Biological Sciences
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Biological Sciences is an interdisciplinary course that explores the fundamental principles of life and living organisms. Covering topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and physiology, the course provides a comprehensive understanding of biological processes at the molecular, cellular, organismal, and ecosystem levels. Students will develop skills in scientific inquiry, data analysis, and laboratory techniques, preparing them for advanced study or careers in research, healthcare, biotechnology, environmental management, and related fields. Through lectures, practicals, and project-based learning, the course emphasizes critical thinking and the application of biological concepts to real-world issues.
Recommended Textbook
Integrated Principles of Zoology 16th Edition by Cleveland Hickman Jr
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Chapter 1: Life: Biological Principles and the Science of Zoology
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Q1) The theory of evolution,along with all other theories in science A) has been proven in a mathematical sense.
B) is mere speculation.
C) is testable, tentative, and potentially falsifiable. D) is so powerful that no conceivable evidence could possibly refute it.
Answer: C
Q2) A broad concept in science that is strongly supported by many forms of evidence,is accepted by an overwhelming number of scientists,and has not yet been found to be incorrect is a __________________.
Answer: theory
Q3) Powerful theories that guide a broad range of research are A) scientific models.
B) scientific revolutions.
C) scientific principles.
D) scientific paradigms.
Answer: D
Q4) The appearance of new characteristics at a given level of biological organization is known as emergence,and these characteristics are known as _______ ________.
Answer: emergent properties
3
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Chapter 2: The Origin and Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) A dehydration synthesis reaction is also
A) a condensation reaction.
B) a hydrolysis reaction.
C) an isomeric reaction.
D) a reaction that does not require enzymes.
Answer: A
Q2) The fact that nucleic acids are very complicated molecules suggests that
A) the RNA-first hypothesis is impossible.
B) the protein-first hypothesis is therefore the only plausible hypothesis.
C) no natural system could ever generate them.
D) None of the choices are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) The earliest source of reduced compounds for oxidative metabolism was probably ____________ _____________.
Answer: hydrogen sulfide
Q4) Bacteria contain a single,large molecule of DNA in the ____________ region.
Answer: nucleoid
Q5) The alpha-helix is an example of the _______ structure of a protein.
Answer: secondary
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Chapter 3: Cells As Units of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which occurs during metaphase?
A) Centrioles move to opposite poles
B) Chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell
C) Chromosomes move to opposite poles
D) The nuclear envelope disappears
Answer: B
Q2) Major functions of the plasma membrane do NOT include
A) regulating molecules and ions that pass into and out of the cell.
B) recognizing and communicating between different cells and tissues.
C) maintaining connections between adjacent cells.
D) producing proteins used in construction of the cell.
Answer: D
Q3) Which is the best definition of active transport?
A) Movement of molecules from higher concentration to lower concentration
B) Movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from high water concentration to lower water concentration
C) Movement of molecules from lower concentration to higher concentration
D) Movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Cellular Metabolism
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Q1) Each turn of the Krebs cycle produces
A) 2 NADH, 2 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 2 ATP.
B) 3 NADH, 1 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 1 ATP.
C) 1 NADH, 3 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 2 ATP.
D) 3 NADH, 2 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 1 ATP.
Q2) The second law of thermodynamics states that
A) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change into matter
B) Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another
C) Energy organizes in a closed system and moves toward increasing order
D) Energy dissipates in a closed system and moves toward increasing disorder
Q3) Living organisms contain stored energy in the form of chemical compounds.When organisms die,what happens to this stored energy?
A) All molecules immediately degrade into basic elements
B) All chemicals immediately lose their high-energy bonds
C) Cells lose their organization over time and macromolecules break down because there is no longer an input of energy to maintain an organized state
D) Chemical compounds remain intact and ready to start up again unless digested by a consumer or decomposer
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Chapter 5: Genetics: a Review
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a cross of parents with AA and aa genotypes for a particular trait,F<sub>1</sub> offspring would show which genotype(s)?
A) AA and Aa
B) AA, Aa, and aa
C) AA only
D) Aa only
Q2) Which RNA molecules carry genetic information away from DNA when it is needed for the construction of a protein?
A) Ribosomal RNA
B) Transfer RNA
C) Messenger RNA
D) Primary mrna transcript
Q3) Which is a correct usage of phenotype and genotype?
A) Phenotype is the cause of genotype
B) Phenotype is restricted to characteristics involving size and color
C) One genotype may produce many phenotypes
D) Two different genotypes may produce the same phenotype
Q4) The most familiar form of aneuploidy in humans results in Down Syndrome or
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Chapter 6: Organic Evolution
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Q1) In the case of Darwin's finches,an ancestral finch species from the mainland arrived on the Galápagos Islands and later evolved into many new species via adaptive radiation.The ancestral finch species apparently did NOT undergo adaptive radiation back on the mainland.What is the most plausible biological explanation?
A) Directional selection works better on islands
B) Competition from many other bird species on the mainland provided stabilizing selection that was absent on the islands
C) The environment on the mainland was completely uniform
D) The founder effect greatly expanded the variation in alleles in the Galápagos finch gene pool
E) The ancestral mainland finch was reproductively isolated
Q2) Birds and insects both have wings,but we do not consider this similarity as evidence of relatedness because
A) bird wings function on different physics principles of lift.
B) the wings are not homologous structures with a common ancestral origin.
C) they did not evolve in the same region or live at the same time period.
D) there is no fossil link between these groups.
Q3) Compare the ideas of phenotypic gradualism with those of punctuated equilibrium.
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Chapter 7: The Reproductive Process
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Q1) Discuss how internal fertilization and the production of shelled eggs were important in the development of animals capable of living on land.
Q2) In mammals,the type of breeding cycle in which the female is receptive to the male only at restricted times of the year is the ________ cycle. The estrous cycle describes mammals that are receptive to mating during brief periods of estrus.
Q3) The _______ undergo the first meiotic division in the production of sperm.
A) Sertoli (sustentacular) cells
B) Primary oocytes
C) Spermatids
D) Primary spermatocytes
E) Spermatogonia
Q4) Reptile and bird eggs have
A) no chorion.
B) no amnion.
C) no extra-embryonic membranes because the young are inside an egg.
D) a placental connection since these are advanced animals.
E) a large yolk to support all early development.
Q5) Contrast the cloaca of birds and reptiles with the vulva of a mammal.
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Chapter 8: Principles of Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) In animals,indirect development
A) occurs only in mammals.
B) lacks a larval stage.
C) involves a larval stage.
D) occurs only when eggs develop without being fertilized.
Q2) Distinguish "germ cells" and "germ layers."
Q3) Superficial cleavage is found in A) amphibians.
B) mammals.
C) sea stars.
D) insects.
Q4) An enterocoelous animal has A) a true coelom.
B) a pseudocoelom.
C) no coelom.
D) a schizocoelom.
Q5) Discuss the significance of Spemann's experiment that demonstrated that every blastomere contains sufficient genetic information for the development of a complete animal.
Q6) Discuss or outline the derivatives of endoderm,mesoderm,and ectoderm.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Architectural Pattern of an Animal
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Q1) Your nose would be considered
A) medial, anterior, and dorsal.
B) medial, anterior, and ventral.
C) medial, posterior, and ventral.
D) lateral, anterior, and ventral.
Q2) Differentiation of a head end (found mainly in bilaterally symmetrical animals)is called _________.
Q3) The grouping of single cells into definite patterns or layers represents the level of organization called the _______ ________ ____ _______.
Q4) A ________ plane divides an animal into right and left halves.
Q5) Blood is an example of a tissue known as
A) connective.
B) circulatory.
C) epithelial.
D) muscular.
Q6) An animal that possesses an ectoderm,mesoderm and endoderm is called
Q7) In animal anatomy,the term that designates the back side of an animal is
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Chapter 10: Taxonomy and Phylogeny of Animals
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Q1) The ability to use biochemical data to form phylogenetic trees is based on the assumption that
A) all life uses the same sequences of DNA.
B) there are no mutations in DNA.
C) amino acids are unrelated to evolution.
D) protein and DNA sequences undergo similar rates of divergence through time.
Q2) Discern what classification and systematization of species means to a taxonomist.
Q3) Zoologists used to refer to animals as "simple'' and "advanced.'' Now it is more scientifically accurate to use
A) "simple'' and "complex,'' since it is the complexity that evolved.
B) "allopatric" and "sympatric,'' since the reproductive isolation of the species is most important.
C) "evolved'' and "un-evolved,'' since everything ties together with evolution.
D) "ancestral'' and "derived,'' since some early forms became very complex and some highly evolved forms are derived from them but lost complex characters and secondarily became more "simple".
Q4) A branching diagram whose branches represent real lineages that occurred in the evolutionary past is called a/an _________ _________.
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Chapter 11: Unicellular Eukaryotes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Protozoans in the genus Trypanosoma cause
A) malaria in both humans and birds.
B) amebic dysentery and intestinal ailments.
C) African sleeping sickness and Chagas disease.
D) birth defects if infecting a woman at the appropriate stage of pregnancy.
E) Toxoplasmosis, often contracted from cats.
Q2) Discuss the molecular evidence that has allowed protozoologists to completely revise our concepts of unicellular eukaryote phylogeny.
Q3) Explain the scientific reasoning behind the reorganization of the "Protozoa." Why is this important?
Q4) Cilia or flagella are resorbed and the Golgi apparatus secretes wall material during A) formation of a contractile vacuole. B) intermediary meiosis. C) conjugation.
D) pseudopod streaming. E) encystment.
Q5) A sporozoan parasite of cats that can cause birth defects in humans is called
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Chapter 12: Sponges and Placozoans
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Q1) Specialized archaeocytes that secrete spongin are
A) collencytes.
B) sclerocytes.
C) choanocytes.
D) spongocytes.
E) lophocytes.
Spongocytes are archeocytes specialized for secreting spongin.
Q2) The water outlet in sponges is known as a/an __________________. The osculum is the outlet for water in sponges.
Q3) About 95% of the sponges belong to the class __________. Members of the class Demospongiae are the most common sponges.
Q4) Thin,epithelial-type cells covering the outer surface of sponges are the
Pinacocytes make up the pinacoderm,the outer cellular layer of a sponge.
Q5) Internal buds of freshwater sponges that can withstand adverse conditions are ____________________.
Gemmules are found in freshwater and a few marine sponges. They are internal buds that withstand harsh environmental conditions.
Q6) Explain the unique attributes of hexactinellids as compared to other sponges.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Radiate Animals
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term "cnidaria" is based on the root words meaning A) stuck in one place.
B) middle glue.
C) little spear.
D) thread bladder.
E) like nettles.
Q2) The unique feature(s)of a cnidarian nervous system is/are
A) vesicles with neurotransmitters located on both sides of the synapse.
B) nerve impulses are transmitted in both directions across a network of nerves.
C) cnidarian nerves lack any myelin surrounding the axons.
D) All of the choices are correct
E) None of the choices are correct
Q3) Throughout most cnidarian groups,the basal or pedal disc serves to A) be the base of the tentacles.
B) attach the cnidarian to the substrate.
C) generate buds.
D) perform extracellular digestion.
E) harbor sensory cells.
Q4) The mesoglea of scyphozoans has ameboid cells and fibers and is called a
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Chapter 14: Acoelomorpha,Platyzoa,and Mesozoa
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Q1) If an individual turbellarian contains organs of both sexes,it is termed ______________ or hermaphroditic.
Q2) Which is NOT a correct association of blood flukes?
A) Schistosoma mansoni-veins of large intestine
B) Schistosoma japonicum-veins of small intestine
C) Schistosoma haematobium-veins of urinary bladder
D) Schistosoma haematobium-least serious
E) Schistosoma japonicum-mild infections, never fatal
Q3) The large posterior attachment organ of the adult monogenean is a/an
A) rhabdite.
B) pilidium.
C) cirrus.
D) hydatid.
E) opisthaptor.
Q4) Rotifers that are "hunters" protect their hard jaws or _____ to seize prey.
A) Mastix
B) Trochal
C) Lorica
D) Trophi
Q5) Most monogeneans are external parasites of ____________.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Polyzoa and Kryptrochozoa
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Q1) Phoronid worms
A) Are relatively large and usually over 30 cm in length
B) Are tube-dwelling marine animals
C) Are most common in deep tropical oceans near thermal vents
D) Spend a lot of time scavenging across the sea floor
E) Are a serious threat to oyster beds
Q2) Why are these groups with diverse lifestyles (some with shells and some without,some colonial and some solitary,etc.)considered together? Be sure to list the structures and behaviors they have in common and discuss their evolutionary relationships.
Q3) Statoblasts are usually formed
A) in the winter.
B) in the spring.
C) in freshwater ectoprocts.
D) anytime the pools begin to dry up.
E) when the colony ages.
Q4) Resistant capsules containing germinative cells formed by freshwater ectoprocts are _____________.
Q5) Explain why ectoprocts and entoprocts are no longer considered in the phylum Bryozoa.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Molluscs
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Q1) Most freshwater clams have a bivalve ___________ stage that attaches to the gills and lives as a parasite for a few weeks.
A) Veliger
B) Trochophore
C) Brachial
D) Miracidia
E) Glochidia
Q2) Some prosobranchs have only one _____________ in their mantle cavity.
A) Shell
B) Foot
C) Gill
D) Radula
E) Tentacle
Q3) Although snails and some other molluscs are hermaphroditic,most molluscs are either male or female,a condition called
A) asexual.
B) sexual.
C) monoecious.
D) dioecious.
E) parthenogenetic.
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Chapter 17: Annelids and Allied Taxa
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Q1) In the earthworm,the typhlosole
A) is the organ of locomotion.
B) increases the absorptive area of the gut.
C) grinds the food.
D) produces secretions during mating.
E) coordinates the contractions of the digestive system.
Q2) A unique feature of the leech nervous system is that
A) leeches have good eyesight.
B) leeches have two "brains"; one anterior and one posterior.
C) they can join their nervous system with the nerves in the host tissue.
D) it only has giant axons that provide fast responses.
E) the nerve ladder and ganglia are all dorsal.
Q3) In contrast to roundworms,how do segmented worms elongate or stretch lengthwise?
A) Contracting the longitudinal muscles
B) Contracting circular muscles
C) Forcibly expanding the circular muscles
D) Forcibly expanding longitudinal muscles
E) Snapping back to original shape of the hard cuticle
Q4) In leeches,a cocoon into which fertilized eggs will be deposited is secreted by the
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Chapter 18: Smaller Ecdysozoans
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Q1) Explain why the Tardigrada and Onychophora are lumped with Arthropoda in the clade Panarthropoda.
Q2) Filarial worms (Wuchereria and Brugia)are transmitted by _________________.
Q3) In what two roundworm parasite cycles do worms get "coughed up" and swallowed in order to complete their cycle?
A) Ascaris and trichina
B) Ascaris and hookworm
C) Elephantiasis and trichina
D) Hookworm and trichina
Q4) Which of these is NOT a nematode?
A) Ascaris
B) Trichinella
C) Wuchereria
D) Hookworm
E) Schistosoma mansoni, a worm that causes schistosomiasis
Q5) Discuss the structure and formation of the noncellular cuticle of nematodes.
Q6) Nematodes have a fluid-filled pseudocoel that serves as a _____________ skeleton.
Q7) Give the reasoning behind the more recent classification of the clades Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoans.
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Chapter 19: Trilobites, Chelicerates, and Myriapods
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Q1) The correct order for layers of ectoskeleton from outside to inside is
A) endocuticle-epicuticle-exocuticle.
B) endocuticle-exocuticle-epicuticle.
C) exocuticle-endocuticle-epicuticle.
D) epicuticle-exocuticle-endocuticle.
E) exocuticle-epicuticle-endocuticle.
Q2) Reproduction in millipedes is
A) external in moist moss or soil.
B) internal and the young are born live.
C) internal and the eggs are abandoned under rocks and rotting logs.
D) internal and eggs are laid in a nest and guarded by the female.
E) by asexual segmentation.
Q3) You are given a large tropical millipede to raise in a humid terrarium lined with soil and leaf litter.What should you feed it?
A) Insects
B) Sliced apples and dead soft plant tissues
C) Freshly cut wood
D) Fresh meat or dog food
E) All of the choices would be food for a millipede
Q4) The parasitic or micropredatory arachnids belong to the order ________.
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Chapter 20: Crustaceans
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Q1) What is the evidence that the major tagmata in crustaceans are not homologous?
Q2) The ancestral larval form of crustaceans is the __________.
Q3) Explain why pentastomids were placed in Ecdysozoa.
Q4) The appendages of a crayfish are examples of serial ___________________.
Q5) What is the function of the green glands in the crayfish?
A) Secrete fluids to aid digestion
B) Increase oxygen absorption for respiration
C) Sensing vibrations in water
D) Reproduction
E) Excretion
Q6) Crustaceans have better-developed sense organs than do the annelids because they have _______ ________ ,delicate projections of cuticle distributed over the body,and especially the mouthparts.
Q7) Why are barnacles considered crustaceans when they are anchored in one place as adults?
Q8) Why is the adaptive diversification of the Crustacea so great while that of other groups,such as the Annelida so much less?
Q9) How does the statocyst work to communicate position to the crayfish?
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Q10) The two joints of the protopod are the ______ ______ and medial endopod.
Chapter 29: Support, Protection, and Movement
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Q1) Describe the philosophy and the strategies used in integrated pest management.
Q2) Discuss hypotheses for the evolution of insect wings.
Q3) The respiratory system in insects consists of specialized air tubes called the
Q4) A male silkworm that locates a female by detecting the odor of her pheromone is using a sensory system located in his A) antennae.
B) abdomen.
C) legs.
D) wings.
E) thorax.
Q5) The study of insects is known as ____________.
Q6) The majority of insects
A) are parasitic.
B) feed on plant juices and tissues.
C) are carnivorous.
D) are omnivorous.
E) are detritivores.
Q7) Provide a biologically reasonable explanation for why insects never exploited the marine environment.
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Chapter 22: Chaetognaths, Echinoderms, and Hemichordates
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Q1) Outline the phylogeny and adaptive diversification of the hemichordates and discuss the latest data of small subunit rRNA supporting a deuterostome phylogeny for this group.
Q2) The ___________ ___________ was formerly thought to be a notochord.
Q3) The most active of all echinoderms are the
A) sea urchins.
B) sea stars.
C) sea cucumbers.
D) brittle stars.
E) crinoids.
Q4) ________ ________ is a connective tissue that allows echinoderms to hold certain postures for long periods without straining muscles.
Q5) During metamorphosis of sea stars,the left side of the larva becomes the oral surface of the adult,and the right side becomes the ___________ surface.
Q6) Small projections between the ossicles of sea stars that function in respiration are the ______________.
Q7) The Class Enteropneusta are also known as __________________.
24
Q8) On the inner end of each tube foot is a muscular sac called an ______________.
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Chapter 23: Chordates
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Q1) The urochordates are
A) called tunicates.
B) marine animals.
C) sessile as adults, but tadpole-like as larvae.
D) often abundant in intertidal organisms.
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) Unlike most invertebrate phyla,the nerve cord of chordates is single,tubular,and located ___________ to the alimentary canal.
Q3) All chordates have
A) a single, dorsal, tubular, nerve cord.
B) a ventral heart.
C) pharyngeal slits.
D) a postanal tail as some stage.
E) all of the choices are chordate features.
Q4) The ostracoderms
A) are the adult form of the ammocoete.
B) were the first vertebrate to have jaws.
C) are an extinct group of heavily armored, jawless fish.
D) were the first fish with paired fins that led to paired appendages.
E) were the first jawed animals.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Fishes
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Q1) Hagfishes
A) are entirely fresh water animals.
B) are parasitic.
C) have a complex but well-researched reproductive cycle.
D) generate enormous quantities of slime if disturbed.
E) All of the choices are correct
Q2) The lateral-line of a shark is used for
A) Detecting and locating objects and moving animals in the water.
B) Excretion of urea and water.
C) Detecting odors.
D) Secreting mucus as a swimming lubricant.
E) Detecting the heat of prey animals.
Q3) The gas gland of the teleost swim bladder contains a remarkable network of blood capillaries called the ___________ _____________.
Q4) The large spiracles on the top of the head of skates and rays is for
A) air intake for respiration.
B) water intake to prevent clogging the gills.
C) detection of bioelectric fields from prey buried in the sea bottom.
D) detection of chemical odors in the water.
Q5) The gills of bony fishes are covered with a movable flap called the __________.
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Early Tetrapods and Modern Amphibians
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Q1) A frog skeleton
A) has a vertebral column consisting of only nine vertebrae and a urostyle.
B) has a highly flexible vertebral column, an adaptation for transmitting force from the hindlimbs of the body.
C) is, like that of crossopterygian, entirely cartilaginous.
D) bears limbs with four digits on each hand and foot.
E) All of these choices are correct.
Q2) Some salamanders retain larval features (e.g.,gills)throughout life,a condition called
Q3) The sequence of Eusthenopteron,Acanthostega,and Ichthyostega fossils show a progression in which of these?
A) Lung development
B) Egg-shell development
C) Loss of tail and gills
D) Leg development
E) All of the choices developed together.
Q4) What are the limitations of the amphibian skin? How do these limitations prevent them from inhabiting certain habitats?
Q5) Describe five factors likely leading to the worldwide decline in amphibians.
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Chapter 26: Amniote Origins and Nonavian Reptiles
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Q1) Give support to the contention that the traditional class "Reptilia" is paraphyletic.If it is paraphyletic,what would you do to "fix" the situation?
Q2) Discuss the probable parental care of the dinosaurs.What kinds of evidence are used to support this claim?
Q3) Describe the advances of the amniotic egg of nonavian reptiles.Explain clearly why this is such a momentous evolutionary advance.
Q4) If beta-keratin is unique to nonavian reptiles,how can one say that keratin is a shared feature of nonavian reptiles,birds,and mammals?
Q5) Amniotes having a skull with two temporal openings on each side are called
or diapsid
Q6) In the nonavian reptilian egg,the embryo is bathed in a fluid contained within an extra-embryonic membrane called the __________________.
Q7) The dermal layer of the reptile skin contains color-bearing cells called
Q8) The synapsid lineage gave rise to present day ______.
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Chapter 27: Birds
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Q1) Bird mating is unique since
A) the male copulatory organ is kept folded internally.
B) mating is primarily a matter of bringing male cloaca to female cloaca.
C) fertilization is completely external.
D) All of the choices are correct
E) None of the choices are correct
Q2) The seasonal loss of bird feathers is _____________.
Q3) Newly hatched birds that are covered with down and are active within a short time are called __________.
Q4) The distribution of weight in the bird skeleton is
A) top-heavy to improve flight.
B) heavier compared to a mammal of the same size, since a bird has to be lightweight to fly.
C) similar to or lighter in overall weight than a mammal, but heavier in the leg bones, which lowers the bird's center of gravity.
D) loaded into a heavier bird skull, since the high speed requires a "safety helmet."
E) roughly the same as a mammal of the same size.
Q5) Detail four non-trivial likely reasons for the recent decline in songbirds.
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Chapter 28: Mammals
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Q1) Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of placental and marsupial modes of reproduction.
Q2) The barren-ground _____ undergo annual migrations from winter ranges on the tundra to summer ranges in the boreal forest.
A) antelope
B) lemmings
C) caribou
D) snowshoe hare
E) polar bears
Q3) Of the two kinds of mammalian sweat glands,the one that produces a watery sweat is called the ____ gland.
Q4) An area occupied by a mammal that it defends against invasion by other members of the same species is called its ___________.
Q5) How does a home range differ from a territory? What is the ecological significance of these two terms?
Q6) The only mammals having true flight are the __________ or Chiroptera.
Q7) Discuss the significance of the evolution of a true placenta.Why would this have been an evolutionary milestone?
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Chapter 29: Support, protection, and Movement
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Q1) Describe in detail the morphology and function of the myoneural or neuromuscular junction.
Q2) The epidermis of the vertebrate integument contains a tough,fibrous protein called A) sclerotin.
B) keratin.
C) calcitin.
D) dermatin.
E) chitin.
Q3) The reflective properties of surface tissue may form A) organic pigments.
B) structural colors such as iridescence.
C) chromatophores.
D) the melanin effect.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q4) Discuss the role and function of the fibrillar muscles of insects.What types of muscles are found in insect flight muscles? Do these differ from vertebrate skeletal muscles?
Q5) Differentiate between calcification and sclerotization.In which groups of animals are these processes found?
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Chapter 30: Homeostasis: Osmotic Regulation, Excretion, and Temperature Regulation
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Q1) Briefly describe how marine invertebrates meet and solve the problems of salt and water balance.If many invertebrates can survive in marine environments,why can't insects?
Q2) Sharks maintain osmotic equilibrium with the ocean water by the kidney conserving _______,allowing it to accumulate in the blood until osmolarity is near that of seawater.
A) ammonia
B) sodium ions
C) calcium
D) all salts
E) urea
Q3) Why is glucose found in glomerular filtrate but NOT in the urine?
A) The kidney stores glucose as glycogen
B) Kidney cells require glucose because energy is needed for active transport
C) Glucose is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream
D) Glucose is converted to amino acids in the kidney
E) Glucose molecules are too large to pass through the tubules
Q4) Compare excretory structures of single-celled organisms with those of marine invertebrates and terrestrial vertebrates.
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Q5) The term "homeostasis" was coined by the American physiologist ______ ______.
Chapter 31: Homeostasis: Internal Fluids and Respiration
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Q1) Blood in vertebrates constitutes
A) an organ.
B) an organ system.
C) a tissue.
D) a cell assemblage.
E) merely a fluid matrix.
Q2) The lower affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen in the presence of increased carbon dioxide is called the _______ ________.
Q3) What are the physiological roles of fibrinogen,fibrin,prothrombin,and thromboplastin? Where,why,and when are these compounds made?
Q4) Describe the components of vertebrate plasma and vertebrate "formed" elements.
Q5) Extracellular fluid in animals with a closed circulatory system is subdivided into blood plasma and _________________ (intercellular)fluid.
Q6) An enzyme that catalyzes the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen is
Q7) The rhythm and depth of breathing normally are controlled by the level of ________ _______ in the blood.
Q8) An alternative name for the mouth is the ________ _________.
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Chapter 32: Digestion and Nutrition
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Q1) The feces of a horse are rather dry and fiber laden while the feces of a cow are diarrheic and eventually dry into a "cowpie." Why would the feces of two animals grazing on the same pasture be so different in water content?
Q2) Distinguish between the following: herbivory,carnivory,omnivory.
Q3) A bird,insect or worm gizzard is a A) food storage area.
B) site of food molecule absorption comparable to our small intestine.
C) food crushing and grinding organ.
D) site of water absorption similar to our large intestine.
Q4) The liver produces bile,which functions to
A) eliminate particles of dead red blood cells.
B) help emulsify or break down fats for digestion.
C) color the feces.
D) All of the choices are liver functions.
E) None of the choices are correct.
Q5) Outline the process of digestion of proteins.
Q6) List the hormones involved in the regulation of digestion.
Q7) Discuss the possible relationship between fatty diets and the disease known as atherosclerosis.
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Q8) Distinguish between the following: autotroph,phototroph,chemotroph,heterotroph.
Chapter 33: Nervous Coordination: Nervous System and Sense Organs
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Q1) You are watching a horror movie,and you notice that your heart is beating fast,your mouth is dry,you are breathing rapidly.What division of the nervous system is directly responsible for these reactions?
A) Spinal since this is a reflex arc between sensory and motor nerves
B) The sympathetic nervous system which is responsible for the fight-or-flight reactions to emergency situations
C) The cerebellum which maintains all unconscious control
D) The forebrain where symbols are interpreted
E) None of the choices are correct
Q2) Pacinian corpuscles adjusting to new shapes,no longer responding to constant pressure,is a condition called A) adaptation.
B) fatigue.
C) timbre.
D) inhibition.
E) redundancy.
Q3) Explain how the parasympathetic and sympathetic subdivisions of the autonomic system interact.
Q4) What function does the sodium pump play in neural transmission?
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Chapter 34: Chemical Coordination: Endocrine System
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Q1) A fast-acting hormone produced by the intermediate lobe of the pituitary and that promotes dispersion of pigment in fishes,amphibians,and reptiles is
A) pineal gland stimulating hormone (PGSH). B) vasotocin.
C) melatonin.
D) melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH).
E) oxytocin.
Q2) The actual affect of hormones on cellular functions is accomplished by A) affecting enzyme activity.
B) changing membrane permeability.
C) regulating synthesis of cellular proteins.
D) stimulating release of hormones from other glands.
E) All of the choices are hormone actions.
Q3) Discuss the potential effects of anabolic steroid abuse by teenagers.
Q4) The condition in humans called goiter is caused by an insufficiency of ____________ in the food and water.
Q5) Why is it said that the brain neuropeptides blur the distinction between the endocrine and nervous systems?
Q6) How is gene transcription altered by gene regulatory proteins?
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Chapter 35: Immunity
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Q1) _________ cells are responsible for retaining antigen memory for faster future immune response.
Q2) One of the principal tests of the ability of invertebrate tissues to recognize nonself is grafting a tissue from another individual of the same species.This is called a(n)_________.
Q3) Rh incompatibility accounts for a peculiar and often fatal disease of the newborn called ___________________ __________.
Q4) Discuss the following terms: susceptible,resistant,infective,noninfective,immunity.
Q5) The terms "neutrophil" and "basophil" and "eosinophil" refer to A) whether they are active in acidic, neutral, or basic conditions.
B) their tissue origins.
C) the type of chemical they use to kill cells.
D) stains that are used to identify them.
E) the researchers who described them.
Q6) Identify the following: tumor necrosis factor,complement,phagocytosis,leukocytes.
Q7) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome is commonly called ________.
Q8) The causative agent of AIDS is _______________ _________ __________.
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Chapter 36: Animal Behavior
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Q1) The waggle dance helps bees
A) Communicate when they are hungry
B) Show aggression
C) Communicate the location of food
D) Sound the alarm to protect the hive when it is invaded
E) Find mates
Q2) Why territoriality is considered an alternative to dominance behavior?
Q3) How are territories and ranges different? What is the purpose of distinguishing between the two when neither territory nor range can be exactly quantified?
Q4) Outline the "language of the bees" according to the different types of dances expressed from foraging workers.
Q5) At first puppies crouch in fear when a leaf flutters overhead.Later they learn to disregard it.This mode of learning is termed What is this called?
A) Imprinting
B) Habituation
C) Conditioned response
D) Sensitization
E) Cooperative behavior
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Chapter 37: Animal Distributions
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Q1) The area of the ocean where most productivity occurs is the ___________ zone.
Q2) Why is the intertidal zone paradoxically both the harshest and the richest of all marine environments?
Q3) Animals have become distributed around the earth by dispersal,continental drift,and ____________.
Q4) The biome that contains the greatest variety of plants and animals is the
A) Grassland
B) Deciduous forest
C) Tundra
D) Tropical forest
E) Coniferous forest
Q5) What biome has the highest agricultural productivity?
A) Prairie grassland
B) Temperate deciduous forest
C) Tropical rain forest
D) Tundra
E) Tropical rain forest and estuaries
Q6) What are the physical factors that make the biosphere so relatively thin?
Q7) Explain the salient features of the Continental Drift Theory.Why did it take so long for it to be accepted?
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Chapter 38: Animal Ecology
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Q1) If severe floods reduced the amount of agricultural land in China,which term in the logistic growth formula will change?
A) r
B) N
C) K
Q2) An animal population is a group of animals that form which of the following?
A) a disparate community within an ecosystem
B) a reproductive community with members of the same species
C) individuals in a family that do not reproduce
D) various species living in a community
Q3) What prevents all species from evolving toward a survivorship curve where most individuals live to old age?
Q4) We could state a biological "law" that all food chains begin with photosynthetic producers if it wasn't for the exception of
A) lichens that make their own food energy.
B) anaerobic bacteria such as the tetanus agent.
C) chemosynthetic bacteria found around deep ocean thermal vents.
D) humans making synthetic food.
Q5) Discuss how the extinction of a keystone species can affect an ecosystem.
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