Biological Sciences
Exam Materials
Course Introduction
Biological Sciences is an interdisciplinary course that explores the fundamental principles and processes underlying life and living organisms. Covering a broad spectrum from molecular biology and genetics to ecology and evolution, this course examines the structure, function, and interaction of cells, tissues, and organisms. Students will develop scientific reasoning, laboratory skills, and an understanding of how biological systems adapt and change in response to environmental challenges, preparing them for advanced studies or careers in research, healthcare, biotechnology, and environmental sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 5th Edition by
Elaine N. Marieb
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26 Chapters
3257 Verified Questions
3257 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation
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131 Verified Questions
131 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Responsiveness or irritability is the ability to sense changes in the environment and then respond to them.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) What broad term covers all chemical reactions that occur within the body cells?
Answer: metabolism
Q3) Similar cells that have a common function are called ________.
Answer: tissues
Q4) The term that describes the back of the elbow is ________.
Answer: olecranal
Q5) What can happen when the usual negative feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed and destructive positive feedback mechanisms take over?
Answer: Homeostatic imbalances increase our risk for illness and produce the changes we associate with aging.
Q6) What is the single most abundant chemical substance in the body?
Answer: water
Q7) Input.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive
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Sample Questions
Q1) Isotopes differ from each other only in the number of electrons the atom contains.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Represented by the flow of charged particles along a conductor, or the flow of ions across a membrane.
Answer: C
Q3) What is a chain of more than 50 amino acids called?
A) polypeptide
B) polysaccharide
C) protein
D) nucleic acid
Answer: C
Q4) Covalent bonds are generally less stable than ionic bonds.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) What happens when globular proteins are denatured?
Answer: The active sites are destroyed.
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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe two important functions of the Golgi apparatus. Answer: To modify, sort, and package proteins.
Q2) The orderly sequence of the phases of mitosis is prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Act as "interpreter" molecules that recognize specific amino acids and nucleotide base sequences.
Answer: B
Q4) The speed of individual particle diffusion is influenced by temperature and particle size, not by concentration.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q5) Help prevent molecules from passing through the extracellular space between adjacent cells.
Answer: A
Q6) The actual site of protein synthesis.
Answer: A
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Tissue: the Living Fabric
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is True about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands?
A) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.
B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced, after secretion.
C) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process, but repair themselves.
D) These glands are ductless.
Q2) ________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane.
A) Stratified cuboidal
B) Stratified columnar
C) Transitional
D) Pseudostratified columnar
Q3) Simple cuboidal epithelium.
Q4) Which is True concerning muscle tissue?
A) highly cellular and well vascularized
B) cuboidal shape enhances function
C) contains contractile units made of collagen
D) is a single-celled tissue
Q5) Cardiac muscle.
Q6) Makes up the pleura and pericardium.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis?
A) goblet cells, parietal cells, and chondrocytes
B) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes
C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells
D) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells
Q2) The layer that contains the mitotic viable cells of the epidermis.
Q3) The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function?
A) cells found in the stratum spinosum
B) macrophages called dendritic cells (Langerhans Cell)
C) keratinocytes, because they are so versatile
D) tactile cells
Q4) Skin macrophages that help activate the immune system.
Q5) Responsible for shock absorption and located in the hypodermis.
Q6) The white crescent portion of the nail is called the ________.
Q7) Pulls the hair follicle into an upright position.
Q8) Name the four kinds of sudoriferous glands and give their locations.
Q9) Papillary layer of the dermis
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Chapter 6: Bones and Skeletal Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bones are classified by whether they are weight bearing or protective in function.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Location of the epiphyseal line.
Q3) Describe how oxygen is carried from outside a bone to an individual osteocyte.
Q4) Short, irregular, and flat bones have marrow cavities in order to keep the weight of the bones light.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Bone 7.
Q6) Common sports fracture resulting from a twisting force.
Q7) A fracture in the shaft of a bone would be a break in the ________.
A) epiphysis
B) metaphysis
C) diaphysis
D) articular cartilage
Q8) Abnormal bone formation and reabsorption.
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Q9) How is the beginning of intramembranous ossification different from endochondral ossification?
Chapter 7: The Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the bones of the skull, except the mandible, are united by sutures and are therefore immovable.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Allows the head to nod "yes."
Q3) Identify the arches of the foot and describe how they are maintained.
Q4) Forearm bone that articulates with most of the carpals.
Q5) Sagittal suture.
Q6) The antebrachium is composed of which of the following two bones?
A) the radius and the ulna
B) the humerus and the clavicle
C) the scapula and the clavicle
D) the humerus and the radius
Q7) When administering chest compression to someone whose heart has stopped beating, the heel of the hand should be placed on the sternum on a line drawn between the nipples. Why would it be a problem if the hand was placed at a lower part of the sternum?
Q8) Lambdoid suture.
Q9) The styloid process of the ________ points to the thumb.
Q10) Allow cranial nerves that control eye movements to enter the orbit. Page 9
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Page 10
Chapter 8: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________.
A) hyaline cartilage
B) synovial membranes
C) fibrocartilage
D) tendon sheaths
Q2) A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The only movement allowed between the first two cervical vertebrae is flexion.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Tooth in socket
Q5) Moving your jaw forward, causing an underbite, is called ________.
Q6) A ball-and-socket joint is a multiaxial joint.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Joint 6.
Q8) Joint 3.
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Muscles and Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction?
A) number of muscle fibers stimulated
B) size of the muscle fibers stimulated
C) load on the fiber
D) muscle length
Q2) Although there are no sarcomeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases?
A) motor units with the longest muscle fibers
B) many small motor units with the ability to stimulate other motor units
C) large motor units with small, highly excitable neurons
D) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
Q4) Skeletal muscles have two special inclusions that help them perform their function of movement. What are the two special inclusions of skeletal muscle cells and how would they be useful to the cell?
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action?
A) to help hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity and rotate the humerus laterally
B) to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction
C) to extend and medially rotate the humerus and to act as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi
D) to flex and adduct the humerus and to act as a synergist of the pectoralis major
Q2) The ________ is the main chewing muscle.
Q3) The most powerful muscle in the body is the ________.
A) quadriceps femoris
B) rectus abdominis
C) gastrocnemius
D) gluteus maximus
Q4) The abnormal protrusion of the small intestine through a weak point in the muscle of the abdominal wall is called a ________.
Q5) Bodybuilders are known for their "great quads." Describe the quadriceps muscles.
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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The specific period during which potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron due to a change in membrane permeability.
Q2) The action potential is caused by permeability changes in the plasma membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which neuron is a sensory neuron found in a reflex arc?
Q4) The synapse more common in embryonic nervous tissue than in adults is the
Q5) Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes?
A) support and brace neurons
B) anchor neurons to blood vessels
C) guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability
D) control the chemical environment around neurons
E) provide the defense for the CNS
Q6) In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System
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158 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The corpora quadrigemina are found in the ________.
Q2) The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________.
A) myelinated nerve fibers only
B) unmyelinated nerve fibers only
C) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
D) soma that have both myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
Q3) The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.
A) metabolic waste such as urea
B) nutrients such as glucose
C) alcohol
D) anesthetics
Q4) White matter is found in all of the following locations except the ________.
A) corpus callosum
B) cerebral cortex
C) corticospinal tracts
D) outer portion of the spinal cord
Q5) Typified by sleep spindles.
Q6) NREM sleep normally exhibits four distinct stages, which appear to alternate.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is the tingling sensation when blood has been cut off from an area, as when the foot "goes to sleep."
Q2) Damage to this nerve would cause difficulty in speech and swallowing, but no effect on visceral organs.
Q3) High frequency sounds are detected when the basilar membrane is displaced near the ________.
Q4) When we hear a strange sound in a room, which aspect of sensory perception is activated?
Q5) The cranial nerve with a cervical origin (spinal cord) is the ________.
A) hypoglossal
B) accessory
C) vagus
D) glossopharyngeal
Q6) Horizontal cell.
Q7) The glossopharyngeal nerve is the only cranial nerve that contains sensory fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q9) Central pattern generators. Page 16
Q8) A condition that can result from a deficiency of vitamin A.
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Page 17
Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following except
A) their effectors
B) their efferent pathways
C) to some degree in target responses to their neurotransmitters
D) all of the neurotransmitters
Q2) The adrenal medulla is considered a "misplaced" sympathetic ganglion by some.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.
A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons
B) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess
C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
D) visceral arcs do not use integration centers
Q4) Cranial nerves III, VII, and IX supply the entire parasympathetic innervation of the head; however, only the preganglionic fibers lie within these three pairs of cranial nerves.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Produces aldosterone.
Q2) One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?
A) carbohydrate oxidation
B) catabolic inhibition
C) protein synthesis
D) humoral stimulation
Q3) Explain how antidiuretic hormone can help regulate an abnormal increase in solute concentration in the extracellular fluid.
Q4) Hyposecretion of growth hormone.
Q5) The single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood is ________.
A) calcitonin
B) parathyroid hormone
C) thyroid hormone
D) gonadotropic hormones
Q6) Aldosterone is the most potent mineralocorticoid produced in the adrenals but the least abundant.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 16: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) All lymphocytes are leukocytes, but not all leukocytes are lymphocytes.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Contains a U- or an S-shaped nucleus; granules stain very dark; releases histamine and heparin.
Q3) Diapedesis is the process by which red blood cells move into tissue spaces from the interior of blood capillaries.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Condition in which blood has abnormally low oxygen-carrying capacity.
Q5) Stimulates WBC production.
Q6) The universal recipient blood type is ________.
Q7) The normal RBC "graveyard" is the liver.
A)True B)False
Q8) White blood cells are produced through the action of colony-stimulating factors.
A)True
B)False
Q9) Free-floating thrombus in the bloodstream.
Q10) Monocyte. Page 20
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Page 21
Chapter 17: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) Death of heart muscle cells.
Q2) Heart rate at rest under both autonomic divisions signaling
Q3) The tricuspid valve is closed ________.
A) while the ventricle is in diastole
B) when the ventricle is in systole
C) while the atrium is contracting
D) by the movement of blood from atrium to ventricle
Q4) Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood during right ventricular systole?
A) venae cavae
B) pulmonary trunk
C) aorta
D) pulmonary veins
Q5) The pacemaker rhythm that determines heart rate is called ________ rhythm.
Q6) List and define the three most important factors that affect stroke volume.
Q7) If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ________.
A) decreased delivery of oxygen
B) a decrease in the number of available mitochondria for energy production
C) a lack of nutrients to feed into metabolic pathways
D) an inadequate supply of lactic acid
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Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with essential hypertension might have pressures of 200/120 mm Hg. This hypertensive state could result in all of the following changes except ________.
A) increased work of the left ventricle
B) increased incidence of coronary artery disease
C) increased damage to blood vessel endothelium
D) decreased size of the heart muscle
Q2) Large unpaired branch of the abdominal aorta that supplies the liver, stomach, and spleen.
Q3) An increase in blood viscosity will cause an increase in peripheral resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Consider the diameter of one 4-mm blood vessel and two 2-mm blood vessels. Would the two 2-mm vessels carry more, less, or the same amount of fluid, given that pressure is a constant? Why?
Q5) Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?
A) Blood will be diverted to the digestive organs.
B) The skin will be cold and clammy.
C) Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood.
D) Blood flow to the kidneys increases.
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Chapter 19: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) About 3 liters of fluid are lost to the tissue spaces every 24 hours and are returned to the bloodstream as lymph.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the structural and functional relationship of the vessels of the vascular system and the lymphatic system.
Q3) In the spleen, red pulp is involved in the immune functions and white pulp is involved in disposing of worn-out RBCs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is not a function of lymph nodes?
A) act as lymph filters and activate the immune system
B) produce lymphoid cells and house granular WBCs
C) produce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluid
D) serve as antigen surveillance areas
Q5) The simplest lymphoid organs are the lymph nodes.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Characterize lymph transport in terms of rate, volume, and ability to change.
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Chapter 20: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body Defenses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytotoxic T cells ________.
A) are the only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells
B) require the double recognition signal of I MHC plus II MHC on the target cell in order to function
C) function mainly to stimulate the proliferation of other T cell populations
D) self-destruct once the antigen has been neutralized
Q2) Small molecules that bind with self-proteins to produce antigenic substances are called ________.
A) haptens
B) antibodies
C) ions
D) reagins
Q3) Which immunoglobulin class is attached to the external surface of B cells and acts as an antigen receptor of the B cell?
A) IgM
B) IgA
C) IgD
D) IgG
E) IgE
Q4) Name four autoimmune diseases.
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Chapter 21: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Expiratory reserve volume.
Q2) A smoker sees his doctor because he had a persistent cough for months and is short of breath after very little exertion. What diagnosis will the doctor make and what can the person expect if he does not quit smoking?
Q3) Which of the choices below describes the forces that act to pull the lungs away from the thorax wall and thus collapse the lungs?
A) the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid
B) compliance and transpulmonary pressures
C) the natural tendency for the lungs to recoil and transpulmonary pressures
D) compliance and the surface tension of the alveolar fluid
Q4) TV + IRV + ERV
Q5) Which of the following is not an event necessary to supply the body with O and dispose of CO ?
A) pulmonary ventilation
B) blood pH adjustment
C) internal respiration
D) external respiration
Q6) Inspiratory reserve volume.
Page 26
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Chapter 22: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The enzymatic breakdown of any type of food molecule is called ________.
A) diffusion
B) active transport
C) hydrolysis
D) denatured
Q2) Why is it necessary for the stomach contents to be so acidic? How does the stomach protect itself from digestion?
Q3) Which of the following is (are) not important as a stimulus in the gastric phase of gastric secretion?
A) distention
B) carbohydrates
C) peptides
D) low acidity
Q4) What is heartburn and what causes it?
Q5) The major stimulus for production of intestinal fluid is distention or irritation of the intestinal mucosa by hypertonic or acidic chyme.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Produces intrinsic factor.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition, Metabolism, and Body Temperature Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best defines negative nitrogen balance?
A) Protein breakdown exceeds protein synthesis.
B) It is a condition usually caused by having a diet low in fish and meat.
C) A negative nitrogen balance is normal and is a way of maintaining homeostasis.
D) It occurs when amino acids are broken down by liver enzymes and carried to the bloodstream.
Q2) Synthesis of lipids from glucose or amino acids.
Q3) Which of the choices below is not a fate of carbohydrate taken into the body?
A) ATP production
B) lipogenesis
C) amino acid synthesis
D) direct conversion to a nucleic acid
E) glycogenesis
Q4) Lipogenesis occurs when ________.
A) there is a shortage of fatty acids
B) glucose levels drop slightly
C) excess proteins are transported through the cell membrane
D) cellular ATP and glucose levels are high
Q5) Involves the use of oxygen to pick up excess hydrogen and electrons.
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Chapter 24: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would happen if the capsular hydrostatic pressure were increased above normal?
A) Net filtration would increase above normal.
B) Net filtration would decrease.
C) Filtration would increase in proportion to the increase in capsular pressure.
D) Capsular osmotic pressure would compensate so that filtration would not change.
Q2) The factor favoring filtrate formation at the glomerulus is the ________.
A) colloid osmotic pressure of the blood
B) glomerular hydrostatic pressure
C) capsular hydrostatic pressure
D) myogenic mechanism
Q3) An excessive urine output is called anuria.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cells that are most affected by ADH.
Q5) Atrial natriuretic peptide inhibits sodium reabsorption.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Cells that reabsorb virtually all the nutrients.
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Chapter 25: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Q1) A patient is 72 years old and was admitted to the hospital for severe shortness of breath and edema to her lower extremities. She was diagnosed with heart failure. A symptom of heart failure is generalized edema. Explain the finding of generalized edema in heart failure.
Q2) Respiratory acidosis can occur when ________.
A) a person consumes excessive amounts of antacids
B) a person's breathing is shallow due to obstruction
C) a runner has completed a very long marathon
D) the kidneys secrete hydrogen ions
Q3) Salts are lost from the body in perspiration, and urine only.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proteins are highest in ________.
Q5) Weak acids are able to act as chemical buffering systems for the body because they partially dissociate.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The normal pH of blood is 7.35-7.45.
A)True
B)False
Page 30
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Chapter 26: The Reproductive System
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Q1) Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes?
A) The ampulla is the narrow constricted region.
B) The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary.
C) The isthmus is the normal site of fertilization.
D) The mesometrium supports the uterine tubes along their entire length.
Q2) Ovulation occurs when the oocyte is released into the peritoneal cavity. By what means does it usually enter the uterine tube?
Q3) The ________ of the testis nourish the newly formed sperm cells.
Q4) The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________.
A) smoking
B) a diet high in fat
C) undescended testes
D) sexually transmitted infections
Q5) The ________ plexus of testicular veins assists in cooling the testis.
Q6) Type B spermatogonia.
Q7) Vesicular (Graafian) follicle.
Q8) Produces haploid cells.
Q9) Area of compacted DNA.
Q10) Stem cell.
Q11) Location of mitochondria.
Page 31
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