Bioethics and Genetics Test Bank
Course Introduction
This course explores the ethical issues arising from advances in genetic science and biotechnology. Students will examine topics such as genetic testing, genome editing (including CRISPR technology), cloning, genetic privacy, reproductive decision-making, and the implications of gene therapy. Through case studies and contemporary debates, the course emphasizes the social, legal, and philosophical dimensions of how genetic knowledge and technologies impact individuals, families, and society. Students will develop critical skills for analyzing ethical dilemmas in genetics and formulating well-reasoned positions on complex bioethical questions.
Recommended Textbook
Human Heredity Principles and Issues 10th Edition by Michael Cummings
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19 Chapters
1035 Verified Questions
1035 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1120 Page 2
Chapter 1: A Perspective on Human Genetics
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21999
Sample Questions
Q1) Genetics is defined as the study of ____.
A) diseases
B) DNA
C) heredity
D) chromosome structure
E) more than one of these
Answer: C
Q2) Gene therapy can best be described as ____.
A) the elimination of a defect (mutation) in a gene
B) the insertion of normal genes to act in place of mutant genes
C) the insertion of human genes into other organisms
D) the cloning of genes to produce and purify therapeutically useful proteins
E) the mapping of all human genetic information
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Cells and Cell Division
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22000
Sample Questions
Q1) In spermatogenesis, what cells form in meiosis II?
A) Primary spermatocytes
B) Secondary spermatocytes
C) Spermatids
D) Mature sperm
E) More than one of these
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins?
A) Energy carrier
B) Structure of bones
C) Enzymes
D) Hormones
E) All of these are functions of proteins
Answer: A
Q3) Mitotic divisions reduce the number of chromosomes found in daughter cells.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) There are __________ autosomes present in a human egg.
Answer: 22
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Chapter 3: Transmission of Genes From Generation to Generation
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55 Verified Questions
55 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22001
Sample Questions
Q1) A cross between two individuals who differ with respect to two gene pairs is a ____________________ cross.
Answer: dihybrid
Q2) In a situation with codominant inheritance _____.
A) there is no recessive phenotype
B) each allele is fully and completely expressed
C) the principles of Mendelian inheritance are intact
D) independent assortment can predict the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring
E) all of these are true
Answer: E
Q3) The separation of members of a gene pair into the gametes is called ____________________.
Answer: segregation
Q4) Two parents with type A blood have a child who is type O. The parents' genotypes must be ____________________ and ____________________ or they must have the ____________ phenotype.
Answer: AO; AO; Bombay
Q5) Pure-breeding individuals always have the ____________________ genotype. Answer: homozygous
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Chapter 4: Pedigree Analysis in Human Genetics
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amal has a serious metabolic disorder known as PKU. His sister has the same disorder. Neither of Amal's parents have the disorder. What is the most likely inheritance pattern of this disorder?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked dominant
D) X-linked recessive
E) It is not possible to tell the inheritance pattern from this information.
Q2) Is it easier to work out pedigrees for dominant traits than for recessive ones? What can complicate the analysis of dominant traits?
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an autosomal recessive trait?
A) All of the children of two affected individuals are affected.
B) If two individuals are heterozygous, the risk of having an affected child is 1:4.
C) For rare traits, affected individuals have unaffected parents.
D) Every affected individual has at least one affected parent.
E) All of these are characteristic of an autosomal recessive trait.
Q4) Huntington's disease, a severe autosomal dominant neurological disorder, shows a ____________________ in its expression.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Complex Patterns of Inheritance
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the threshold model, for a family in which a disorder occurs, the risk of the disorder decreases as relatedness decreases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A diet rich in ___ has been shown to reduce the incidence of spina bifida.
A) vitamin C
B) niacin
C) folate
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin E
Q3) King Frederick William of Prussia failed in his attempts to create an army of giants because of all the following reasons except one. Select the exception.
A) Human life spans are too long.
B) Children of the crosses were actually shorter than their parents.
C) Size in humans is too complex a trait.
D) There was too much resistance to his program because of ethical considerations.
E) There are no exceptions. All of these reasons are correct.
Q4) The hormone leptin is produced in ____________________ cells.
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Chapter 6: Cytogenetics: Karyotypes and Chromosome
Aberrations
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a mother already has a child with chromosomal abnormalities, the risk of having another child with chromosomal abnormalities is 10 percent.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The effect of colcemid on cells is to stop division at anaphase.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe the chromosomal constitution of the four cells of meiosis if a nondisjunction event occurred in Anaphase I.
Q4) What would be the karyotypic designation of a female with trisomy for the X chromosome? ____________________
Q5) Most triploid zygotes arise from
A) fertilization of a diploid egg by a normal haploid sperm.
B) fertilization of a normal haploid egg by a diploid sperm.
C) fertilization of a normal haploid egg by two sperm.
D) nondisjunction during the zygote's first mitotic division.
E) fusion of the zygote with an unfertilized egg.
Page 8
Q6) Cell-free fetal DNA originates from the breakdown of fetal cells in the __________.
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Chapter 7: Development and Sex Determination
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59 Verified Questions
59 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The undifferentiated genitalia of an early human embryo develops into male genitalia under the influence of
A) oxytocin.
B) prostaglandin and DHT.
C) prolactin.
D) testosterone and DHT.
E) Müllerian duct inhibitors.
Q2) Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by lack of normal ____________________ in the skin.
Q3) X inactivation can lead to ____________________ in females.
Q4) The phenotypic, gonadal, and chromosomal sex are always consistent.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The embryo is called a fetus at the beginning of the third trimester.
A)True
B)False
Q6) During the third trimester, calcium in the mother's diet is used for development of the ____________________.
Q7) The duct between a testis and a seminal vesicle is the ____________________.
Q8) Compare and contrast gametogenesis in males and females.
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Chapter 8: DNA Structure and Chromosomal Organization
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22006
Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the chemical composition and structure of DNA.
Q2) What is the significance of hydrogen bonds in the shape of biological molecules?
A) They are strong bonds that join the atoms of the molecules to each other.
B) They are weak bonds that join the atoms of the molecules to each other.
C) They are weak bonds that play no role in the shape of biological molecules.
D) They are weak bonds that help determine the shape of many molecules because there are so many of them.
E) Hydrogen bonds are only of significance in DNA.
Q3) What is the percentage of individuals who died after contracting the SARS virus?
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
E) 100
Q4) If one side of a small DNA molecule has the nucleotide sequence 5'-AATCGC-3', the opposite side sequence would read (left-to-right) ____________________.
Q5) The 3' end of DNA or RNA ends with a phosphate group.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Gene Expression: From Genes to Proteins
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68 Verified Questions
68 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22007
Sample Questions
Q1) tRNAs bind to the mRNA via their ____________________.
Q2) Prions cause disease by changing the way proteins ____________________.
Q3) In protein synthesis, which RNA molecule completes the first task?
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) dRNA
E) A combination of more than one of these.
Q4) In translation, unlike DNA replication, the base-pairing rule is not required.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What happens to human mRNA before it leaves the nucleus?
Q6) For any given gene, one strand of DNA serves as a coding strand, the other as a non-coding strand. Why is a non-coding strand needed at all?
Q7) Streptomycin has its effect by causing _____________.
A) DNA polymerase to malfunction
B) errors in amino acid assembly
C) breakage of hydrogen bonds in the DNA molecule
D) errors in nuclotide assembly
E) a combination of more than one of these
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Chapter 10: From Proteins to Phenotypes
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22008
Sample Questions
Q1) Lactose intolerance is caused by a mutation in the gene that codes for lactase.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Almost 70 percent of women with breast cancer are estrogen-senstive. What does this mean?
A) They are made ill with prescriptions of estrogen.
B) Only a small amount of estrogen can exacerbate their symptoms.
C) Their own natural estrogen encourages the growth of cancer cells.
D) Their cancers go into remission with increased uptake of estrogen.
E) They do not produce their own estrogen.
Q3) Thalassemias are hemoglobin disorders in which the production of alpha and beta chains are out of balance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The existence of differential drug sensitivity serves to reinforce the idea that A) many people carry genetic defects.
B) each individual is biologically and biochemically unique.
C) drugs need to be more closely regulated.
D) metabolic blocks are a widespread phenomenon.
E) none of these is reinforced.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Mutation: the Source of Genetic Variation
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57 Verified Questions
57 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22009
Sample Questions
Q1) Explain why the phenomena of anticipation and genomic imprinting seemed at first, before they were understood, to violate basic concepts of Mendelian genetics.
Q2) In pedigree analysis, it is easiest to identify the individual most likely to be the source of the mutation if the mutation is
A) mitochondrial.
B) recessive.
C) autosomal dominant.
D) sex-linked recessive.
E) pseudoautosomal.
Q3) Which of the following will occur to a cell that undergoes a critical amount of mutational damage?
A) It will enter into senescence.
B) Apoptosis will occur.
C) It will become cancerous.
D) A and C will occur but not
E) All three will occur (A, B, and C).
Q4) The differential expression of genes depending on parental origin is called
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Chapter 12: Genes and Cancer
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22010
Sample Questions
Q1) Some cancers can be considered to be multifactorial since both genes and environment are involved in their expression.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The more cells divide, the more chances for a cancer to develop. Which of the following cells is most likely to give rise to a cancer?
A) Egg cells
B) Muscle cells
C) Nerve cells
D) Mature skin cells
E) Stem cells
Q3) Which of the following best describes the effect of cancer-causing mutations on the cell cycle?
A) The mutations increase the speed of the cycle.
B) The mutations cause the cell to bypass checkpoints in the cycle.
C) The mutations eliminate one or more stages of the cycle.
D) The mutations interfere with S stage of the cycle.
E) None of these.
Q4) The BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes both function in the process of
14
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Chapter 13: An Introduction to Genetic Technology
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22011
Sample Questions
Q1) In recombinant DNA techniques, primers and DNA fragments are linked together by
A) restriction enzymes
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA polymerase
D) DNA replicase
E) reverse transcriptase
Q2) What are the benefits of cloning animals?
Q3) To find a specific DNA sequence in a genomic library, researchers employ single-stranded RNA or DNA molecules called _________.
Q4) Vectors used in recombinant DNA technology
A) are self-replicating forms of DNA carriers.
B) are always circular DNA molecules.
C) deliver DNA to cells for replication.
D) are self-replicating forms of DNA carriers and deliver DNA to cells for replication.
E) are always circular DNA molecules and deliver DNA to cells for replication.
Q5) A method for amplifying DNA segments using DNA polymerase is ____________.
Q6) In recombinant DNA technology, _________ are used to cut DNA at specific sites.
Q7) In genomic libraries, DNA fragments are stored in ______________ chromosomes.
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Chapter 14: Biotechnology and Society
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22012
Sample Questions
Q1) Individuals with Pompe disease are unable to metabolize ___________.
A) glycogen
B) lactose
C) insulin
D) cellulose
E) fats
Q2) Some states are setting up archives of DNA profiles for all convicted criminals. Should this be extended to all citizens and become part of their basic medical records?
Q3) Animal genes cannot function in plants.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Bt crops contain a gene making them resistant to common herbicides.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are some potential problems that might result from the release of genetically engineered organisms into the environment?
Q6) Summarize the various different uses for transgenic animals and plants.
Q7) The use of recombinant DNA technology to produce commercial products is
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Chapter 15: Genomes and Genomics
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22013
Sample Questions
Q1) The term open reading frame (ORF) corresponds to the parts of genes called
Q2) Which of the following sequences indicates the promoter region of a gene?
A) CAAT
B) UAAG
C) CTTT
D) ACAT
E) TAAC
Q3) Overall, genes are unevenly distributed along their chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Two genes have a lod score of 1.2. This indicates that the two genes are most likely __________.
A) moderately linked
B) loosely linked
C) tightly linked
D) on separate chromosomes
E) in separate genomes
Q5) The scientific field of ______________ uses computers to store, analyze, visualize, and access genomic sequence data.
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Technology, Genetic Testing, and Gene Therapy
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22014
Sample Questions
Q1) Louise Brown was the first baby born as a result of ____________________.
Q2) The risk of having a premature baby is low with IVF.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ART that is employed exclusively to deal with male infertility problems is
A) IUI
B) IVF
C) GIFT
D) ZIFT
E) more than one of these
Q4) What are the problems and benefits associated with presymptomatic testing for late-onset disorders such as Huntington disease?
Q5) In estimating risks for genetic counseling, one parent with an autosomal dominant and two parents heterozygous for recessive conditions are considered to be
Q6) All newborns are screened for certain genetic disorders. Explain why this is done and why we don't do this for all genetic disorders.
Page 18
Q7) Describe two prenatal tests for genetic disorders.
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Chapter 17: Genes and the Immune System
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62 Verified Questions
62 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22015
Sample Questions
Q1) The MAC system is a group of proteins that supplements the inflammatory response.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The major obstacle to the use of xenotransplants is overcome by ________________.
A) series of injections that depress the immune systems of recipients
B) changing genetic markers in humans to make them more receptive
C) changing genetic markers in donor animals to make them more compatible with human recipients
D) introducing a complement of immune system genes to both the donor animal and recipient human
E) doing more than one of these
Q3) Activated B cells divide rapidly to produce
A) effector cells.
B) memory cells.
C) phagocytic cells.
D) effector cells and memory cells.
E) effector cells and phagocytic cells.
Q4) A protein that interacts with an antibody is called a(an) _______________.
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Chapter 18: Genetics of Behavior
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51 Verified Questions
51 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22016
Sample Questions
Q1) MZ twin concordance values are less than 100 percent in both bipolar disorder and schizophrenia. This suggests that these disorders are ______________.
A) strictly polygenic
B) multifactorial
C) X-linked
D) genetically dominant
E) not genetically based
Q2) Alcoholism has been proposed as a genetically controlled or influenced trait. Outline some of the difficulties in studying the genetics of this behavior trait, beginning with the definition of the phenotype. Can you define the problem in such a way that will provide a hypothesis as to the nature of the disorder, allowing a genetic approach to be mounted?
Q3) Since sons adopted by alcoholic men show a rate of alcoholism more like that of their biological father, there is an argument for the role of genetic factors in this disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Give evidence that might prove that human personality could be partially inherited.
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Chapter 19: Population Genetics and Human Evolution
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71 Verified Questions
71 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/22017
Sample Questions
Q1) Comparative genome studies show that humans and chimpanzees shared a common ancestor approximately ____________ million years ago.
Q2) To be effective as a force changing genetic diversity, drift requires A) a long period of time.
B) selection.
C) small, isolated populations.
D) large-scale migrations.
E) geographic stability.
Q3) If a population is in genetic equilibrium, it is in equilibrium for alleles of all genes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mutation as a force in genetic diversity serves to A) increase genetic diversity.
B) rapidly change allele frequencies.
C) maintain a genetic equilibrium.
D) work against selection.
E) do none of these.
Q5) Genetically, humans and chimpanzees are _________ percent the same.
Q6) The first hominin known to use sophisticated tools and fire was
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