
B) they become the primary leaves
C) they are incorporated into the stem
D) they stay in the seed and never emerge
E) they become the embryonic root
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