Biochemistry and Molecular Genetics
Pre-Test Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an in-depth exploration of the molecular mechanisms that govern cellular function, focusing on the structure and function of biological macromolecules, metabolic pathways, and the regulation of gene expression. Students will examine the principles of biochemistry and the fundamental processes of molecular genetics, such as DNA replication, transcription, translation, and genetic mutation. Emphasis is placed on the integration of biochemical pathways and genetic control with contemporary laboratory techniques used to analyze and manipulate nucleic acids and proteins. The course prepares students for further study in medical, research, and biotechnology fields by fostering a comprehensive understanding of how molecular processes impact human health and disease.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 4th Edition by Christopher K. Mathews
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29 Chapters
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Chapter 1: The Scope of Biochemistry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Of the following biomolecules, which is found only in a monomeric form as opposed to a polymeric form?
A)amino acids
B)carbohydrates
C)lipids
D)nucleotides
E)none of the above
Answer: C
Q2) The molecule pyruvic acid is found at the crossroads of several biochemical pathways. Pyruvic acid is also known as 2-oxopropanoic acid. Based upon this name, draw the molecule.
Answer: 11ea7cd4_c4a7_7062_a2ab_79f56db8dc5b_TB2679_00
Q3) Which of the following organelles is found in plant cells, but not in animal cells
A)chloroplast
B)Golgi apparatus
C)mitochondrion
D)smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E)rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Matrix of Life: Weak Interactions in an Aqueous Environment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would likely form micelles in an aqueous solution?
A)hexane
B)glucose
C)glutamic acid
D)dodecanoic acid
E)none of the above
Answer: D
Q2) What solution conditions are required for a protein to be a positively charged macroion?
A)pH of solution is greater than the protein's pI
B)pH of solution is less than the protein's pI
C)pH of solution is greater than the protein's pI and ionic strength is low
D)pH of solution is less than the protein's pI and ionic strength is low
E)none of the above
Answer: B
Q3) Lactic acid is a common product of actively working muscle. It is transported via the bloodstream to the liver. What percent of lactic acid is ionized in the bloodstream if the pH is 7.40 and the pK<sub>a</sub> is 3.86?
Answer: 99.97% (100% using correct SF) 11ea7cd4_c4a8_33b5_a2ab_b57cb5e7ed82_TB2679_00
Page 4
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Chapter 3: The Energetics of Life
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Q1) The typical concentration of glucose-6-phosphate (G6P)in a cell is 1 mM. What concentration of glucose-1-phosphate (G1P)would be required to make the interconversion of G6P and G1P freely reversible at 37 <sup>\(\circ\)</sup>C?
G1P + H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) glucose + P<sub>i</sub> \(\Delta\)G<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>' = -20.9 kJ/mol
G6P + H<sub>2</sub>O \(\rarr\) glucose + P<sub>i</sub> \(\Delta\)G<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>= -13.8 kJ/mol
Answer: G1P \(\rarr\)G6P \(\Delta\)G<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>'= -7.1 kJ/mol \(\Delta\)G<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>' = -RT ln Q or Q = [G6P]/[G1P]= e<sup>(\(\Delta\)G<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>'/RT)</sup> [G1P] = [G6P] / e<sup>(\(\Delta\)G<sup>\(\circ\)</sup>'/RT)</sup> = 0.001 M / e<sup>(</sup><sup>7100 J/mol</sup><sup>/</sup><sup>(8.314 </sup><sup>J/mol</sup><sup>.</sup><sup>K)(310 K)</sup><sup>)</sup> = 6.4 * 10<sup>-</sup><sup>5</sup> M [G1P] = 0.064 mM
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Chapter 4: Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following is correct regarding the flow of genetic information?
A)replication uses a DNA template to form RNA which serves as the new template for DNA synthesis
B)transcription produces RNA from a DNA template using the enzyme RNA polymerase
C)translation uses mRNA as a template, rRNA to carry amino acids, and tRNA to catalyze the synthesis of proteins
D)during both replication and transcription, the products are double stranded polynucleotides
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following best explains why the ratios of A/T and G/C are 0.77 and 1.08, respectively in bacteriophage \(\varPhi\)X174?
A)the base pairing in bacteriophages is not always A-T and C-G
B)studies done with most bacteriophages do not use complete genomic DNA due to the inherent instability of phage DNA
C)bacteriophage DNA often uses bases other than A, T, C and G
D)many viruses often use single stranded DNA
E)none of the above
Q3) Show the typical hydrogen bonds that from when adenine pairs with its complimentary base.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Introduction to Proteins: the Primary Level of
Protein Structure
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Q1) Given the following peptide, what would be the overall charge at pH 5? Met-Glu-Ser-Arg-His-Phe-Pro-Asn-Ala-Glu-Cys-Ala-Ser
A)+2
B)+1
C)0
D)-1
E)-2
Q2) Which of the following pairs of amino acids could form a hydrogen bond through their R-groups?
A)serine and phenylalanine
B)aspartic acid and methionine
C)histidine and tyrosine
D)alanine and glutamine
E)leucine and cysteine
Q3) Draw each of the structures of aspartic acid that predominate at pH 1, 3, 7, and 11.
Q4) What is the pI for the following peptide: Ala-Glu-Val-Asp-Lys-Leu
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Page 7
Chapter 6: The Three-Dimensional Structure of Proteins
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Q1) Which of the following causes denaturation of a protein when disulfide bonds are present?
A)heat
B)pH changes
C)reducing agent
D)detergent
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the following contributes to a positive \(\Delta\)G for protein folding?
A)conformational entropy
B)hydrophobic effect
C)charge-charge interactions
D)internal hydrogen bonds
E)van der Waals interactions
Q3) In a typical Ramachandran plot, _____ is plotted vs _____ to illustrate _______.
A)\(\varPhi\); \(\Psi\); dependence of \(\Psi\) upon \(\varPhi\)
B) \(\Psi\); \(\varPhi\); dependence of \(\varPhi\) upon \(\Psi\)
C)\(\varPhi\); \(\Psi\); allowable combinations of \(\Psi\) and \(\varPhi\)
D) \(\Psi\); \(\varPhi\); allowable combinations of \(\Psi\) and \(\varPhi\)
E)none of the above
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Chapter 7: Protein Function and Evolution
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following models of allosteric transitions best applies to hemoglobin?
A)sequential (KNF)model
B)concerted (MWC)model
C)tertiary two-state model
D)tense versus relaxed model
E)none of the above
Q2) In sickle cell hemoglobin, a Glu is mutated to a _______. This causes the formation of _______ between hemoglobin molecules, ultimately forming large aggregates.
A)Arg; salt bridges
B)Cys; disulfide bonds
C)Val; hydrophobic interactions
D)Pro; disrupted \(\alpha\)-helix, resulting in several H-bonds and salt bridges
E)none of the above
Q3) Using the following sequence from the coding strand of DNA, determine the amino acid sequence of the corresponding protein. Make three different mutations: (1)silent, (2)missense with little or no effect upon the protein structure (indicate the amino acid substitution)and (3)nonsense.
CATTTATATGAAAGC
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Chapter 8: Contractile Proteins and Molecular Motors
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Q1) What type of secondary structure is most prominent in myosin?
A)antiparallel \(\beta\)-sheet
B)parallel \(\beta\)-sheet
C)\(\alpha\)-helix
D)3<sub>10</sub> helix
E)polyproline helix
Q2) In muscle, thin filaments are made of _______ while thick filaments are made of
A)myosin; actin
B)actin; myosin
C)myofibril; myofiber
D)myofiber; myofibril
E)none of the above
Q3) Which of the following motor proteins is correctly paired with its primary function?
A)myosin V: muscle contraction
B)myosin II: cargo transport
C)cytoplasmic dynein: bending of cilia or flagella
D)axonemal dynein: cargo transport
E)none of the above
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Carbohydrates: Sugars, Saccharides, Glycans
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Q1) What is the C-4 epimer of glucose?
A)allose
B)mannose
C)gulose
D)galactose
E)fructose
Q2) How many stereoisomers would be expected from a ketohexose?
A)4
B)8
C)16
D)32
E)64
Q3) Which of the following polysaccharides contains exclusively glucose in \(\beta\)(1\(\rarr\)4)glycosidic bonds?
A)amylose
B)amylopectin
C)glycogen
D)cellulose
E)chitin
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Chapter 10: Lipids, Membranes and Cellular Transport
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Q1) Which of the following correctly relates the status of the sodium channel during an action potential cycle? (m-gate = activation gate, h-gate = inactivation gate)
A)while resting, both the m-gate and h-gate are closed
B)during depolarization, both the m-gate and h-gate open allowing Na<sup>+</sup> to exit the cell
C)during repolarization, only the m-gate is closed
D)during the refractory period, both the m-gate and h-gate are closed
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is a common mechanism for the covalent attachment of a lipid to a peripheral membrane protein?
A)addition of a geranylgeranyl group to the hydroxyl of serine, forming an ether
B)addition of a farnesyl group to the thiol of cysteine, forming a thioether
C)addition of a myristoyl group to the amine of lysine, forming an amide
D)reaction of the amine group of phosphatidylethanolamine with the carboxylate of glutamic acid, forming an amide
E)all of the above
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Chapter 11: Enzymes: Biological Catalysts
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Q1) Which of the following cofactors is used during the activation and transfer of carbon dioxide?
A)nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)
B)thiamine pyrophosphate
C)biotin
D)coenzyme A
E)tetrahydrofolate
Q2) Which of the following scenarios would result in a relatively low energy of activation?
A)an enzyme binds to the substrate with greater affinity than the transition state
B)an enzyme binds to both substrate and transition state with equal affinity
C)an enzyme binds to the transition state with greater affinity than the substrate
D)an enzyme binds only to the transition state
E)none of the above
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13
Chapter 12: Chemical Logic of Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following accurately describes the adenylate energy charge?
A)numerator: 2 [ATP] + [ADP]; denominator: [ATP] + [ADP] + [AMP]
B)numerator: [ATP] + [ADP]; denominator: [ATP] + 0.5 [ADP] + 0.25 [AMP]
C)numerator: [ATP] + 0.5 [ADP]; denominator: 2 [ATP] + [ADP] + 0.5 [AMP]
D)numerator: [ATP] + 0.5 [ADP]; denominator: [ATP] + [ADP] + [AMP]
E)none of the above
Q2) In stage ____ metabolism, a catabolic pathway might produce ________ while the opposing anabolic pathway might produce _________.
A)2; monosaccharides; polysaccharides
B)3; CO<sub>2</sub>; glucose
C)2; acetyl CoA; lipids
D)1; amino acids; proteins
E)3; NH<sub>3</sub>; nucleotides
Q3) Complete oxidation of glucose by burning in a calorimeter gives a \(\Delta\)G°´ of -2870 kJ/mol. If we assume this to be the maximum energy that can be extracted from glucose, what is the percent of energy that is captured in a cell given that about 32 ATP can be made from a single molecule of glucose? \(\Delta\)G°´ for ATP hydrolysis is -30.5 kJ/mol while \(\Delta\)G for ATP hydrolysis in a cell is about -51 kJ/mol.
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Chapter 13: Carbohydrate Metabolism: Glycolysis,
Gluconeogenesis, Glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose
Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) During aerobic glycolysis, pyruvate is most likely oxidized to ________ while in anaerobic glycolysis, pyruvate is converted to _________.
A)acetaldehyde; ethanol
B)acetyl CoA; glyceraldehyde
C)acetyl CoA; lactate
D)acetaldehyde; lactate
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following is the fate of pyruvate in a blood cell?
A)acetyl CoA
B)carbon dioxide
C)lactate
D)ethanol
E)none of the above
Q3) If unregulated, which of the following pairs of enzymes would represent a futile cycle?
A)pyruvate kinase and pyruvate carboxylase
B)pyruvate carboxylase and phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
C)pyruvate kinase and fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
Page 15
D)fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase and phosphofructokinase
E)glucose-6-phosphatase and phosphofructokinase
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Chapter 14: Citric Acid Cycle and Glyoxylate Cycle
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Q1) Which of the following reactions is commonly used to replenish intermediates of the citric acid cycle?
A)citrate \(\rarr\)oxaloacetate + acetyl CoA
B)oxaloacetate \(\rarr\) aspartate
C)glutamate \(\rarr\) \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate
D)malate \(\rarr\) pyruvate
E)all of the above
Q2) For each molecule of acetyl-CoA that enters the citric acid cycle, which of the following best represents the net products of the cycle?
A)2 CO<sub>2</sub>, 2 NADH, 2 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 1 GTP, 1 oxaloacetate
B)1 CO<sub>2</sub>, 3 NADH, 1 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 2 GTP, 1 oxaloacetate
C)2 CO<sub>2</sub>, 3 NADH, 1 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 1 GTP, 0 oxaloacetate
D)1 CO<sub>2</sub>, 2 NADH, 1 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 2 GTP, 0 oxaloacetate
E)2 CO<sub>2</sub>, 3 NADH, 1 FADH<sub>2</sub>, 1 GTP, 1 oxaloacetate
Q3) In the citric acid cycle, acetyl-CoA reacts with ________ to produce _________.
A)fumarate; \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate
B)oxaloacetate; citrate
C)citrate; isocitrate
D)succinyl-CoA; oxaloacetate
E)malate; cis-aconitate
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Chapter 15: Electron Transport, Oxidative Phosphorylation, and Oxygen Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following correctly describes what happens in the first stage of the Q cycle, considering that one cytochrome c is reduced in the process?
A)one QH<sub>2</sub> is oxidized to QH\(\bullet\) while another Q\(\bullet\) is reduced to QH<sub>2</sub>
B)one QH<sub>2</sub> is reduced to QH\(\bullet\) while another QH\(\bullet\) is oxidized to Q
C)one QH<sub>2</sub> is oxidized to QH\(\bullet\)
D)one QH<sub>2</sub> is oxidized to Q while another Q is reduced to QH\(\bullet\)
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following uses the energy of the proton gradient to drive transport of its substrates?
A)ADP/ATP carrier
B)phosphate translocase in symport mode
C)phosphate translocase in antiport mode
D)pyruvate transport system
E)all of the above
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Chapter 16: Photosynthesis
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Q1) For every 12 molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate produced by rubisco, _____ are converted to hexoses while _____ are recycled to ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate.
A)2; 10
B)4; 8
C)6; 6
D)8; 4
E)10; 2
Q2) The regeneration phase of the dark reactions are best considered in terms of regenerating 6 molecules of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate, a process that requires 6 ATP.
Considering the number of photons required for production of ATP in the light reactions, on average, how many photons must be absorbed for each molecule of ribulose-1,5-bisphosphate regenerated?
A)1.5
B)3
C)4.5
D)6
E)9
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Chapter 17: Lipid Metabolism I: Fatty Acids, Triacylglycerols, and Lipoproteins
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Q1) Which of the following is the most important regulatory enzyme in fatty acid synthesis?
A)citrate lyase
B)malic enzyme
C)acetyl-CoA carboxylase
D)acetyl-CoA-ACP transacylase
E)malonyl-CoA-ACP transacylase
Q2) The first three reactions of \(\beta\)-oxidation are analogous to which of the following reaction sequences of the citric acid cycle?
A)aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
B)isocitrate dehydrogenase, \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase
C)\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, succinyl-CoA synthetase, succinate dehydrogenase
D)succinate dehydrogenase, fumarase, malate dehydrogenase
E)fumarase, malate dehydrogenase, citrate synthase
Q3) If gadoleic acid (20:1c\(\Delta\)9)underwent complete mitochondrial oxidation to CO<sub>2</sub>, how many ATP could be produced assuming that all reduced electron carriers are re-oxidized by the mitochondrial electron transport chain?
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Interorgan and Intracellular Coordination of Energy Metabolism in Vertebrates
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Q1) For each of the following liver enzymes, indicate what happens to the enzyme (i.e., phosphorylated/dephosphorylated )when the cell is under the influence of glucagon.
Indicate whether the enzyme is activated or inhibited and how that contributes to the overall role of glucagon.
PFK-2:
Pyruvate kinase:
Fruc-1,6-BPase:
Glycogen phosphorylase:
Q2) Under starvation conditions, which of the following shows an increase in activity in the first few days, followed by a large decrease in activity after a week?
A)use of ketone bodies by the brain
B)lipolysis
C)glycolysis
D)muscle protein mobilization
E)none of the above
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21
Chapter 19: Lipid Metabolism Ii: Membrane Lipids, Steroids,
Isoprenoids, and Eicosanoids
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Q1) The biosynthesis of cardiolipin involves the reaction of phosphatidylglycerol with a molecule of ___________.
A)phosphatidylglycerol
B)phosphatidylserine
C)phosphatidylethanolamine
D)glycerol
E)a fatty acyl-CoA
Q2) Squalene epoxidase is an example of a mixed function oxidase, meaning that it uses both _______ and _______ as substrates.
A)ATP; NADPH
B)ATP; O<sub>2</sub>
C)NAD<sup>+</sup>; NADPH
D)O<sub>2</sub>; NAD<sup>+</sup>
E)O<sub>2</sub>; NADPH
Q3) Which of the following is the regulatory step in cholesterol synthesis?
A)HMG-CoA synthase
B)HMG-CoA lyase
C)HMG-CoA reductase
D)squalene synthase
E)squalene epoxidase
Page 22
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Chapter 20: Metabolism of Nitrogenous Compounds I:
Principles of Biosynthesis, Utilization, and Turnover
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Q1) In the regulation of glutamine synthetase activity, an important regulatory protein, P<sub>II</sub> exists in two states, one with UMP covalently bound (P<sub>II</sub>-UMP), the other without (P<sub>II</sub>). Which of the following statements regarding \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate and P<sub>II</sub> is correct?
A)\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate binds to P<sub>II</sub> causing inhibition of adenylyltransferase
B)\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate binds to P<sub>II</sub> causing activation of adenylyltransferase
C)\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate binds to P<sub>II</sub>-UMP causing inhibition of adenylyltransferase
D)\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate binds to P<sub>II</sub>-UMP causing activation of adenylyltransferase
E)\(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate does not bind to either form of P<sub>II</sub>
Q2) What would be the energy requirements of the urea cycle if both nitrogens of urea came from glutamine (assuming that any NADH made was re-oxidized via electron transport/oxidative phosphorylation)? Explain how this is possible.
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23
Chapter 21: Metabolism of Nitogenous Compounds II: Amino
Acids, Porphyrins, and Neurotransmitters
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Q1) The regeneration of methionine from homocysteine relies upon the conversion of _________ to __________ as a source of carbon.
A)alanine; pyruvate
B)phenylalanine; tyrosine
C)cystathionine; cysteine
D)proline; glutamate
E)serine; glycine
Q2) The importance of regenerating methionine can be seen in the multiple methionine regeneration pathways found in the liver, such as the pathway that uses betaine as a methyl group donor. What glycerophospholipid component is the precursor for betaine?
A)ethanolamine
B)glycerol
C)choline
D)serine
E)none of the above
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24
Chapter 22: Nucleotide Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following shows the correct and complete flow of electrons for ribonucleotide reductase?
A)NADH\(\rarr\)FAD \(\rarr\)thioredoxin \(\rarr\) ribonucleotide reductase
B)NADPH \(\rarr\) glutathione \(\rarr\) glutaredoxin \(\rarr\) ribonucleotide reductase
C)NADPH \(\rarr\) thioredoxin \(\rarr\)cytochrome-b \(\rarr\) ribonucleotide reductase
D)FADH<sub>2</sub> \(\rarr\)glutathione \(\rarr\) glutaredoxin \(\rarr\)ribonucleotide reductase
E)none of the above
Q2) What molecule(s)is(are)the source of the two nitrogen atoms for pyrimidine synthesis?
A)asparagine
B)glutamine, glutamate
C)aspartate, carbamoyl phosphate
D)carbamoyl phosphate, glutamine
E)aspartate, glutamate
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Chapter 23: Mechanisms of Signal Transduction
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Q1) When a nerve cell terminates at a muscle cell, the action potential causes opening of _____ channels that results in muscle contraction.
A)Na<sup>+</sup>
B)K<sup>+</sup>
C)Ca<sup>2+</sup>
D)Cl<sup>-</sup>
E)none of the above
Q2) What happens when the GTPase activity of a G protein is blocked?
A)the \(\alpha\) subunit associates only with the \(\beta\) subunit, not the \(\gamma\)subunit
B)GTP cyclizes to cGMP
C)binding to GAP occurs with very high affinity
D)adenylate cyclase remains active
E)none of the above
Q3) Which second messenger is produced as a result of nitric oxide binding?
A)cAMP
B)cGMP
C)PIP<sub>2</sub>
D)InsP<sub>3</sub>
E)DAG
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Chapter 24: Genes, Genomes and Chromosomes
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Q1) Which of the following describes a proper organization sequence for DNA in the nucleus?
A)DNA helix \(\rarr\) nucleosome \(\rarr\)chromatin fiber \(\rarr\)condensed fiber
B)DNA helix \(\rarr\)chromatin fiber \(\rarr\)nucleosome \(\rarr\) condensed fiber
C)DNA helix \(\rarr\) condensed fiber \(\rarr\) nucleosome \(\rarr\) chromatin fiber
D)DNA helix \(\rarr\) nucleosome \(\rarr\) condensed fiber \(\rarr\) chromatin fiber
E)none of the above
Q2) What is the term used to describe genetic variation that occurs among individuals of the same species resulting in gain or loss of restriction sites that can be detected by Southern analysis?
A)polymorphism
B)hybridization
C)clone
D)epigenetic variant
E)none of the above
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Chapter 25: DNA Replication
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Q1) Which of the following DNA polymerases is correctly defined?
A)polymerase I: DNA repair
B)polymerase I: RNA primer excision
C)polymerase II: DNA repair
D)polymerase III: nucleotide incorporation during replication
E)all of the above
Q2) Which of the subunits of DNA polymerase III is responsible for the high processivity of the enzyme?
A)\(\beta\)
B)\(\gamma\)
C)\(\delta\)
D)\(\delta\)'
E)\(\varepsilon\)
Q3) In DNA synthesis, the _____________ strand is synthesized in a __________ fashion.
A)template; discontinuous
B)template; continuous
C)leading; discontinuous
D)lagging; discontinuous
E)none of the above
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Chapter 26: DNA Restructuring: Repair, Recombination, Rearrangement, Amplification
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Q1) Which of the following types of DNA repair is often coupled with transcription?
A)photoreactivation
B)base excision repair
C)replication
D)nucleotide excision repair
E)all of the above
Q2) What is a common trigger for the bacterial SOS response?
A)thymine starvation
B)DNA cross-linking agents such as mitomycin C
C)ultraviolet radiation
D)mutation of DNA replication genes
E)all of the above
Q3) What is the correct order of enzyme activities required for nucleotide excision repair?
A)exonuclease, helicase, polymerase, ligase
B)exinuclease, helicase, polymerase, ligase
C)exonuclease, polymerase, ligase, helicase
D)exinuclease, polymerase, ligase, helicase
E)exonuclease, ligase, polymerase, helicase
Q4) Show the common base pair seen between 8-oxoguanine and adenine.
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Chapter 27: Information Readout: Transcription and
Post-Transcriptional Processing
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Q1) Rifampicin is known to inhibit RNA synthesis in E. coli. Once the first ten nucleotides have been incorporated, rifampicin does not inhibit RNA synthesis. Which of the following best explains how rifampicin functions?
A)rifampicin binds only to the core enzyme when bound to DNA but can bind to the holoenzyme when not bound to DNA
B)rifampicin can bind to RNA polymerase when the polymerase is not bound to DNA but cannot bind when the polymerase is bound to DNA
C)rifampicin only inhibits when the \(\alpha\) subunit is bound to the core enzyme
D)rifampicin is able to bind to the nucleotide binding site at any time E)none of the above
Q2) What is required for conversion from the closed-promoter complex to open-promoter complex?
A)ATP binding
B)ATP hydrolysis
C)GTP binding
D)GTP hydrolysis
E)DNA bending
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Chapter 28: Information Decoding: Translation and Post-Translational
Protein Processing
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Q1) In most cases, the first codon in prokaryotic mRNA codes for ________ while the first codon in eukaryotic mRNA codes for ________.
A)methionine; N-formylmethionine
B)N-formylmethionine; methionine
C)proline; N-formylproline
D)N-formylproline; proline
E)none of the above
Q2) Which of the following explains how an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase (AARS)recognizes the correct tRNA?
A)the AARS always recognizes the anticodon
B)the AARS always recognizes elements of the acceptor stem
C)the AARS always recognizes the size and sequence in the variable loop
D)the AARS always recognizes elements in the D loop and T<sub>\(\Psi\)</sub>C loop
E)the mechanism of AARS recognition varies from one enzyme to another
Q3) Translate the following mRNA into a peptide using the standard genetic code: 5'-AUGCGGAUCCAUGUACAACUGGACGCAGUACCGUAACGCGAU-3'
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Chapter 29: Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) What is thought to occur when CRP binds to DNA?
A)formation of a hairpin that prevents progression of RNA polymerase
B)bending of DNA to facilitate RNA polymerase binding
C)blocking of promoter regions to prevent binding of RNA polymerase
D)forms non-covalent interactions with RNA polymerase to bind it to DNA
E)none of the above
Q2) Give the sequence and draw the first two residues of a morpholino oligo that would serve as an antisense RNA for the following mRNA sequence (you may use the letter A, C, G and U to denote the bases):
5'-CAUGUCC-3'
Q3) Which of the following is the true inducer that binds to the lac repressor in vivo?
A)lactose
B)glucose
C)galactose
D)isopropyl-\(\beta\)-thiogalactoside
E)allolactose
Q4) Show how glutamine interacts with an A-T base pair as seen in the cI and Cro repressors.
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