Biological Sciences
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Biological Sciences is an expansive field that explores the complexity of life, from molecular mechanisms and cellular structures to the interactions of organisms within ecosystems. This course provides a foundational understanding of the principles of biology, including genetics, evolution, physiology, ecology, and biodiversity. Students will learn about the methodologies used in biological research, develop analytical skills through hands-on laboratory experience, and examine the relevance of biological sciences to health, environmental issues, and technological advancements. By the end of the course, students will possess a broad perspective on how living systems function and interact, preparing them for advanced study or careers in science and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Living in a Microbial World 1st Edition by Bruce Hofkin
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208 Verified Questions
208 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Living in a Microbial World
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells have the ability to maintain internal conditions within ranges compatible with life. This ability is called:
A) homeostasis.
B) evolution.
C) metabolism.
D) environmental response.
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following statements about model organisms is true?
A) They tend to be slow growing.
B) They tend to have unique biological properties, very different from other organisms.
C) They tend to reproduce quickly.
D) They tend to be more complex and harder to study than other living things.
E) They are used regularly in applied science, but not in basic science.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following are not composed of cells?
A) Bacteria and archaea
B) Fungi and protozoa
C) Viruses and prions
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enzymes function by ________, which speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction.
A) increasing the stability of the reactants
B) multiplying the number of active sites on the reactants
C) lowering the energy of activation
D) increasing the energy of activation
E) keeping the pH constant
Answer: C
Q2) What factors determine if a substance will or will not dissolve in water?
Answer: Water is a highly polar molecule, because of the polar covalent bonds between oxygen and hydrogen atoms. These polar covalent bonds result in partial charges on each atom in a water molecule; partial negative on the oxygen and partial positive on the hydrogen atoms. These partial charges can attract charges, either partial or full, on other molecules, allowing the water to hydrogen bond with these charged molecules. Consequently, any molecule with charges (ionic compounds or compounds consisting of largely polar covalent bonds) will hydrogen bond with water, and the collective force of many hydrogen bonds causes the molecule to dissolve. Molecules that are composed of mainly nonpolar covalent bonds lack charges, and therefore cannot hydrogen bond with water. They therefore do not dissolve in water.
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Chapter 3: The Cell: Where Life Begins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organelles found in eukaryotic cells is most likely to have been acquired by endosymbiosis?
A) the nucleus
B) the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) the Golgi apparatus
D) the lysosome
E) the mitochondrion
Answer: E
Q2) As cells increase in size:
A) their surface/volume ratio increases, and they become more metabolically efficient.
B) their surface/volume ratio decreases, and they become more metabolically efficient.
C) their surface/volume ratio increases, and they become less metabolically efficient.
D) their surface/volume ratio decreases, and they become less metabolically efficient.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: A Field Guide to the Microorganisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true about archaea?
A) They are in the domain Bacteria.
B) They have cells walls identical to those of bacteria.
C) They have eukaryotic cells.
D) They often are found in extreme environments.
E) All known archaea require oxygen for survival.
Q2) Which of the following is true about photosynthetic bacteria?
A) They are the most primitive of all bacteria.
B) Photosynthesis appears to have evolved several separate times.
C) Photosynthetic bacteria all appear to be closely related.
D) A comparison of rRNA genes in different lineages of photosynthetic bacteria would reveal that the genes are almost identical in all lineages.
E) All photosynthetic bacteria appear to have evolved relatively recently.
Q3) Which of the following are the most closely related?
A) Two animals that are in the same phylum
B) Two plants that are in the same class
C) Two fungi that are in the same order
D) Two bacteria that are in the same family
Q4) What are mycorrhizial relationships? Provide an example.
Q5) How are rRNA genes used to deduce evolutionary relationships?
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Chapter 5: The Microbiology of History and the History of Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are Koch's Postulates? Explain how they are used to determine the cause of a particular disease.
Q2) Why is a large population of hosts more important for the maintenance of a "crowd disease" than it is for other types of diseases?
Q3) A serious disease outbreak that affects a large portion of the world is called a(n): A) epidemic.
B) pandemic.
C) endemic.
D) zoonosis.
E) nosocomial infection.
Q4) The principle of attenuation discovered by Pasteur had important implications for: A) antibiotic development.
B) vaccine development.
C) aseptic surgery.
D) pure culture technique.
E) the development of variolation as a defense against smallpox.
Q5) What is the danger associated with agricultural monocultures?
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Chapter 6: Microbial Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protein synthesis occurs on ________, which are composed of proteins and ________.
A) ribosomes; mRNA
B) operons; mRNA
C) promoters; rRNA
D) ribosomes; rRNA
E) active sites; DNA
Q2) Explain how RNA differs in structure from DNA.
Q3) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Individuals of the same species have the same genes, but may have different alleles of those genes.
B) Individuals of the same species have different genes but the same alleles.
C) Individuals of the same species have the same genes and alleles as each other.
D) Individuals of the same species have different genes and alleles from each other.
Q4) Identify and describe three distinct ways in which genetic recombination occurs in bacteria.
Q5) How does "proofreading" by DNA polymerase occur during DNA replication?
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8
Chapter 7: Metabolism and Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) A photoautotroph is a microorganism that uses ________ as its carbon source and ________ as its energy source.
A) organic molecules; organic molecules
B) inorganic molecules; organic molecules
C) CO<sub>2 </sub>; inorganic molecules
D) CO<sub>2</sub>; sunlight
Q2) A bacterial species never uses oxygen as a final electron acceptor. However, it has the enzymes necessary to degrade toxic forms of oxygen. Such a bacterial species is an example of:
A) an obligate aerobe.
B) an obligate anaerobe.
C) a facultative anaerobe.
D) an aerotolerant anaerobe.
E) a microaerophile.
Q3) When cells catabolize biological molecules for the purposes of ATP production, energy in the biological molecule is released in a large number of small steps, rather than in a single large step. Why is this necessary?
Q4) Describe how ATP is produced in electron transport.
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Microbial Evolution: the Origin and Diversity of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following facts provides evidence for endosymbiosis?
A) Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA, which replicates independently of the nuclear DNA.
B) Ribosomes in mitochondria and chloroplasts have a structure similar to bacterial ribosomes.
C) Chloroplasts have certain gene sequences in their DNA, which indicate a relationship with cyanobacteria.
D) Both "a" and "b" above provide such evidence.
E) All of the above provide such evidence.
Q2) One hypothesis of viral origin suggests that viruses began as parasitic prokaryotes that gradually lost most of their genetic information and ultimately became completely dependent on host cells. This hypothesis is called:
A) the regressive hypothesis.
B) the escaped gene hypothesis.
C) the coevolved hypothesis.
D) the transposon hypothesis.
E) the parasitic hypothesis.
Q3) Explain the rationale for the "RNA world" hypothesis.
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Chapter 9: An Ecologists Guide to Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider two organisms, X and Y, which are involved in a type of ecological interaction. Which of the following statements is false?
A) If X and Y are mutualists, both organisms have a positive effect on the growth of the other.
B) If X is a commensal organism on Y, X has a positive effect on Y, but Y has no effect on X.
C) If Y is a commensal organism on X, X has a positive effect on Y, but Y has no effect on X.
D) If X and Y are competitors, both organisms have negative effects on each other's growth.
E) If X is a predator and Y is prey, X has a negative effect on Y, but Y has a positive effect on X.
Q2) Why does the addition of extra nutrients into a lake often result in a die-off of fish and other animals?
Q3) Describe why decomposers are so important in ecosystems.
Q4) What exactly is a biofilm? Where are biofilms found?
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Nature of Disease: a Pathogens Perspective
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Sample Questions
Q1) How does our normal flora protect us from some infections by pathogens?
Q2) In terms of how a pathogen might affect a host, which of the following is the correct sequence of events?
A) contamination » disease » infection
B) disease » contamination » infection
C) infection » contamination » disease
D) infection » disease » contamination
E) contamination » infection » disease
Q3) Which of the following is false about exotoxins?
A) Part of the exotoxin called the "A subunit" binds to receptors on the surface of certain host cells.
B) The combined exotoxin (both the A & B subunits) enter the host cell by endocytosis.
C) They may be produced by either Gram-positive or Gram-negative bacteria.
D) They are generally more toxic than endotoxins at low concentration.
E) They are composed of protein.
Q4) Why are symptoms in a host, such as diarrhea in the case of intestinal disease, or sneezing and coughing in the case of respiratory disease, beneficial from the perspective of some pathogens that cause these diseases?
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Host Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antibody type is usually produced in the greatest amount during a humoral reponse?
A) IgA
B) IgD
C) IgM
D) IgE
E) IgG
Q2) Which of the following immune system structures and their associated function is not correct?
A) thymus: maturation of T-cells
B) lymph node: generation of adaptive immune responses in tissues
C) spleen: generation of adaptive immune responses in the blood
D) liver: maturation of B-cells
E) skin: a barrier to entry
Q3) Describe how cells of the innate immune system activate the adaptive immune system under certain circumstances.
Q4) How does HIV reduce immune function?
Q5) In what way can the fever response be used to illustrate the point that response to pathogens can both be protective and harmful?
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Chapter 12: Control of Microbial Growth
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pasteurization:
A) is a technique used to sterilize liquids.
B) relies on high temperature and high pressure to kill microorganisms.
C) can be considered to be a bacteriotatic control measure.
D) selectively kills thermophiles in liquids.
E) selectively kills mesophiles in liquids.
Q2) Which of the following would be most appropriate to reduce microorganisms in a wound?
A) an antiseptic
B) a disinfectant
C) UV Radiation
D) alcohol
E) any sterilization technique
Q3) What is a nosocomial infection?
A) an infection contracted at one's place of work, or at school
B) an infection contracted from an animal
C) an infection contracted from improperly prepared food
D) an infection contracted during a stay in the hospital
E) an infection that a health care worker contracts from a patient
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Epidemiology: Who,
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following types of viruses is antigenic shift most likely?
A) RNA viruses
B) DNA viruses
C) enveloped viruses
D) non-enveloped viruses
E) viruses with a segmented genome
Q2) Which of the following pathogens would most likely be used as a bioterrorism agent?
A) Pathogen A: an obligate anaerobe
B) Pathogen B: an obligate aerobe
C) Pathogen C: a Gram-positive bacterial species
D) Pathogen D: a RNA virus
E) Pathogen E: a spore-former
Q3) Into which category of emergent diseases would dengue be placed?
A) Category 1: invasion of a new host population by a known pathogen
B) Category 2: appearance of a completely new, previously unknown pathogen
C) Category 3: association of a well-known disease with a new pathogen
D) Category 4: increased virulence, or a renewed problem, with a well-known but previously less virulent or well-controlled pathogen
Q4) How can a vaccine program prevent epidemics?
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Chapter 14: The Future Is Here: Microorganisms and Biotechnology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genome analysis of bacteria has revealed:
A) that intracellular pathogens have the largest genomes of all bacteria.
B) nonfastidious bacteria have smaller genomes than fastidious bacteria.
C) that the genomes of different bacteria are remarkably similar.
D) bacteria can, at least on occasion, transfer virulence genes to each other.
Q2) One of the concerns about genetically modified plants is how they might affect wild plants. In what way? Why is this worrisome?
Q3) Which of the following is an important obstacle to the routine use of gene therapy?
A) It has proven difficult to produce recombinant viruses carrying normal copies of a particular human gene.
B) It has proven difficult to get human host cells to express foreign genes in adequate amounts.
C) It has proven difficult to identify the human genes involved in genetic disorders.
D) None of the above is currently an obstacle. Gene therapy is now routine.
E) All of the above are important obstacles.
Q4) What is the polymerase chain reaction? Briefly state how it works.
Q5) What exactly is a DNA library? What is a genomic library?
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Chapter 15: Guess Whos Coming to Dinner: Microorganisms and Food
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Sample Questions
Q1) When baking bread, all of the following steps occur. In which answer are the steps presented in the correct order?
A) yeast is kneaded into dough » loaf is baked » yeast ferments » bread rises
B) loaf is baked » yeast is kneaded into dough » yeast ferments » bread rises
C) yeast is kneaded into dough » yeast ferments » loaf is baked » bread rises
D) loaf is baked » bread rises » yeast is kneaded into dough » yeast ferments
E) yeast is kneaded into dough » yeast ferments » bread rises » loaf is baked
Q2) Probiotics are:
A) any microbially fermented food.
B) food items that are produced by aerobic bacteria.
C) hormones that are produced by bacteria.
D) products that contain living microorganisms, thought to be beneficial.
E) antibiotics added to animal feed to encourage more rapid growth.
Q3) Which of the following is an example of single-cell protein?
A) yogurt
B) cheese
C) Spirulina
D) beer
E) summer sausage
Q4) Provide a biochemical explanation for why bread rises during its production.
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Chapter 16: Better Living With Microorganisms: Industrial and Applied Microbiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If bacteria that have undergone strain improvement are introduced into a natural environment:
A) they will usually outcompete and replace naturally occurring, wild-type strains.
B) they will usually be outcompeted by naturally occurring wild-type strains.
C) they will usually act as predators on naturally occurring wild-type strains.
D) they will usually serve as prey for naturally occurring wild-type strains.
E) they will usually act as commensals with naturally occurring, wild-type strains.
Q2) Metabolites are:
A) the substrate that is converted into a useful product by microorganisms.
B) an intermediate compound in a biochemical pathway, the final product of which is a useful product.
C) the final product in a biochemical pathway.
D) either "a" or "c" above
E) either "b" or "c" above
Q3) Why does compost tend to heat up over time? Why is it beneficial to periodically turn the compost?
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