Biological Sciences
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Biological Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the structure, function, growth, evolution, and distribution of living organisms. This course provides students with a comprehensive understanding of core biological principles, encompassing areas such as cellular biology, genetics, ecology, physiology, and biodiversity. Through laboratory work, lectures, and field studies, students develop critical scientific skills and learn about the impact of biology on health, environment, and society. The course also emphasizes current research and technological advancements shaping biological discovery and its applications in medicine, conservation, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 9th Edition by Patton
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48 Chapters
7538 Verified Questions
7538 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/905
Page 2
Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17815
Sample Questions
Q1) Skin
A)Abdominal
B)Brachial
C)Cervical
D)Coxal
E)Cutaneous
F)Digital
G)Femoral
H)Lumbar
Answer: E
Q2) Physiology can be subdivided according to the _____ studied.
A) type of organism
B) organizational level
C) systemic function
D) All of the above are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) List the directional terms, and use them to describe the relationship between two structures in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Give an example of a system, either living or nonliving, that is designed to maintain a relatively constant condition by using a negative-feedback mechanism. Explain briefly how the system works to accomplish this.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Q2) A tiny, primitive cell that lacks a nucleus and can cause infection
A)Prion
B)Tumor
C)Fungi
D)Gene mutation
E)Bacteria
F)Virus
G)Protozoa
Answer: E
Q3) Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Chapter 3: Chemical Basis of Life
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164 Verified Questions
164 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ionic bonds are chemical bonds formed by the:
A) sharing of electrons between molecules.
B) donation of protons from one atom to another.
C) transfer of electrons from one atom to another.
D) acceptance of neutrons from one atom by another.
Answer: C
Q2) Which type of radiation consists of two protons and two neutrons?
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Delta
D) Gamma
Answer: A
Q3) Releases a hydroxide ion into solution, which raises the pH
A) Acid
B) Base
Answer: B
Q4) pH is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term glycoprotein, a combination of two words, tells you that the compound is made of _____, with _____ being the dominant component.
A) a lipid and a protein; the lipid
B) carbohydrate and protein; carbohydrate
C) a lipid and a protein; the protein
D) carbohydrate and protein; protein
Q2) Nonessential amino acids are rarely used in the making of proteins in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The type of lipoprotein associated with "bad" cholesterol and the production of atherosclerotic changes in blood vessels is:
A) HDL.
B) LDL.
C) VHDL.
D) none of the above.
Q4) There are a total of 21 essential amino acids.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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171 Verified Questions
171 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is the organelle that supplies membrane material for use throughout the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Small protein structures called molecular motors pull loads from one part of the cell to another along the cytoskeleton.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Each of the following is an example of the plasma membrane function except: A) boundary.
B) self-identification.
C) receptor sites.
D) production of proteins.
Q4) The presence of which substance in the cell membrane keeps it from breaking too easily?
A) Cholesterol
B) Protein
C) Phospholipids
D) Glycoproteins
Q5) Name and give the functions of the membranous organelles of the cell.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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136 Verified Questions
136 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Anaerobic respiration is about 17 times more efficient in producing ATP than is aerobic respiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Potential osmotic pressure can be measured by determining the:
A) concentration on either side of a membrane.
B) strength of the concentration gradient.
C) permeability of the membrane.
D) There is no direct means of measurement.
Q3) Lactic acid is the result of glycolysis and is the substance that enters the citric acid cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Two solutions of different concentrations of glucose are separated by a membrane that allows both glucose and water to pass through. When dynamic equilibrium is reached, there will be:
A) no movement of water or glucose.
B) movement of glucose but not water.
C) movement of water but not glucose.
D) an even exchange of material across the membrane.
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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111 Verified Questions
111 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) This type of RNA carries amino acids to the ribosome.
A)Adenine
B)mRNA
C)Intron
D)RNAi
E)Uracil
F)Chaperone protein
G)Transcription
H)tRNA
I)Thymine
J)Exons
K)Proteasomes
L)Telomere
M)Centromere
N)Haploid
O)Diploid
P)Translation
Q2) Uracil must by a pyrimidine nitrogen base.
A)True
B)False
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Serous membranes have an underlying connective tissue layer called the lamina propria.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All the cells that make up tissues are held together by intracellular structures called desmosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following can be found in the extracellular matrix?
A) Water
B) Proteoglycans
C) Fibers
D) All of the above
Q4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue?
A) Forms glands that secrete substances into and out of the body
B) Is important in communication and control
C) Covers and protects body surfaces
D) Lines the interior of body cavities
Q5) Briefly describe cutaneous membranes and mucous membranes, and give the location of each in the body.
10
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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158 Verified Questions
158 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cartilage is a form of _____ tissue.
A) epithelial
B) connective
C) muscle
D) osseous
Q2) Compound exocrine glands have one duct and secrete two or more products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The term squamous comes from the Latin word meaning scaly, which describes the flat, platelike cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What structure is formed by the union of the basal and reticular lamina?
A) Nucleus
B) Basement membrane
C) Lysosome
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q5) Elastic fibers are made of the protein elastin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Skin
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241 Verified Questions
241 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hair:
A) alternates between periods of growth and rest.
B) consists of keratinized cells.
C) is formed from cells of the germinal matrix.
D) is all of the above.
Q2) Explain how the involvement of desmosomes in a blister is a good example of the relationship between structure and function at the chemical level of organization.
Q3) A single layer of columnar cells that undergo mitosis
A)Stratum corneum
B)Stratum lucidum
C)Stratum granulosum
D)Stratum spinosum
E)Stratum basale
Q4) Normally, which percentage of the cells in the stratum basale enter mitosis each day?
A) 20% to 25%
B) 10% to 12%
C) 18% to 20%
D) 35% to 40%
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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180 Verified Questions
180 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Interstitial growth of cartilage most often occurs during adulthood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In endochondral ossification, the primary ossification centers are found in the epiphyses and the secondary ossification centers are found in the diaphysis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Most of the matrix in bone is composed of inorganic rather than organic material.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the diaphysis?
A) Provides a bulbous shape for attachment of muscle
B) Hollow
C) Composed of compact bone
D) All of the above are characteristics of the diaphysis.
Q5) After birth, the amount of cartilage in the body increases.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name the types of bone found in the body, and give an example of each type.
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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139 Verified Questions
139 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Differentiate among true ribs, false ribs, and floating ribs.
Q2) The dens is part of the:
A) sacrum.
B) cervical vertebrae.
C) lumbar vertebrae.
D) thoracic vertebrae.
Q3) The top of the skull is also called the calvaria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which bone marking can be defined as a large bump for the attachment of muscles?
A) Trochanter
B) Fossa
C) Foramen
D) Ramus
Q5) The bones of the skull form only sutures (immovable joints), not movable joints.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The dens are found on the second cervical vertebra, or axis.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patella is the largest sesamoid bone in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Palpable bony landmarks are bones that can be touched and identified through the skin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A 10-year-old boy came into the emergency room with a painful knee joint. He had full range of motion but was in pain. The attending physician suspected a fracture and ordered an x-ray examination. What was the purpose of the x-ray evaluation? (Do not forget the epiphyseal growth plate.)
Q4) Only the radius has a direct articulation with the bones of the wrist. A)True
B)False
Q5) The thumb has one fewer phalange than the other fingers.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The ulna bone is on the thumb side of the forearm.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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178 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a pivot joint is(are) the:
A) head of the radius articulating with the ulna.
B) first metacarpal articulating with the trapezium.
C) humerus articulating with the scapula.
D) interphalangeal joints.
Q2) A projection of one bone that articulates with a ring in another bone describes a condyloid joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not an example of a fibrous joint?
A) Symphyses
B) Sutures
C) Syndesmoses
D) Gomphoses
Q4) Which structure of a synovial joint is defined as a sleevelike extension of the periosteum?
A) Bursae
B) Ligament
C) Joint cavity
D) Joint capsule
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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151 Verified Questions
151 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A set of scales and a pair of scissors are both examples of second-class levers.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Close(s) the eye
A)Buccinator
B)Corrugator supercilii
C)Epicranius
D)Orbicularis oculi
E)Pterygoid
F)Sternocleidomastoid
Q3) Broad, flat sheet of tendonlike connective tissue
A)Endomysium
B)Tendon
C)Epimysium
D)Aponeurosis
E)Fascia
F)Perimysium
G)Tendon sheath
H)Fascicles
Q4) Define the terms insertion and origin, in relation to muscle movement.
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The muscle that extends and adducts the arm is the:
A) deltoid.
B) latissimus dorsi.
C) trapezius.
D) pectoralis minor.
Q2) The Achilles tendon is common to both the gastrocnemius and the soleus.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The action of the brachialis muscle is to _____ the forearm.
A) flex
B) extend
C) pronate
D) supinate
Q4) Which of the following is not a muscle of the quadriceps femoris group?
A) Rectus femoris
B) Biceps femoris
C) Vastus medialis
D) Vastus intermedius
Q5) Explain how, during sleep, the muscles of the throat relax and can allow the muscles to partially close the airway, causing sleep apnea.
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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226 Verified Questions
226 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bundles of fine fibers that extend lengthwise along muscle fibers are called:
A) myofibrils.
B) myofilaments.
C) striae.
D) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Q2) A compound that mimics the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction would cause muscles to become flaccid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Myofibrils contain several sarcomeres lined up end to end.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The release of calcium by the sarcoplasmic reticulum begins the contraction phase of a twitch contraction.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the structure of smooth muscle. Differentiate between single-unit and multiunit muscle tissue.
Q6) Explain what is meant by the graded strength principle of muscle contraction.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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157 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The efferent division of the nervous system consists of mostly sensory pathways.
A)True
B)False
Q2) There are differences between the central and peripheral nervous systems concerning the repair of damaged fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not true of a three-neuron ipsilateral reflex?
A) It contains an interneuron.
B) The impulse leaves the CNS on the same side as the one on which it entered.
C) The impulse leaves the CNS on the side opposite to the one from which it entered.
D) It stimulates an action potential in a motor neuron.
Q4) Microglia are associated with the formation of the blood-brain barrier.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the difference between nuclei and ganglia?
Q6) The Greek word for tree correctly describes the shape of the axon.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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119 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In depolarization the membrane potential moves toward zero, whereas in hyperpolarization the membrane potential moves away from zero.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The speed of a nerve impulse depends on the neuron's resting potential.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cell that releases the neurotransmitter
A)Presynaptic cell
B)Neurotransmitter
C)Postsynaptic cell
D)Synaptic knob
E)Electrical synapse
F)Chemical synapse
G)Synaptic cleft
Q4) Spatial summation is the effect produced by a rapid succession of stimuli on a single postsynaptic neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the process of an action potential moving down a neuron.
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most superficial border of the subarachnoid space is the dura mater.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Barbiturates and amphetamines are two drugs that can arouse the cerebral cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a person received a lumbar puncture that removed 15 mL of cerebrospinal fluid from the spinal cord, that amount would be about what percent of the cerebrospinal fluid?
A) 20%
B) 10%
C) 5%
D) 25%
Q4) Extrapyramidal tracts can function either to inhibit or to facilitate lower motor neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the structure and major functions of the brainstem.
Q6) List the major ascending and descending tracts of the spinal cord, and identify the major function of each tract.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The brachial plexus is the only plexus that contains a thoracic spinal nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Amines are the neurotransmitters in a somatic motor pathway.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The peripheral nervous system includes cranial nerves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The dorsal root ganglion contains motor neuron cell bodies.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The nerve commonly called the vagus nerve is the _____ cranial.
A) ninth
B) tenth
C) eleventh
D) twelfth
Q6) The lower end of the spinal cord bears the name lumbosacral plexus.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Propranolol is an example of a:
A) beta blocker.
B) drug used to treat irregular heartbeats.
C) drug used to treat hypertension.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q2) What brain structure acts as a "connection" between the cerebrum and the autonomic nervous system?
Q3) Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may:
A) synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron.
B) send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia.
C) pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing.
D) do all of the above.
Q4) Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they:
A) are hydrolyzed by the enzyme acetylcholine.
B) continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectors.
C) continually conduct impulses to the brain.
D) have opposing effects.
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Chapter 23: General Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Somatic sense receptors located in muscles and joints are called proprioceptors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Differentiate between the pain receptors in the body-both fast and slow fibers and visceral and somatic pain.
Q3) The special senses:
A) are widely distributed throughout the body.
B) enable us to detect pain.
C) are dense in the fingertips.
D) are grouped in the tongue, nose, eyes, and ears.
Q4) An itch is caused by a rapidly adapting free nerve ending called a root hair plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The function of a receptor is to turn a stimulus into a nerve impulse.
A)True
B)False
Q6) You feel hungry because of a proprioceptor.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) To produce a clear image, the aqueous humor is involved in the process of:
A) refraction.
B) constriction.
C) accommodation.
D) convergence.
Q2) Which structure is not inside the vestibule of the inner ear?
A) Cochlear duct
B) Utricle
C) Saccule
D) All of the above are in the vestibule.
Q3) Taste buds can be found:
A) in the lining of the mouth.
B) on the soft palate.
C) on the tongue.
D) in all of the above locations.
Q4) Refraction means the deflection, or bending, of light rays.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the function of the eustachian tube?
Q6) How does the ear differentiate between high- and low-frequency sound waves?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because most cells secrete prostaglandins, there is usually a fairly high concentration of prostaglandins in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a peptide hormone?
A) Oxytocin
B) Insulin
C) Antidiuretic hormone
D) All of the above are peptide hormones.
Q3) Which of the following is not true of steroid hormones?
A) They are lipid-soluble.
B) They are derived from a fatty acid molecule.
C) They can pass through the cell membrane.
D) All of the above are true about steroid hormones.
Q4) The target cell in the endocrine system is similar to the postganglionic neuron in the nervous system, because they both have receptors that respond to the presence of a chemical.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how cAMP acts as a second messenger for certain nonsteroid hormones.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Release of PTH in the body would cause a(n):
A) increase in blood calcium.
B) decrease in blood phosphate.
C) decrease in vitamin D production.
D) All of the above are correct.
Q2) Hypersecretion of prolactin can cause impotence in men.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Secretin plays a regulatory role in the digestive process.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Thymosin is a hormone that plays a role in:
A) the rate of metabolism.
B) body growth.
C) immunity.
D) maintaining early pregnancy.
Q5) The center of the adrenal gland is the cortex.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Briefly summarize how growth hormone affects metabolism.
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name and give the functions of each type of granulocyte.
Q2) A person with an antigen on the red blood cell and a different antibody in the plasma would have which blood type?
A) A
B) AB
C) O
D) Both A and C
Q3) Most lymphocytes and monocytes come from hematopoietic adult stem cells in lymphatic tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hematocrit includes red blood cells, white blood cells, and soluble proteins from the plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the development of the red blood cell, polychromic erythroblasts are more mature cells than basophilic erythroblasts.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The midline of the body divides the heart into equal right and left halves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The correct order of the layers of the heart from deep to superficial is:
A) myocardium, pericardium, and endocardium.
B) epicardium, myocardium, and pericardium.
C) epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium.
D) endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium.
Q3) The terms AV bundles and Purkinje fibers refer to the same structures.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following statements is not true of the location of the heart?
A) It lies in the mediastinum.
B) It lies to the right of the midline of the body.
C) It lies behind the body of the sternum.
D) All of the above are true about the location of the heart.
Q5) Blood in both atria must pass through a semilunar valve to get to the next structure in the heart.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stomach
A)Axillary
B)Carotid
C)Coronary
D)Femoral
E)Gastric
F)Hepatic
G)Radial
H)Renal
I)Suprarenal
J)Tibial
Q2) After birth the ductus venosus closes and:
A) allows blood to flow to the lungs.
B) allows blood to flow to the liver.
C) prevents blood from moving from the right to the left atrium.
D) stops blood flow to the placenta.
Q3) It is easier for material to pass through a continuous capillary than through a fenestrated capillary.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bleeding that occurs at a relatively slow, steady rate would indicate that the damaged blood vessel is most likely a vein.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The volume of blood circulated per minute is equal to the difference between the mean arterial pressure and the central venous pressure, divided by the resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain the role of the lymphatic system in maintaining blood volume.
Q4) Cardiac output is determined by multiplying stroke volume and heart rate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If the stroke volume remains constant, parasympathetic stimulation of the heart will cause an increase in cardiac output.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how the Starling law relates to cardiac output.
Q7) What are two functions that circulation control mechanisms must accomplish?
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which best describes the mechanism involved with the central movement, or flow, of lymph?
A) Movement is caused by gravity.
B) Lymph flow is caused by relaxation of the skeletal muscles.
C) Lymph flow in the body is the result of contracting skeletal muscles.
D) Lymph flow is caused by the contraction of blood vessels.
Q2) One function of the lymph node is to slow down the flow of lymph so that microorganisms and particulate matter can be phagocytized.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Anastomoses are not characteristic of lymphatic vessels, and therefore a malignant tumor in one breast cannot spread to the other breast.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Name and describe the two main lymphatic ducts of the body. What area of the body is drained by each? What is the cisterna chyli?
Q5) Describe the structure of a lymph node, and explain what happens when lymph passes through it.
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following represent examples of nonspecific immunity except:
A) species resistance.
B) phagocytosis.
C) cell-mediated immunity.
D) mechanical and chemical barriers.
Q2) A macrophage can migrate out of the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There are almost 100 billion lymphocytes in the body's immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A person's natural killer cells usually kill cells of their own body.
A)True B)False
Q5) One function of prostaglandins it to reduce fever caused by bacterial infection. A)True B)False
Q6) Cytokines include leukotrienes, interferons, and histamine.
A)True B)False
Page 34
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adaptive immunity requires two signals: antigen and chemical.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Predominant class of antibody produced in the secondary response to an antigen
A)IgG
B)IgM
C)IgD
D)IgE
E)IgA
Q3) Name the classes of antibodies, and give the function of each.
Q4) Antigens are macromolecules that induce the immune system to take certain actions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The heavy chains in an immunoglobulin molecule are about twice as long and weigh about twice as much as light chains.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast the development of B cells and T cells.
Q7) Name and explain the role of regulating cells in the immune system.
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stress triad refers to:
A) alarm, exhaustion, and resistance.
B) hypertrophied adrenals, atrophied thymus and lymph nodes, and bleeding ulcers.
C) stressor, stress, and response.
D) health, stress, and disease.
Q2) The stage of exhaustion can be described as adaptation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is the name for the second stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
A) Reinforcement
B) Transition
C) Resistance
D) Defense
Q4) One of the components of the "stress triad" is hypertrophy of the lymphatic organs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define fetal programming.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The external openings to the nasal cavities can be referred to as:
A) nostrils.
B) anterior nares.
C) external nares.
D) all of the above.
Q2) There are almost 30 million alveoli in the two lungs.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Primary gas exchange structures of the respiratory tract
A)Alveoli
B)Primary bronchi
C)Secondary bronchi
D)Tertiary bronchi
E)Trachea
Q4) The nose is surrounded by the frontal bone and the mandible.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Both the right lung and the left lung have an oblique fissure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) External respiration can be defined as:
A) the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung.
B) pulmonary ventilation.
C) the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissue cells.
D) both A and B.
Q2) The tendency of the thorax and lungs to return to the preinspiration volume is called:
A) compliance.
B) elastic recoil.
C) expiration.
D) ventilation.
Q3) Which muscle is used in quiet expiration?
A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Abdominal muscles
D) None of the above
Q4) The anatomical dead space is approximately equal to the same number of milliliters as the individual's weight in pounds.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange & Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) The PCO in alveolar air is _____ blood.
A) less than in the systemic venous
B) greater than in the systemic venous
C) equal to the systemic arterial
D) Both A and C are correct.
Q2) An increase in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide decreases the affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen. This is called a right shift, or the Haldane effect.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Bohr effect describes the effect of an increased PCO causing a decreased affinity between hemoglobin and oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because of tissue layers between alveolar air and the blood supply, arterial blood PO is always less than alveolar PO .
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the process by which oxygen is transported by the blood.
Q6) Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is transported by the blood.
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the cause of appendicitis.
Q2) Under normal conditions, how many deciduous teeth are there?
A) 16
B) 20
C) 24
D) 32
Q3) Which of the following is not a division of the stomach?
A) Rugae
B) Body
C) Pylorus
D) Fundus
Q4) The neck is the exposed portion of the tooth.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The esophagus is prevented from collapsing by rings of cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Teeth are considered the organs of mastication.
A)True
B)False
Page 40
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Phagocytic cells lining liver sinusoids are called _____ cells.
A) chief
B) alpha
C) Kupffer
D) hepatic
Q2) Hemorrhoids are enlargements of the smaller arteries in the anal canal.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Hemorrhoids are enlargements of veins in the anal canal.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The duodenum, jejunum, and ileum each make up about one third of the length of the small intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the structure of a typical tooth.
Q6) Glucagon and insulin assist the GI tract in the digestive process.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Name and describe the reflections of the peritoneum.
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulates ejection of bile from the gallbladder and secretion of pancreatic juice high in enzymes; opposes the action of gastrin, reducing the pH of gastric juice
A)Secretin
B)Cholecystokinin (CCK)
C)Gastrin
D)Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
Q2) The process of fat emulsification consists of:
A) chemically breaking down fat molecules.
B) the secretion of digestive juices for fat digestion.
C) absorption of fats.
D) breaking fats into small droplets.
Q3) Chief cells produce pepsin.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When fat combines with magnesium, it becomes indigestible.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the differences between peristalsis and segmentation.
Q6) Explain ways in which gastric motility is regulated.
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hormone capable of causing both protein anabolism and catabolism is:
A) thyroid hormone.
B) growth hormone.
C) insulin.
D) ACTH.
Q2) Iodine can be called a trace element and a micromineral.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of an unsaturated fat?
A) It is a solid at room temperature.
B) It contains all the hydrogen it can hold.
C) It has at least one double bond.
D) None of the above are characteristics of an unsaturated fat.
Q4) Explain how the lack of oxygen would inhibit the Krebs cycle.
Q5) A deficiency in which of the following minerals leads to thyroid enlargement and a decrease in the metabolic rate?
A) Potassium
B) Iodine
C) Calcium
D) Phosphorus
43
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The kidneys are located in the right and left iliac regions of the abdomen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) About 10% of the blood pumped by the heart per minute goes to the kidneys.
A)True B)False
Q3) Descending limb of the loop of Henle
Q4) The calyx surrounds the renal papilla. A)True
Q5) A cushion of fat normally encases a kidney and helps hold it in position. A)True B)False
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the relationship between the sodium concentration in the interstitial fluid and the chloride concentration. Between the potassium concentration and the chloride concentration.
Q2) Force that acts to move fluid out of the blood and into the tissue space
A)Osmoreceptors
B)Electrolyte
C)Intracellular
D)Parenteral
E)Extracellular
F)Milliequivalent
G)Cation
H)Anion
I)Interstitial
J)Blood hydrostatic pressure
K)Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
Q3) Respiration contributes to the obligatory water loss of the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What are anions? What are cations? Give examples of each.
Q5) Describe the functioning thirst center. Where is it located?
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Chapter 44: Acid Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory center is stimulated if the:
A) amount of carbon dioxide in arterial blood increases.
B) amount of carbon dioxide in venous blood increases.
C) pH of the blood goes above 7.41.
D) Any of the above will stimulate the respiratory center.
Q2) An increase in blood pH accelerates the renal tubule excretion of both hydrogen and ammonia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If NaOH were buffered by H-HCO , what would not occur?
A) Concentration of NaHCO3 would increase.
B) Water would be formed.
C) The number of hydroxide ions would greatly increase.
D) All of the above would occur.
Q4) A solution with a pH of 7 would have no hydrogen ions in solution.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ketone bodies are buffered mainly by plasma proteins.
A)True
B)False
46
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Each testis is 4 to 5 cm long.
B) Each testis weighs about 10 to 15 grams.
C) The right testis is usually lower than the left testis.
D) All of the above are true.
Q2) The sperm surface antigen, FA-1, can trigger antibody production in the male, which results in infertility.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not enclosed in the spermatic cord?
A) Vas deferens
B) Ejaculatory ducts
C) Blood vessels
D) Nerves
Q4) The tail of a sperm appears to be a typical flagellum.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The gonads of both males and females produce gametes.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman is fertile throughout her menstrual cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the physiological basis of why a pill containing estrogen and progesterone can prevent pregnancy.
Q3) Hormone that causes sloughing of the endometrium when its secretion declines, which results in menstruation
A)Estrogen
B)FSH
C)GnRH
D)LH
E)Progesterone
Q4) One effect of progesterone is increase of myometrial contractions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) An episiotomy is routinely done to prevent damage to the perineum during childbirth.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Discuss the ideas behind predicting the time of ovulation.
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Chapter 47: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Moment at which the ovum and sperm unite
A)Parturition
B)Chorion
C)Neonate
D)Zygote
E)Organogenesis
F)Blastocyst
G)Gestation
H)Morula
I)Senescence
J)Primary germ layers
K)Histogenesis
L)Embryology
M)Implantation
N)Fertilization
Q2) At fertilization, what part of the sperm cell enters the egg?
A) Nucleus of the sperm
B) RNA from the sperm
C) Proteins from the sperm
D) All of the above
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) A color-blind woman must have had a color-blind father.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following diseases demonstrate single-gene inheritance and are autosomal recessive except:
A) Tay-Sachs disease.
B) total albinism.
C) Huntington disease.
D) severe combined immune deficiency (SCID).
Q3) Long arm of the chromosome
A)Proteome
B)Ideogram
C)Genome
D)Genomics
E)P-arm
F)Proteomics
G)Q-arm
Q4) Chorionic villus sampling is a newer procedure than amniocentesis.
A)True
B)False
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