

Course Introduction
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Course Introduction
Behavioral Neuroscience explores the biological foundations of behavior, emphasizing the structure and function of the nervous system as it relates to emotion, learning, memory, sensation, motivation, and psychological disorders. This course examines how neural circuits and neurotransmitters influence both normal and pathological behaviors, integrating findings from animal models and human studies. Students will gain an understanding of experimental methods, brain anatomy, and the ways in which behavior and cognition are shaped by genetic, developmental, and environmental factors.
Recommended Textbook
Discovering Behavioral Neuroscience 3rd Edition by Laura Freberg
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2682 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)technology is based on
A)magnetism.
B)radioactivity
C)X-rays.
D)the gamma camera.
Answer: A
Q2) Federal ethical guidelines apply to
A)all research conducted in the United States.
B) projects and institutions receiving federal support only.
C) research using humans, but not animals.
D) research conducted by faculty, but not by students.
Answer: B
Q3) What is one advantage of magnetoencephalography (MEG)over electroencephalography (EEG)?
Answer: Because the skull bones block most of the electricity but little of the magnetism produced by the brain,the EEG gives only an approximation of brain activity compared to the accuracy and localization provided by MEG.
Q4) In this illustration,a lesion is being produced in the rat's
Answer: ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH)
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Q1) Although the human cerebral cortex performs many higher order cognitive functions,
A)its volume is similar to the cortex of cats and dogs.
B)its functions are quite different from the functions performed by the cortex of other mammals.
C)it makes up nearly the entire volume of the cerebral hemisphere.
D)it makes up only a thin layer of tissue covering the cerebral hemispheres.
Answer: D
Q2) All cranial nerves carry both sensory and motor information to and from the brain.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) Which of the following pairs of terms mean the same thing?
A)ventral-superior
B)dorsal-inferior
C)rostral-anterior
D)caudal-ipsilateral
Answer: C
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Sample Questions
Q1) Extracellular fluid is rich in
A)K+, with small amounts of Na+ and Cl-.
B) K+ and Cl-, with very small amounts of Na+.
C) Cl-, with very small amounts of K+ and Na+.
D) Na+ and Cl-, with small amounts of K+.
Answer: D
Q2) The swelling at the end of an axon is known as an axon
A)spine.
B)hillock.
C)collateral.
D)terminal.
Answer: D
Q3) Tetrodotoxin,the poisonous substance produced by the puffer fish,interacts with which of the following?
A)sodium channels that are dependent on voltage
B) calcium channels located at the axon terminal
C) hydrogen channels located on postsynaptic dendrites
D) potassium channels located on the axon membrane
Answer: A

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Sample Questions
Q1) Tryptophan serves as a precursor in the synthesis of A)serotonin.
B)dopamine.
C)norepinephrine.
D)epinephrine.
Q2) Use of MDMA (ecstasy)may damage neurons using the neurotransmitter
A)serotonin.
B)dopamine.
C)ACh.
D)glutamate.
Q3) Neurohormones produce their effects by traveling to target areas through the blood supply.
A)True B)False
Q4) Which of the following substances is not a neuropeptide?
A)oxytocin
B)adenosine
C)vasopressin
D)insulin
Q5) Describe the functions of one of the major neuropeptides.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the dorsal-ventral differentiation of the neural tube.
Q2) How many chromosomes do human beings typically have?
A)20 pairs for a total of 40 chromosomes
B)21 pairs for a total of 42 chromosomes
C)22 pairs for a total of 44 chromosomes
D)23 pairs for a total of 46 chromosomes
Q3) Programmed cell death is known as
A)fasciculation.
B)apoptosis.
C)anterograde degeneration.
D)retrograde degeneration.
Q4) Aging is associated with reduced rates of neurogenesis in the ________ in a wide range of mammalian species.
A)hypothalamus
B)amygdala
C)visual cortex.
D)hippocampus
Q5) What is spina bifida?
Q7) Describe the process of apoptosis. Page 7
Q6) Describe what it means to be an imprinted gene.
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Q1) The ventral stream projects to the
A)lateral parietal lobe and participates in the analysis of movement.
B)inferior temporal lobe and participates in object recognition.
C)superior parietal lobe and participates in object recognition.
D)dorsal frontal lobe and participates in the analysis of movement.
Q2) Information from the left half of the visual field is processed by
A)the left eye and the left occipital cortex.
B)both the right and left occipital cortices.
C)both eyes and the right hemisphere occipital cortex.
D)both eyes and the left hemisphere occipital cortex.
Q3) The fusiform face area (FFA)is found within Area
A)MT.
B)MST.
C)V4.
D)IT.
Q4) Describe some of the weaknesses of the hierarchical model of visual perception.
Q5) What is the function of the cornea of the eye?
Q6) What are the functions of amacrine cells?
Q7) Describe the opponent process theory of color vision.
Q8) What causes astigmatism?
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Sample Questions
Q1) Periaqueductal gray contains large numbers of _________ receptors.
A)glutamate
B)Substance P
C)endorphin
D)serotonin
Q2) Axons from ________ first synapse in the superior olive in the pons,which in turn forms connections via the lateral lemniscus with the inferior colliculus.
A)the spiral ganglion cells.
B)the dorsal cochlear nucleus.
C)the ventral cochlear nucleus.
D)both the dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei
Q3) Conduction loss results from damage to
A)primary auditory cortex.
B)the superior olive.
C)the inner ear.
D)the outer or middle ear.
Q4) Meissner's corpuscles feature small receptive fields and rapid adaptation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is otosclerosis and how is it treated?
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Q1) Recruitment proceeds in a way that ensures that the
A)least amount of energy and force possible will be used to do a job.
B)greatest amount of energy and force possible will be used to do a job.
C)fastest fibers will be recruited first to produce optimum reaction time.
D)fibers with the greatest oxygen requirements will be used only when absolutely necessary for survival.
Q2) Activity in the basal ganglia is lower than normal in cases of
A)Alzheimer's disease.
B)Huntington's disease.
C)Parkinson's disease.
D)muscular dystrophy.
Q3) Black widow spider venom affects movement by blocking receptors for acetylcholine in the postsynaptic membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A muscle relaxes after contracting when
A)calcium is taken up by internal organelles.
B)internal acetylcholine is broken apart by acetylcholinesterase.
C)troponin is taken up by internal organelles.
D)myosin and actin begin to interact.
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Q1) Hypovolemic thirst results from
A)increases in blood pressure.
B)decreases in blood volume.
C)feelings of a dry mouth.
D)decreases in intracellular fluid levels.
Q2) Amanda went on a crash diet in order to look terrific for a friend's wedding.She consumed only 800 calories per day compared to the 3,000 calories per day she normally consumed.After the wedding,she found that she rapidly passed up her original weight by ten pounds,even though she was eating 2,500 calories per day instead of her original 3,000.What's going on here?
A)Amanda must have reduced her activity level substantially.
B)Amanda's metabolism must have slowed down too much because of her dramatic restriction of calories.
C)Amanda must be cheating. There is no way this could happen if she ate 2,500 calories per day.
D)Everybody gets larger when they get older.
Q3) Ectoderms maintain a much lower internal body temperature than endoderms.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Progesterone
A)stimulates ovulation.
B)promotes the development of follicles.
C)promotes the development of the corpus luteum.
D)promotes the development of the uterine lining.
Q2) When Anita was 10 years old,she was the tallest girl in her fourth grade class.She also began to menstruate when she was 10 years old.Given what we know about the effects of estradiol,we can expect that at age 17,Anita will be
A)one of the tallest girls in her class, because she started growing so early.
B)quite obese, because estradiol tends to make women fat.
C)not much taller than she was at 10 years old.
D)very popular among her female peers, because she matured so early.
Q3) Concordance rates among identical male twins for homosexuality are about _________ percent.
A)25
B)50
C)75
D)90
Q4) What hormonal changes occur at puberty?
Q5) What processes determine the development of external genitalia?
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Q1) Jet lag is
A)worse when one travels in an eastward direction.
B)worse when one travels in a westward direction.
C)worse when one travels in a northward direction.
D)dependent on distance traveled, not direction.
Q2) Ryan's little brother frequently wakes up screaming a few hours after going to bed and complains about a "bear" sitting on him.It is likely that Ryan's brother is experiencing
A)myoclonia.
B)a sleep terror.
C)a nightmare.
D)lucid dreaming.
Q3) During an attack of cataplexy,the person
A)falls into a full NREM sleep episode.
B)falls into a full REM sleep episode.
C)experiences REM dreaming without paralysis.
D)is awake, but experiences REM paralysis.
Q4) The frontal lobes are more active during REM sleep than during wakefulness.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Limited quantities of information - about 5 to 9 items - can be held for a maximum of 15-18 seconds in _________ memory.
A)sensory
B)short-term
C)long-term
D)episodic
Q2) How does long-term depression occur in the cerebellum?
Q3) Which of the following persons might be least apt to have age-related memory loss?
A)Alice, who at 78 is active in her church, still walks two miles a day, and has recently joined the Great Books Club, which meets regularly for literature discussions in her neighborhood
B)Mary, who at 78 is widowed and is quite content to be alone
C)Anita, who is 78, has never married, lives in a peaceful country home, and spends a great deal of time knitting and crocheting for charity
D)Joanne, who is 78 and spends most of her time watching television game shows
Q4) Referring to the numbered structures in this illustration,describe the flow of information along the perforant pathway,the mossy fiber pathway,and the Schaffer collateral pathway.
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Q1) In a dichotic listening test for which he volunteered,Justin was able to repeat the words presented to his right ear,but he did a better job evaluating the emotional tone of a word when it was presented to his left ear.It is most likely that
A)Justin is left-handed.
B)Justin is right-handed.
C)Justin is ambidextrous, showing no preference for one hand over the other.
D)no predictions about Justin's handedness can be made without further information.
Q2) Those suffering from Wernicke's aphasia are usually unaware of their symptoms,and thus experience no distress over the condition.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Wada test provides information about
A)the severity and frequency of seizures following a split brain operation.
B)the localization of language to one hemisphere or the other.
C)a person's level of exposure to prenatal androgens.
D)a child's level of risk for verbal learning disabilities.
Q4) What do dichotic listening tests tell us about lateralization of language and emotion?
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Q1) When receptors in the amygdala report high levels of cortisol,the amygdala inhibits further activity in the HPA axis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Describe the roles of the amygdala and prefrontal cortices in impulsive aggression.
Q3) Damage to one cerebral hemisphere generally produces paralysis in the
A)contralateral upper and lower face.
B)ipsilateral upper and lower face.
C)contralateral upper face without effect on the lower face.
D)contralateral lower face without effect on the upper face.
Q4) How many major branches does the facial nerve have?
A)two
B)four
C)five
D)seven
Q5) The structure labeled number 1,the _________________________,connects the structures labeled 2,the ____________________,and ____________________,with the structure labeled 4,the ____________________ and other areas of the frontal lobes.
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Q1) Paroxysmal depolarizing shifts (PDS)characterize which of the following types of seizures?
A)petit mal and grand mal
B)petit mal and simple partial
C)simple and complex partial
D)grand mal and complex partial
Q2) Reactive neuroplasticity involves structural changes in the brain due to learning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Multiple small strokes
A)typically are no cause for concern.
B)are not predictive of later larger strokes.
C)can produce significant damage.
D)do not produce true infarcts.
Q4) Initial symptoms of HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND)may mimic
A)meningitis.
B)West Nile virus infection.
C)depression.
D)schizophrenia.
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Q1) Based on research investigating the relationship of sleep to depression,we can conclude that
A)depression produces changes in sleep patterns.
B)changes in sleep patterns produce depressed mood.
C)depression is correlated with a phase advance in sleep.
D)depression is correlated with a phase delay in sleep.
Q2) What evidence points to a larger disturbance of circadian rhythms in major depressive disorder and bipolar disorder?
Q3) Treatments emphasizing anger control and moral reasoning are
A)ineffective with both criminal and psychopathic populations.
B)modestly effective with psychopathic youth.
C)modestly effective with criminal youth, but not with psychopaths of any age.
D)significantly effective with both criminals and psychopaths of any age.
Q4) SSRI Medication produces remission from depression symptoms in _________ of all cases.
A)nearly 100 percent
B)about 75 percent
C)nearly half
D)around one third
Q5) Discuss the correlations between brain activity and antisocial behavior.
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