Biological Science Concepts
Practice Exam
Course Introduction
Biological Science Concepts provides an introduction to the fundamental principles of biology, exploring the diversity and complexity of living organisms. This course covers cellular structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the interdependence between organisms and their environment. Students will gain an understanding of scientific inquiry and apply analytical skills to biological phenomena, laying a foundation for further studies in the life sciences. The course integrates laboratory activities and real-world examples to reinforce key concepts and develop critical thinking.
Recommended Textbook
Biology The Essentials 3rd Edition by Marille Hoefnagels Dr
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Chapter 1: The Scientific Study of Life
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Q1) In an experiment,Charles Darwin's prediction about long nectaries and long-tongued moths would be a(n)
A) standardized variable.
B) theory.
C) independent variable.
D) dependent variable.
E) hypothesis.
Answer: E
Q2) Which of the following is/are dependent variable(s)in this experiment?
A) amount of ammonium nitrate and light
B) amount of carbon dioxide
C) amount of water
D) height of the plants
E) height of the plants and amount of light
Answer: D
Q3) The scientific method cannot be used to answer questions about immaterial and philosophical issues.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) ¹ C and ¹ N have the same
A) atomic number.
B) number of protons.
C) mass number.
D) number of neutrons.
E) number of electrons.
Answer: C
Q2) Blood is closely maintained at a pH of 7.4.A patient whose blood pH drops below 7.35 is suffering from metabolic acidosis and can go into a coma.What happens to the concentration of H ions in a patient with a blood pH of 6.4?
A) H concentration is decreased 10-fold.
B) H concentration is decreased 2-fold.
C) H concentration is increased 2-fold.
D) H concentration is decreased 4-fold.
E) H concentration is increased 10-fold.
Answer: E
Q3) Water is a compound.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 3: Cells
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Q1) Which of the following roles is not performed by the rough endoplasmic reticulum nor the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
A) protein production
B) lipid production
C) detoxification of poisons
D) DNA production
E) vesicle formation for transport to the Golgi apparatus
Answer: D
Q2) Cells typically keep the surface to volume ratio high.If a cell was a cube and you doubled the height,width,and length of the cell,how much would the surface area increase?
A) 2 times greater
B) 4 times greater
C) It would stay the same.
D) 9 times greater
E) 8 times greater
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 4: The Energy of Life
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Q1) Plants require energy from light to perform photosynthesis in which glucose is formed from carbon dioxide and water.This is an example of
A) a reaction that releases energy.
B) kinetic energy.
C) a reaction that takes up energy.
D) potential energy.
E) equilibrium.
Q2) Potential energy is the energy of motion.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The vertical drop slightly after the peak of each curve on the figure illustrates
A) that enzymes will not work if temperatures are too hot (or too cold).
B) an increased rate of reaction.
C) a decreased temperature.
D) that temperatures only affect enzymes up to a specific temperature.
E) that enzymes are most efficient at cold temperatures.
Q4) Phagocytosis is the process used by cells to bring in small amounts of fluid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Photosynthesis
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Q1) If you were placing orders for experiments with rubisco,you would need ribulose bisphosphate and what other molecule to conduct the experiments?
A) glucose
B) ATP
C) carbon monoxide
D) organic compounds
E) carbon dioxide
Q2) The ________,in the chloroplast,contains photosynthetic pigments in its membrane.
A) granum
B) mesophyll
C) chlorophyll
D) thylakoid
E) stroma
Q3) Most biologists agree that the light reactions are less important than the carbon reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Respiration and Fermentation
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Q1) Glycolysis has two steps.The first step is the energy investment where ________ is used to activate the glucose molecule.
A) NAD
B) ATP
C) FAD
D) ADP
E) NADP
Q2) Which of the following toxins would interfere with the electron transport chain by preventing the formation of a proton gradient?
A) mercury
B) arsenic
C) cyanide
D) DNP
E) carbon monoxide
Q3) All diet pills are approved by the U.S.Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: DNA Structure and Gene Function
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Q1) If you were looking at an electron micrograph of a mRNA molecule being translated by many ribosomes at once,you would be looking at a picture from a prokaryote.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following diseases is caused by something other than viruses?
A) influenza
B) mononucleosis
C) polio
D) AIDS
E) diabetes
Q3) In a DNA molecule,hydrogen bonds link the
A) complementary nitrogenous bases, thus keeping the two strands of DNA parallel to each other.
B) two strands of DNA end to end during transcription and translation.
C) two strands of DNA end to end during transcription only.
D) complementary deoxyribose sugars, thus maintaining a separation between the two DNA strands.
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Chapter 8: DNA Replication,Binary Fission,and Mitosis
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Q1) The first sign of cytokinesis in an animal cell is the formation of a A) cell plate.
B) cleavage furrow.
C) cell wall.
D) nucleolus.
E) nuclear envelope.
Q2) Which of the following is correct about both binary fission and meiosis?
A) Both result in genetically identical cells.
B) Both result in one daughter cell.
C) Both are asexual forms of cell reproduction.
D) Both replicate the DNA before the cell splits.
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) What molecule holds instructions for the synthesis of proteins and copies itself before cell division?
A) ATP synthase
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) NAD
E) FAD
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Chapter 9: Sexual Reproduction and Meiosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) The chromosomal designation for a human male is A) XX.
B) XO.
C) XY.
D) YY.
E) XXX.
Q2) What process leads to siblings only sharing,on average,25% of their genetic material?
A) asexual reproduction
B) semiconservative replication
C) random fertilization
D) random orientation
E) mutation
Q3) The chromosomal designation for a human female is A) XYY.
B) XY.
C) YY.
D) XX.
E) No answer is correct.
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Chapter 10: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Average heights of American men and women have increased steadily since the 1940s.The best explanation for this observation is that height is
A) a polygenic trait.
B) influenced by an X-linked gene.
C) influenced by environmental changes like improvements in diet.
D) influenced by a Y-linked gene.
E) influenced by crossing over.
Q2) A gene that has alleles for blue,pink,red,and white flowers is pleiotropic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a diploid cell has 14 chromosomes,it will have
A) 14 pairs of homologous chromosomes.
B) 7 pairs of homologous chromatids.
C) 14 pairs of homologous chromatids.
D) 7 pairs of homologous chromosomes.
E) 14 alleles.
Q4) The environment only rarely affects gene expression.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: DNA Technology
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Q1) Applications of DNA technology may result in negative effects,including A) triggering unwanted immune responses.
B) creating too much of a cellular product.
C) insertion into an incorrect location in a chromosome.
D) triggering cancer.
E) All answers are correct.
Q2) Human DNA encodes A) proteins.
B) regulatory sequences that control gene expression.
C) tRNA.
D) rRNA.
E) All answers are correct.
Q3) A transgenic organism is an organism that receives all of its genes from only a single parent.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Transfer of transgenes from crop plants to wild relatives can render chemicals like glyphospate ineffective.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Forces of Evolutionary Change
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Q1) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation,<i>p²</i> + 2<i>pq</i> + <i>q²</i> = 1,2<i>pq</i> represents the frequency of
A) homozygous recessive individuals.
B) homozygous dominant individuals.
C) heterozygous individuals.
D) homozygous recessive and heterozygous individuals.
E) homozygous dominant and heterozygous individuals.
Q2) Which type of genetic drift occurs when many members of a population die,resulting in a great loss of genetic diversity?
A) the founder effect
B) the bottleneck effect
C) the directional effect
D) the selective effect
E) None of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) The chance that a mutation will occur is independent of whether a new phenotype will benefit a population.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Evidence of Evolution
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Q1) In the section "Investigating Life: Evolving Backwards," how did the scientists test the hypothesis?
A) They examined decrease in length of hind limbs in land-dwelling snakes.
B) They compared anatomy of fossil ancestors and extant snakes.
C) They examined decrease in length of hind limbs in marine snakes.
D) They compared terrestrial, freshwater, and marine snakes.
E) They compared anatomy of snakes, other reptiles, mammals, and birds.
Q2) The half life of ¹ C is 5,730 years.11,460 years after an organism dies what percent of the initial ¹ C will still be present in the organism bones?
A) 50%
B) 25%
C) 75%
D) 100%
E) 0%
Q3) Dinosaurs lived during the Paleozoic era.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Speciation and Extinction
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Q1) Hawthorn maggot flies that breed on native hawthorns and those that breed on introduced European apples can mate in the lab,but rarely mate in the wild.The inability to breed in the wild is an example of ________ reproductive isolation.
A) postzygotic
B) prezygotic
C) allopatric
D) sympatric
E) outgroup
Q2) The rate of background extinctions per year per million species is
A) 0.1 to 1.0 species.
B) 0.001 to 0.01 species.
C) 1.0 to 10 species.
D) 10 to 100 species.
E) No answer is correct.
Q3) A biological species is defined as a population whose members can interbreed,although the offspring may be infertile.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Evolution and Diversity of Microbial Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA that is circular and apart from the chromosome in a prokaryote is a(n)
A) ribosome.
B) endospore.
C) nucleus.
D) nucleoid.
E) plasmid.
Q2) Chloroplasts arose by endosymbiosis of a(an)
A) aerobic bacterium.
B) photosynthetic bacterium.
C) anaerobic bacterium.
D) aerobic archaeon.
E) photosynthetic archaeon.
Q3) RNA was the first molecule carrying genetic information.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Scientists have fossils of the first life on Earth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Evolution and Diversity of Plants
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Q1) The fruits of plants function in
A) providing food for animals.
B) seed protection.
C) both protecting and dispersing seeds.
D) seed dispersal.
E) both feeding animals and protecting seeds.
Q2) The ________ provide(s)a waxy coating that minimizes water loss from leaves of the plant.
A) stomata
B) roots
C) xylem
D) phloem
E) cuticle
Q3) The parts of the plant that absorb water and minerals are the A) stomata.
B) roots.
C) flowers.
D) pollen.
E) cuticle.
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Chapter 17: Evolution and Diversity of Animals
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Q1) Some animals are autotrophs.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A tunicate is a(n)
A) invertebrate chordate.
B) vertebrate.
C) echinoderm.
D) amphibian.
E) fish.
Q3) Arthropoda means "jointed foot."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following is a jawless fish?
A) skate
B) shark
C) tuna
D) salmon
E) lamprey
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Chapter 18: Populations
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Q1) Density-independent factors are abiotic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Researchers studying guppies in Trinidad found that guppies in streams with high predation reproduced earlier and more frequently.Which of the following is most important in driving the guppies to change their life history in face of predation?
A) The guppies are an equilibrium species.
B) The guppies are an opportunistic species.
C) Density-independent factors affect the guppy populations.
D) Density-dependent factors affect the guppy populations.
E) Sexual selection affects the guppy populations.
Q3) If a species of guppy lives in a stream where there is more food than they need,they are at carrying capacity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A density-independent factor is one that affects population without regard to the number of individuals per area.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) You observe a situation in which a worm and a species of mustard grow better when both are present in an ecosystem,helping one another exploit resources.You are observing
A) predation.
B) parasitism.
C) mutualism.
D) commensalism.
E) intraspecific competition.
Q2) Walleye pike fish are what?
A) secondary consumers
B) tertiary consumers
C) primary consumers
D) producers
E) decomposers
Q3) Water covers about ________ of the Earth's surface.
A) 33%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 70%
E) 80%
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Chapter 20: Preserving Biodiversity
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Q1) The ________ in the stratosphere above Earth's surface absorbs much of the harmful UV wavelengths of light.
A) benthic zone
B) ozone layer
C) cumulus clouds
D) particulate layer
E) profundal zone
Q2) Release of sulfate and nitrate during the burning of coal contributes to A) acid rain.
B) accumulation of persistent organic pollutants.
C) loss of the ozone layer.
D) the dead zone.
E) All of the answer choices are correct.
Q3) The primary cause for loss of biodiversity is A) predation.
B) parasitism.
C) genetic mutation.
D) habitat destruction.
E) global warming.
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Chapter 21: Plant Form and Function
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Q1) Roots are long and thin to make them good at absorbing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Tomatoes,squash,and beans are considered fruits because they
A) contain seeds from a flowering plant.
B) were produced by a flowering plant.
C) can have a color other than green.
D) grow above the ground.
E) can be eaten raw.
Q3) The root cap
A) protects the meristem from abrasion.
B) is located at the tip of the root.
C) secretes a lubricant for the growing root.
D) plays a role in sensing gravity.
E) All answers are correct.
Q4) The three main types of tissue formed by plant cells are ground tissue,dermal tissue,and vascular tissue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Reproduction and Development of Flowering
Plants
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Q1) Cocklebur will not flower if exposed to 8 hours of dark and 16 hours of light.It will flower if exposed to 16 hours of dark and 8 hours of light.However,if the 16 hours of dark is interrupted with a brief period of light the cocklebur will not flower.What triggers cocklebur to flower?
A) short dark periods
B) short light periods
C) long light periods
D) long dark periods
E) No answer is correct.
Q2) Whorl one,the outermost whorl of a flower,is made up of the
A) female reproductive parts of a flower.
B) male reproductive parts of a flower.
C) sepals.
D) petals.
E) stem region.
Q3) Coconuts are fruits containing seeds that are usually wind-dispersed.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: Animal Tissues and Organ Systems
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Q1) The tissue that makes up the spinal cord and brain consists of A) neurons only.
B) platelets and neuroglia.
C) platelets only.
D) neurons and platelets.
E) neurons and neuroglia.
Q2) The tissue that gives the skull its shape is shared with plants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Blood vessels are lined by a single layer of flattened cells.Which type of cells line blood vessels?
A) stratified squamous
B) simple cuboidal
C) simple squamous
D) simple columnar
E) pseudostratified columnar
Q4) The tissue which gives the outer part of the ear its shape is unique to animals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: The Nervous System and the Senses
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Q1) When a snake flicks its tongue,the tips of the forked tongue pass through openings in the palate and contact sensory cells in the snout.How would this help a snake detect its prey?
A) The snout touches the prey, stimulating mechanoreceptors that let the snake identify the prey.
B) The snake can taste its prey when it bites it to tell if it is edible.
C) The motion of the tongue moves air over the snake's snout, helping it to smell.
D) The tongue touches the prey, stimulating mechanoreceptors that let the snake identify the prey.
E) Odor molecules from the prey are brought to the snake's receptors.
Q2) The dendrite is the receiving end of a synapse.
A)True
B)False
Q3) When you smell the salty air and seaweed,what is being activated?
A) mechanoreceptor
B) thermoreceptor
C) photoreceptor
D) chemoreceptor
E) pain receptor
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Chapter 25: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Lipid-soluble steroid hormones are synthesized from A) cholesterol.
B) amino acids.
C) nucleotides.
D) proteins.
E) sucrose.
Q2) Cortisol is produced by the adrenal glands located near the kidney,yet pituitary tumors cause 70% of Cushing's syndrome cases.The best explanation for this observation is that the pituitary tumor releases
A) mineralocorticoids.
B) glucocorticoids.
C) a hormone that inhibits the adrenal gland.
D) ACTH.
E) cortisol.
Q3) Which is an endocrine gland?
A) pancreas
B) thyroid gland
C) ovaries
D) testes
E) All answers are correct.
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Chapter 26: The Skeletal and Muscular Systems
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Q1) The breast muscle of a wild duck is dark,while that of a domesticated chicken is white.The breast muscles in a wild duck are
A) fast-twitch muscles with abundant capillaries and mitochondria.
B) slow-twitch muscles with few capillaries or mitochondria.
C) slow-twitch muscles with abundant capillaries and mitochondria.
D) fast-twitch muscles with few capillaries or mitochondria.
E) a mix of fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscles.
Q2) If an older patient came in complaining of joint pain,and a scan showed the bones in the patient's hands rubbing one another,you would diagnose
A) acromegaly.
B) rheumatoid arthritis.
C) scoliosis.
D) osteoporosis.
E) osteoarthritis.
Q3) The precursor of bone is cartilage.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Circulatory and Respiratory Systems
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Q1) List the correct order of the terms below that describe the travel of an oxygen molecule in the blood from the heart to a muscle cell.
A) heart, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, interstitial fluid
B) capillaries, venules, veins, heart
C) heart, capillaries, venules, veins
D) heart, capillaries, arterioles, arteries, interstitial fluid
E) heart, capillaries, arterioles, arteries, alveoli
Q2) When taking a person's blood pressure,after proper inflation of the cuff,the first pulse sound that is heard through the stethoscope indicates that blood is flowing through the artery past the cuff.The reading on the pressure gauge at this point indicates A) that the heart is once again beating.
B) the force of contraction of the atria.
C) diastolic pressure.
D) venous pressure.
E) systolic pressure.
Q3) A decrease in the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is called anemia.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: The Digestive and Urinary Systems
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Q1) Colorless urine usually indicates excessive water intake or the ingestion of diuretics.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The semisolid mass of food and gastric juice in the human stomach is termed
A) feces.
B) chyme.
C) glottis.
D) cud.
E) mash.
Q3) Botulism is caused by an infection with <i>Clostridium botulinum</i>.The bacteria release botulinum toxin that prevents the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions.Which would be inhibited in the gut of a person with botulism?
A) blood circulation
B) lymphatic circulation
C) absorption of food
D) peristalsis
E) absorption of water
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Chapter 29: The Immune System
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Q1) Fever is considered a defense mechanism because it
A) inactivates (kills) some viruses.
B) speeds up the rate of phagocytosis.
C) reduces the iron level in the blood, thereby retarding the growth of some bacteria.
D) kills some bacteria.
E) All answers are correct.
Q2) Which is not a major part of the immune system?
A) thymus
B) bone marrow
C) spleen
D) pancreas
E) lymph node
Q3) Rh incompatibility is due to an immune reaction to what by a pregnant woman?
A) a self antigen on red blood cells
B) a foreign antibody on red blood cells
C) a foreign antigen on red blood cells
D) a self antibody on red blood cells
E) No answer is correct.
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Chapter 30: Animal Reproduction and Development
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Q1) In organisms that reproduce sexually,________ are the sex cells that carry the genetic information from each parent.
A) diploid zygotes
B) haploid zygotes
C) haploid gametes
D) diploid gametes
E) diploid hormones
Q2) A baby turtle growing into an adult that appears similar is an example of
A) direct development.
B) external fertilization.
C) internal fertilization.
D) indirect development.
E) differentiation.
Q3) The cap-like ________ covers the head of the sperm and releases enzymes that will help the sperm penetrate the egg.
A) epididymis
B) vas deferens
C) acrosome
D) mitochondria
E) nucleus
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