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Bioinformatics is an interdisciplinary field that combines biology, computer science, and mathematics to analyze and interpret vast amounts of biological data. This course introduces key concepts such as sequence alignment, gene and protein structure prediction, and the use of statistical methods to draw meaningful insights from genomic and proteomic data. Students will learn about the development and application of software tools to analyze biological sequences, molecular structures, and complex biological systems. Emphasis is placed on practical data analysis, algorithm development, and understanding the impact of bioinformatics on fields such as medicine, genetics, and biotechnology.
Recommended Textbook
Molecular Biology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark
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Q1) All of the following are eukaryotes,except .
A)plants
B)bacteria
C)animals
D)fungi
Answer: B
Q2) Membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotes that are specialized for energy production are called .
A)nuclei
B)lysosomes
C)Golgi complexes
D)mitochondria
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following is not common to all cells?
A)ribosomes
B)plasma membrane
C)nucleus
D)cytosol
Answer: C
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Q1) Which statement is false?
A)Individuals who are heterozygous for a defective gene are carriers of the defective allele.
B)Heterozygous individuals have the genetic disorder.
C)Heterozygotes have two different alleles for the same trait.
D)All of the above are false.
Answer: B
Q2) Sex-linked genes are found on .
A)the X chromosome only
B)the Y chromosome only
C)either the X or the Y chromosome
D)the autosomes
Answer: C
Q3) In the following genetic cross,Pp x Pp,what percentage of the offspring will have a recessive phenotype?
A)0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)75%
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following is not correctly paired?
A)adenine:thymine
B)guanine:cytosine
C)adenine:uracil
D)guanine:adenine
Answer: D
Q2) All of the following are found in DNA except .
A)guanine
B)thymine
C)uracil
D)adenine
Answer: C
Q3) During DNA base pairing,which of the following would be incorrectly paired?
A)guanine:cytosine
B)adenine:thymine
C)purine:purine
D)purine:pyrimindine
Answer: C
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Q1) DNA wrapped around histones are called .
A)chromatids
B)nucleosomes
C)heterochromatin
D)300 nm fibers
Q2) The most common form of DNA is A-DNA.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Topoisomerases .
A)are antibiotics that kill bacterial cells
B)bend DNA
C)change the level of supercoiling in DNA
D)repair DNA
Q4) Which of the following sequences would have the highest melting temperature relative to the others listed?
A)5'-ATATATAT-3'
B)5'-GAGAGAGA-3'
C)5'-GCGCGCGC-3'
D)5'-AAAAAAAA-3'
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Q1) An A260/A280 ratio of less than 1.8 indicates .
A)pure DNA
B)pure RNA
C)protein contamination of DNA
D)RNA contamination of DNA
Q2) At which wavelength do the bases of DNA and RNA nucleotides absorb the most light?
A)200 nm
B)260 nm
C)280 nm
D)300 nm
Q3) By what technique can individual DNA molecules be visualized?
A)electron microscopy and metal shadowing
B)light microscopy only
C)agarose gel electrophoresis
D)Northern blot
Q4) GC base pairs absorb more ultraviolet light than AT base pairs.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The enzyme that converts RNA back into a DNA copy called complementary DNA cDNA)is called .
A)DNA polymerase
B)RNA polymerase
C)cDNA polymerase
D)Reverse transcriptase
Q2) Which of the following uses an RNA template during the technique?
A)TA cloning
B)RAPD
C)Inverse PCR
D)RT-PCR
Q3) Why must DNA be denatured during PCR?
A)DNA polymerases work best at higher temperatures.
B)Denaturing DNA separates the strands of DNA and allows primers to bind to complementary sequences.
C)The degraded DNA nucleotides are recycled during the synthesis step of PCR.
D)DNA does not need to be denatured for PCR to work.
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Q1) Restriction enzymes .
A)generate either blunt or sticky ends by cutting the DNA on each strand.
B)are nucleases.
C)recognize specific sequences and cleave the DNA at the recognition site or somewhere in the vicinity.
D)are all of the above.
Q2) Cells methylate their own DNA to .
A)mark the DNA for degradation
B)prevent replication
C)protect the DNA from the cell's own restriction enzymes
D)stabilize the DNA double helix
Q3) What types of genes are found on plasmids and often used as selectable markers?
A)antibiotic resistance genes
B)multiple cloning sites
C)origins of replication
D)methylated sequences
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Q1) Dideoxy nucleotides are missing a 3' hydroxyl.
A)True
B)False
Q2) DNA chip technology relies on the hybridization of .
A)DNA to DNA
B)DNA to RNA
C)RNA to DNA
D)RNA to RNA
Q3) All of the following are second generation sequencing methods except .
A)454 sequencing
B)Illumina/Solexa sequencing
C)SOLiD/Applied Biosystems method
D)Pyrosequencing
Q4) Nanopore detectors contain pores that only allow to pass through.
A)hydrogen ions
B)single-stranded DNA
C)double-stranded DNA
D)dideoxy nucleotides
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Q1) Genes in the family are of particular interest due to their pharmaceuticals.
A)cytochrome P450
B)CYP2D6
C)Glutathione S-transferease
D)SNP
Q2) Correlating individual genotypes with drug treatment is called .
A)genomics
B)pharmacogenetics
C)pharming
D)pharmacogenomics
Q3) Eukaryotic cell lines,usually rodents,that contain chromosomal fragments from other eukaryotic species are called .
A)transfected hybrids
B)artificial chromosomes
C)radiation hybrids
D)STS/EST cell lines
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Q1) Replication always proceeds relative to the new strand.
A)unidirectional from the origin
B)left to right
C)3' to 5'
D)5' to 3'
Q2) Origins are replication are .
A)GC-rich
B)AT-rich
C)runs of adenine residues
D)heavily methylated
Q3) Replication is initiated at .
A)telomeres
B)centromeres
C)the origins are replication
D)the start of every gene
Q4) How many origins are replication are typical of bacterial circular chromosomes?
A)None.Bacterial chromosomes replicate by binary fission
B)1
C)2
D)Many.
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Q1) The is the site on the DNA where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription.
A)promoter
B)enhancer
C)5' UTR
D)origin
Q2) Constitutive genes .
A)are usually not transcribed unless they are needed
B)are only found in eukaryotes
C)are constantly transcribed
D)are only found in prokaryotes
Q3) The Sigma subunit of RNA polymerase binds to the .
A)-10 and -35 sites
B)enhancer
C)RNA
D)+1
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Q1) Ribozymes are .
A)generated from proteins
B)RNA molecules with catalytic activities
C)proteins that degrade RNAs
D)protein complexes involved in RNA processing
Q2) Which modified nucleotide base is part of the 5' cap on eukaryotic mRNAs?
A)cytosine
B)guanine
C)adenine
D)uracil
Q3) Multiple messenger RNAs can be generated from the same gene by selecting
A)an alternative promoter when available
B)a different location for the addition of the polyA)tail
C)and splicing different exon cassettes
D)all of the above
Q4) Primary transcripts are in the final form for translation into protein.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The transmission of information from messenger RNA to protein is called
A)translocation
B)transformation
C)transcription
D)translation
Q2) The RNA type that brings amino acids to the protein synthesis machinery is
A)mRNA
B)rRNA
C)snRNA
D)tRNA
Q3) Which of the following is not associated with tRNA?
A)transfer of amino acids
B)anticodon loop
C)cloverleaf appearance
D)type of RNA translated into protein
Q4) The anticodon of the tRNA is complementary to the codon on mRNA.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Denaturation destroys the primary structure of proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Enzymes the activation energy of the reaction.
A)lower
B)raise
C)inhibit
D)stabilize
Q3) In the tertiary structure of proteins,the amino acids are found in the proteins and away from water.
A)polar
B)hydrophilic
C)hydrophobic
D)charged
Q4) Dissociation refers to the loss of structure of proteins.
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
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Q1) All of the following are appropriate methods for investigating protein-protein interactions except .
A)mass spectrometry
B)two hybrid analysis
C)electrophoretic mobility shift assays
D)co-immunoprecipitation
Q2) Which method allows a researcher to find a gene based upon the protein that it encodes?
A)Co-immunoprecipitation
B)Phage display
C)RT-PCR
D)Intein trapping
Q3) When a virus displays multiple peptide sequences,this is termed .
A)phage array
B)yeast two hybrid system
C)phage display
D)protein microarray
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Q1) Autoregulation occurs when .
A)IPTG binds to LacI
B)allo-lactose binds to LacI
C)a repressor binds to its own gene to prevent transcription
D)CRP binds to cAMP and the the lac operon
Q2) Gratuitous inducers .
A)are metabolized like the natural inducer
B)are not broken down
C)are nutrient sources
D)are competitive inhibitors
Q3) All of the following are associated with two-component regulatory systems except A)gratuitous inducer
B)phosphorelay
C)DNA binding regulator
D)sensor kinase
Q4) Some nucleotides are involved in transcriptional regulation.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) In eukaryotes,negative regulation occurs by .
A)obstructing RNA polymerase II
B)interfering with activators
C)interfering with repressors
D)binding of repressors to operators
Q2) Specific transcription factors .
A)modulate gene expression in response to a specific stimulus
B)are not able to enter the nucleus of eukaryotes and instead help regulate gene expression at the post-transcriptional level
C)bind to target mRNAs prior to translation
D)prevent RNA polymerase II from binding to the DNA
Q3) Simple repressors are common in eukaryotes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Acetylated histones .
A)form highly condensed heterochromatin
B)are a target of proteases
C)never occurs
D)allow nucleosomes to be less aggregated
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Q1) RISC proteins recognize small RNA fragments called . A)Slicer
B)Dicer
C)siRNA
D)miRNA
Q2) RNA interference is triggered by .
A)dsDNA
B)dsRNA
C)ssDNA
D)ssRNA
Q3) Proteins that prevent translation of mRNA are called . A)nucleases
B)translational repressors
C)proteases
D)mRNA silencers
Q4) Attenuation of RNA involves the formation of alternate stem-loop structures.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) DNase I protection assays or DNA footprinting is useful for .
A)determining the start of transcription
B)determining the location of a DNA binding sequence
C)preventing contamination of RNA in primer extension samples
D)none of the above
Q2) Levels of transcription for a specific gene are measured using all of the following except .
A)quantitative PCR
B)reporter genes
C)primer extension
D)DNA microarrays
Q3) How might the potential binding of a protein to a specific fragment of DNA be investigated?
A)primer extension
B)western blotting
C)gel mobility shift assays
D)isoelectric focusing
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Q1) The Ti-plasmid is found in .
A)Escherichia coli
B)yeast
C)Agrobacterium tumefaciens
D)plants
Q2) All plasmids are circular
A)True
B)False
Q3) Plasmids in the same family are incompatible because .
A)they are transferable
B)they produce toxins
C)they carry genes for antibiotic resistance
D)they have similar DNA sequences in the replication genes
Q4) Which family of plasmids carries genes for antibiotic resistance?
A)R-plasmids
B)F-plasmids
C)P-plasmids
D)X-plasmids
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Q1) Plaques are the result of .
A)bacteria infecting viruses
B)viruses infecting bacteria
C)viruses lysing bacteria
D)lysogens
Q2) The early genes of viruses are transcribed by .
A)host RNA polymerase
B)viral RNA polymerase
C)DNA polymerase
D)rolling circle replication
Q3) Enveloped viruses only infect .
A)plants
B)bacteria
C)animals
D)yeast
Q4) Which enzyme is required for RNA viruses to replicate their genomes?
A)reverse transcriptase
B)RNA replicase
C)DNA polymerase
D)host RNA polymerase

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Q1) What is the purpose of the inverted repeats at the ends of DNA-based transposons?
A)The inverted repeats are recognized by enzymes that move the elements.
B)The inverted repeats are the sites of transfer.
C)The inverted repeats are recognized by restriction enzymes that cut out the transposon.
D)The inverted repeats are magnets for nucleases.
Q2) Where might mobile DNA elements be found?
A)plasmids
B)chromosomes
C)viral genomes
D)all of the above
Q3) Reverse transcsriptase is needed for .
A)the movement of retrotransposons
B)the integration of RNA transposons
C)the transcription of RNA transposons
D)the excision of retrotransposons
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Q1) Terotogenic agents .
A)generate reversions
B)always causes mutations
C)are always carcinogenic
D)have known effects on developing embryos
Q2) Which of the following is notorious for causing covalent bonding of adjacent thymine residues in DNA?
A)X-rays
B)infrared radiation
C)nucleotide analogs
D)ultraviolet radiation
Q3) DNA polymerases often proofread their recently inserted nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A mutation has no effect on phenotype.
A)frameshift
B)deletion
C)silent
D)nonsense
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Q1) Mutations in RAD genes cause .
A)recombination to occur randomly
B)radiation sensitivity
C)excessive recombination events during meiosis
D)a decline in gamete production
Q2) Homologous recombination is .
A)the exchange of DNA between similar sequences
B)the exchange of DNA between dissimilar sequences
C)the formation of a heteroduplex
D)the removal of a holiday junction
Q3) Xis protein .
A)is involved in X-inactivation in female animals
B)helps recombine homologous sequences
C)is used to excise previously recombined DNA segments
D)all of the above
Q4) Chi sites are .
A)generated from Holliday junctions
B)inverted repeats
C)binding sites for RecA protein
D)specific sequences in prokaryotic genomes where crossovers occur
26
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Q1) The preferential transfer of DNA fragments using viruses is called .
A)generalize transduction
B)specialized transduction
C)conjugation
D)transformation
Q2) The mechanism of transfer of the F-plasmid in conjugation involves
A)viruses
B)donor cell death
C)bidirectional replication
D)rolling circle replication
Q3) Only the can initiate conjugation.
A)F<sup>-</sup>
B)F<sup>+</sup>
C)Hfr
D)recipient
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Q1) Life likely evolved under .
A)a reducing atmosphere
B)cold conditions
C)oxidizing conditions
D)dehydrating conditions
Q2) Mitochondrial DNA .
A)has a high mutation rate
B)is useful for determining paternal ancestry
C)has a low mutation rate
D)is only present in animal cells
Q3) Recent evolutionary changes are easier to identify from .
A)DNA with slow mutation rates
B)DNA with high mutation rates
C)ribosomal RNA sequences
D)Y chromosomes
Q4) Evolution relies upon .
A)mutations made in somatic cells only
B)mutations occurring in gametes
C)mutations that result in altered protein function of somatic cells
D)mutations in mRNA only
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