Basic Physiology Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Basic Physiology introduces students to the fundamental principles and mechanisms underlying the function of the human body. The course covers major physiological systems, including the nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, muscular, digestive, renal, and endocrine systems. Emphasis is placed on understanding how cells, tissues, and organs work both independently and together to maintain homeostasis. Through lectures, laboratory exercises, and case studies, students gain a foundational knowledge of physiological processes, preparing them for further study in health and life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 14th Edition by Gerard J. Tortora
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Chapter 1: An Introduction to the Human Body
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Q1) The two organ systems that regulate and maintain homeostasis are the
A)cardiovascular and integumentary systems.
B)nervous and endocrine systems.
C)cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
D)respiratory and muscular systems.
E)urinary and integumentary systems.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following anatomical terms refers to the front of the elbow?
A)olecranal
B)antecubital
C)carpal
D)digital
E)antebrachial
Answer: B
Q3) Describe the differences between positive and negative feedback systems.
Answer: A positive feedback system will strengthen or reinforce a change in one of the body's controlled conditions while a negative feedback system will reverse a change in a controlled condition.
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Q1) Describe the functions of water in the body.
Answer: Water is a solvent that allows transportation of solutes.Water acts in hydrolysis reactions to split reactants.Water can transport heat in the body and can be used to release heat from the body as occurs in sweating.Water is used as a lubricant,particularly in serous fluids like those surrounding the lungs and on mucosal membranes like those lining the gastrointestinal tract. Question
Q2) AB + CD AD + BC is a general example of a(n)_____ reaction.
A)decomposition
B)synthesis
C)exchange
D)reversible
E)catalyzed
Answer: C
Q3) Briefly describe the octet rule.
Answer: One atom is more likely to combine with another atom if doing so will leave both atoms with eight electrons in their valence shells. Question
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Q1) Which of the following membrane-enclosed organelles can engulf a worn-out organelle,digest its chemical components,and recycle those digested components?
A)peroxisomes
B)mitochondria
C)proteasome
D)ribosomes
E)lysosomes
Answer: E
Q2) During this phase of cell division,organelles duplicate and centrosome replication begins.
A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
E)telophase
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Q1) Which of the following is an abnormal joining of tissues resulting from the formation of scar tissue at a previous site of inflammation or surgical repair?
A)adhesions
B)articulations
C)cysts
D)granulomas
E)osteophytes
Q2) In which of the following types of membranes would you expect to find goblet cells?
A)mucous membrane
B)serous membrane
C)cutaneous membrane
D)synovial membrane
E)plasma membrane
Q3) Discuss the difference(s)between an endocrine and an exocrine gland.
Q4) Discuss the three functional classifications of exocrine glands secretions.
Q5) Briefly describe the four parts of an osteon.
Q6) Discuss how a damaged tissue is repaired.
Q7) Name and describe the types of cells commonly found in connective tissue.
Q8) Name and briefly describe the two types of growth seen in cartilage.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System Unit Ii: Principles of
Support and Movement
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Q1) Describe how fingerprints are formed and what they are used for.
Q2) Keratin
A)is a protein.
B)is secreted by plasma cells to help protect the body from viruses.
C)is made by melanocytes only.
D)is both a protein and made by melanocytes only.
E)All of these choices are correct.
Q3) This is fine non-pigmented hair that covers the body of the fetus.
A)Alopecia
B)Vellus
C)Lanugo
D)Papilla
E)Lunula
Q4) Which of the following structures found in the skin help prevent water loss and inhibit bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?
A)Arrector pili
B)Lunula
C)Sweat glands
D)Hair follicles
E)Oil glands
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Chapter 6: The Skeletal System: Bone Tissue
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Q1) Which layer of hyaline cartilage allows the diaphysis to grow in length?
A)periosteum
B)distal epiphysis
C)nutrient foramen
D)articular cartilage
E)epiphyseal plate
Q2) Which of the following hormones is the most important for Ca<sup>2+</sup> regulation?
A)parathyroid hormone
B)calcitriol
C)thyroid hormone
D)calcitonin
E)aldosterone
Q3) Describe the steps in bone repair.
Q4) List and briefly describe the six main functions of the skeletal system.
Q5) Describe the signs and symptoms of osteoporosis and describe the risk factors for developing osteoporosis.
Q6) Briefly,explain how blood calcium level is regulated.
Q7) Briefly describe the steps in bone deposition.
Q8) Briefly describe the major differences between compact and spongy bone.
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Chapter 7: The Skeletal System: the Axial Skeleton
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Q1) The branch of medicine that deals with correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system is called
A)Rheumatics
B)Podiatry
C)Orthopedics
D)Cardiology
E)Dermatology
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
A)Vomer
B)Palatine
C)Lacrimal
D)Occipital
E)Mandible
Q3) Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly?
A)Females
B)Males
C)Both genders
D)The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender
Q4) Briefly describe the function of the fontanels.
Q5) Briefly describe the function of the paranasal sinuses.
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Chapter 8: The Skeletal System: the Appendicular Skeleton
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Q1) Why does a fracture of the clavicle usually occur in the mid-region of the bone?
A)Due to the medial pressure from the inflated lungs
B)Due to the ligament-reinforced strength of the acromial joint
C)Due to weakness at the junction of the two curves of clavicle
D)Due to position of the clavicle relative to the humerus
E)Due to fusion of the ends of the clavicle to the sternum and scapula
Q2) This is a common condition experienced by runners,which is caused by the kneecap tracking laterally as well as inferiorly and superiorly.
A)Patellofemoral stress syndrome
B)Metatarsal microfracture
C)Bunions
D)Hallux valgus
E)Plantar fasciitis
Q3) How many phalanges are in each hand?
A)10
B)12
C)14 D)16
E)20
Q4) Name the bones that are included in each lower limb.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) What type of special movement occurs in your clavicles at your acromioclavicular and sternoclavicular joints when you cross your arms in front of your body?
A)Protraction
B)Retraction
C)Inversion
D)Eversion
E)Supination
Q2) Moving the humerus laterally at the shoulder joint is an example of which type of movement?
A)Lateral flexion
B)Hyperextension
C)Adduction
D)Abduction
E)Gliding
Q3) Describe the general effects that aging has on joints.
Q4) List and briefly describe the three common types of arthritis.
Q5) List the three functional classifications of joints,and briefly describe the basis for the functional classification of joints.
Q6) Briefly describe what is happening when a person "cracks their knuckles".
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following disorders is characterized by the wasting away of muscles due to the progressive loss of myofibrils?
A)muscular hypertrophy
B)muscular atrophy
C)fibromyalgia
D)myasthenia gravis
E)tremors
Q2) After prolonged strenuous exercise has stopped,heavy breathing will often continue for several minutes in order to provide the oxygen needed to
A)convert the lactic acid produced during exercise back into glycogen.
B)resynthesize creatine phosphate.
C)replace oxygen displaced from muscle myoglobin.
D)All of these choices
E)None of these choices
Q3) Describe the factors that lead to muscle fatigue.
Q4) What are the three ways that ATP can be produced in muscle fibers?
Q5) Compare and contrast the structural characteristics of the three different types of muscular tissue.
Q6) What is the major difference between the two types of smooth muscle tissue?
Page 12
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System Unit Iii: Control Systems of the Human Body
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Q1) A muscle that has three origins is called a A)biceps.
B)triceps.
C)quadriceps.
D)deltoid.
E)trapezius.
Q2) This type of muscle works by stabilizing the origin of the agonist so that it can act more efficiently.
A)synergist
B)agonist
C)antagonist
D)fixator
E)secondary mover
Q3) A condition where the two eyeballs are not properly aligned is referred to as A)inguinal hernia.
B)strabismus.
C)presbyopia.
D)myopia.
E)hypermetropia.
Q4) Briefly describe four main benefits of stretching before exercising.
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Describe four ways drugs can modify the effects of neurotransmitters.
Q2) This type of neuron has one dendrite and one axon emerging from the cell body.
A)Multipolar neuron
B)Bipolar neuron
C)Unipolar neuron
D)Purkinje cell
E)Renshaw cell
Q3) What factors limit neurogenesis in the CNS of adults?
Q4) Plasticity means
A)ability to regenerate after being damaged.
B)sending a signal through a converging circuit.
C)signal transmission at a synapse.
D)ability to change based on experience.
E)ability to stretch and recoil without damage.
Q5) Chromatolysis refers to
A)break up of lysosomes after neural injury.
B)Wallerian degeneration after neural injury.
C)plasticity of neuron.
D)break up of Nissl bodies after neural injury.
E)none of these choices
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) Which of the following parts of a nervous reflex arc is usually a muscle or gland?
A)Sensory receptor
B)Sensory neuron
C)Motor neuron
D)Effector
E)Integration center
Q2) Which of the following parts of a reflex arc monitors body conditions?
A)Sensory receptor
B)Integrating center
C)Motor neuron
D)Effector
E)Interneuron
Q3) Which layer of protective connective tissue is the outermost covering surrounding a spinal nerve?
A)dura mater
B)pia mater
C)endoneurium
D)perineurium
E)epineurium
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) A deep indentation found along the medial plane that separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres is called the A)septum pellucidum.
B)transverse fissure.
C)tentorium cerebelli.
D)corpus callosum.
E)longitudinal fissure.
Q2) Which portion of the cerebellum contributes to equilibrium and balance?
A)Tentorium cerebelli
B)Anterior lobe
C)Posterior lobe
D)Flocculonodular lobe
E)Transverse fissure
Q3) Which of the following meninges has two layers?
A)Spinal dura mater
B)Cranial dura mater
C)Spinal arachnoid mater
D)Cranial arachnoid mater
E)All of these choices
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic terminal ganglion?
A)Ciliary ganglion
B)Pterygopalatine ganglion
C)Submandibular ganglion
D)Otic ganglion
E)All are parasympathetic terminal ganglia
Q2) Which the following regions of the brain serve as the major control and integration center of the ANS?
A)cerebrum
B)cerebellulum
C)thalamus
D)hypothalamus
E)pituitary
Q3) Which autonomic plexus is located anterior to the fifth lumbar vertebra and serves the pelvic viscera?
A)Inferior mesenteric plexus
B)Renal plexus
C)Celiac plexus
D)Hypogastric plexus
E)Superior mesenteric plexus
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Chapter 16: Sensory, Motor and Integrative Systems
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT occur during sleep?
A)Sympathetic division of ANS is stimulated.
B)Decreased heart rate.
C)Decreased blood pressure.
D)Skeletal muscle tone decreases.
E)Dream during REM sleep.
Q2) The main function of muscle spindles is
A)to sense tension applied to a tendon.
B)to sense referred pain.
C)to perceive cutaneous sensations.
D)to sense changes in muscle length.
E)to sense muscle fatigue.
Q3) What category of receptor cell is used to sense light?
A)photoreceptor
B)mechanoreceptor
C)thermoreceptor
D)chemoreceptor
E)osmoreceptor
Q4) Compare short-term memory versus long-term memory with regard to specific changes that are thought to occur in the brain.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Q1) Nerve impulses for the sense of hearing are initiated in the spiral organ (organ of Corti)and then travel through the _____ to the _____.
A)cochlear branch of cranial nerve VIII;pons
B)cochlear branch of cranial nerve VIII;medulla oblongata
C)vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII;pons
D)vestibular branch of cranial nerve VIII;medulla oblongata
E)facial nerve;auditory cortex
Q2) This is a thin mucous membrane that protects the inner aspect of the eyelids and the portion of the sclera covering the anterior surface of the eyeball.
A)Palpebral fissure
B)Conjunctiva
C)Lateral commissure
D)Cornea
E)Choroid
Q3) Deafness can occur for many reasons.Use your knowledge of the structure of the ear and the process of detecting sound,to propose a mechanism for how arthritis could cause deafness.
Q4) Explain the process by which smell sensations are sensed and perceived.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System Unit Iv: Maintenance of the Human Body
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Q1) Which of the following anterior pituitary hormones stimulates general body growth?
A)Growth hormone
B)Prolactin
C)Thyrotropin
D)Luteinizing hormone
E)Adrenocorticotropic hormone
Q2) All the following hormones are produced and secreted by the ovaries EXCEPT
A)estradiol.
B)estrone.
C)progesterone.
D)inhibin.
E)follicle-stimulating hormone.
Q3) Which of the following is a protein hormone produced by the testes that inhibits secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone by the anterior pituitary gland?
A)chorionic gonadotropin
B)testosterone
C)estradiol
D)inhibin
E)relaxin
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Chapter 19: The Cardiovascular System: the Blood
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Q1) Which of the following plasma proteins plays a role in blood clotting?
A)Albumin
B)Globulins
C)Fibrinogen
D)Prostaglandins
E)None of these choices
Q2) Which of the following precursor cells eventually give rise to neutrophils?
A)Megakaryoblast
B)Proerythroblast
C)T lymphoblast
D)Monoblast
E)Myeloblast
Q3) The average life span of an erythrocyte in the circulation is
A)4 to 5 years.
B)4 to 5 hours.
C)5 to 9 days.
D)120 days.
E)120 weeks.
Q4) List and briefly describe the three mechanisms used to reduce blood loss from a damaged blood vessel.
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Chapter 20: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart
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Q1) During heart transplants,the _____ nerves are severed resulting in a faster resting heart rate (approximately 100 beats per minute)after the transplant.
A)glossopharyngeal
B)cardiac accelerator
C)vagus
D)phrenic
E)cervical spinal
Q2) The apex of the heart is normally pointed
A)at the midline.
B)to the left of the midline.
C)to the right of the midline.
D)is different for males and females
E)posteriorly.
Q3) What of the following chambers of the heart contain deoxygenated blood?
A)Left atrium and left ventricle
B)Left atrium only
C)Right atrium and right ventricle
D)Right ventricle only
E)Left atrium and right ventricle
Q4) Define arrhythmia and discuss different categories of arrhythmias.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels and Hemodynamics
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Q1) Describe the vessel wall characteristics of the five main types of blood vessels that blood travels through from the time it leaves the left ventricle until it returns to the right atrium.
Q2) Which of the following vessels drains blood from the head and neck?
A)Median cubital vein
B)Inferior vena cava
C)Axillary vein
D)Femoral vein
E)Jugular vein
Q3) Abnormal conditions such as atherosclerosis and patent ductus arteriosus cause an large increase in the
A)blood colloid osmotic pressure.
B)central venous pressure.
C)pulse pressure.
D)venular hydrostatic pressure.
E)capillary hyrdostatic pressure.
Q4) What is a portal vein? Describe the hepatic portal circulation.
Q5) Identify and discuss the factors that contribute to systemic vascular resistance.
Page 23
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System, Nonspecific Resistance to Disease, and Immunity
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Q1) In which part of the thymus are T cells thought to die?
A)Capsule
B)Trabeculae
C)Epithelial cells
D)Thymic (Hassall's)corpuscles
E)T cells do not die in the thymus
Q2) Which of the following cells is the most variable cell in the immune system?
A)Natural killer cell
B)Monocyte
C)RBC
D)Lymphocyte
E)Macrophage
Q3) Antigens that induce an allergic reaction are called
A)lymphotoxin
B)perforin
C)granulysin
D)interleukin-1
E)allergen
Q4) List the five actions of antibodies.
Q5) Describe the barriers used in innate defense.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Which of the following is an inhalation followed by many short convulsive exhalations during which the rima glottidis remains open and the vocal folds vibrate,accompanied by characteristic facial expressions?
A)sneezing
B)yawning
C)hiccupping
D)crying
E)Valsalva maneuver
Q2) Which of the following is a forced exhalation against the closed rima glottidis as may occur during periods of straining while defecating?
A)sobbing
B)coughing
C)crying
D)hiccupping
E)Valsalva maneuver
Q3) Describe the inward forces of elastic recoil,and explain why the lungs do not normally collapse during expiration.
Q4) Why is epinephrine injected as a treatment for the respiratory signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis?
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which cell secretes the hormone that promotes production of hydrochloric acid?
A)Neck cell
B)Chief cell
C)G cell
D)Chyme cell
E)Parietal cell
Q2) Which of following processes is the primary function of the mouth?
A)Ingestion
B)Secretion
C)Mixing and propulsion
D)Absorption
E)None of these choices
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a change in the digestive system associated with aging?
A)Decreased secretory mechanisms
B)Decreased motility of the digestive organs
C)Loss of strength and tone of the muscular tissue
D)changes in neurosensory feedback regarding enzyme and hormone release
E)All of these are age related changes in the digestive system.
Q4) Describe the structures and functions of the enteric nervous system.
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Chapter 25: Metabolism
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Q1) Accumulation of a large amount of H<sup>+</sup> between the inner and outer mitochondrial membranes,is described as
A)Proton pump
B)Chemiosmosis
C)Krebs cycle
D)ATP synthesis
E)Glycolysis
Q2) Cardiac muscles can produce ATP from
A)Lactic acid
B)Pyruvic acid
C)Glucose-6-phosphate
D)Proteins
E)Lipids
Q3) Which of the following is a factor that does NOT affect heat production?
A)Exercise
B)Hormones
C)Nervous system
D)Ingestion of food
E)Blood volume
Q4) What is the difference between a complete protein and an incomplete protein?
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) Which is the normal pH range of urine in humans?
A)8)1 - 10.6
B)4)6 - 8.0
C)1)0 - 3.0
D)3)1 - 4.0
E)10.0 - 12.0
Q2) Consumption of salty food will cause an increase in this hormone.
A)Aldosterone
B)Renin
C)ANH
D)Angiotensin-II
E)ADH
Q3) This hormone is released when the blood volume increases.
A)Parathyroid Hormone
B)Renin
C)ADH
D)Atrial Natriuretic Peptide
E)Aldosterone
Q4) Describe in detail how the renin angiotensin negative feedback loop helps regulate blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate in response to dehydration.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Homeostasis
Unit V: Continuity
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Q1) Which of the following makes up the largest single component of the human body?
A)Skin
B)Water
C)Blood
D)Organs
E)Electrolytes
Q2) The response of the body to decreasing blood pressure will NOT cause which of the following?
A)Dehydration
B)Formation of angiotensin II
C)Stimulate the kidneys to secrete rennin
D)Formation of ADH
E)Increased vasoconstriction
Q3) Buffer systems,exhaling carbon dioxide and excretion by the kidneys,are all
A)Ways to balance interstitial fluid
B)Means of balancing blood volume
C)Ways of controlling H<sup>+</sup> levels in the body
D)Ways to make ions
E)Ways to increase blood volume
29
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which cells secrete testosterone?
A)Sertoli cells
B)Spermatogenic cells
C)Leydig cells
D)Oogonia
E)Chief cells
Q2) Describe the contributions of the reproductive systems to the integumentary systems.
Q3) Describe the positive feedback loop involved in ovulation.
Q4) Female reproductive system arises from
A)Paramesonephric (Mullerian)ducts
B)Mesonephric (Wolffian)ducts
Q5) What structure attaches the ovaries and the uterus to the pelvic wall?
A)Broad ligament
B)Mesovarium
C)Ovarian ligament
D)Suspensory ligament
E)Hilum
Q6) Describe the roles of estrogens and progesterone.
Q7) Describe the functions of testosterone.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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75 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/67112
Sample Questions
Q1) CVS is taking cells from where?
A)Amnion
B)Chorion
C)Placenta
D)Umbilical cord
E)Uterus
Q2) What is the term used to describe the age of an embryo or fetus calculated from the presumed first day of the last normal menstrual period?
A)Conceptus
B)Primordium
C)Epigenesis
D)Gestational age
E)Fertilization age
Q3) What exam is performed between 14-16 weeks gestation and is used to detect genetic abnormalities?
A)Sonogram
B)Amniocentesis
C)CVS
D)AFP test
E)CBC
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