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Basic Nursing Skills Study Guide Questions - 1281 Verified Questions

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Basic Nursing Skills Study Guide

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Course Introduction

Basic Nursing Skills introduces students to the essential principles and practices required for providing effective and compassionate nursing care. The course covers fundamental topics such as hygiene, vital signs measurement, patient mobility, infection control, basic wound care, and the administration of medication under supervision. Emphasis is placed on developing communication skills, understanding patient needs, maintaining safety, and adhering to ethical and legal standards in nursing practice. Through a combination of theoretical instruction, laboratory practice, and clinical experiences, students gain the competence and confidence needed to deliver quality care in various healthcare settings.

Recommended Textbook

Clinical Nursing Skills and Techniques 9th Edition by Perry

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44 Chapters

1281 Verified Questions

1281 Flashcards

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Using Evidence in Practice

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Sample Questions

Q1) __________________ are the gold standard for research.

Answer: Randomized controlled trials

Q2) The researcher explains how to apply findings in a practice setting for the types of subjects studied in the _________________ section of a research article.

Answer: "Clinical Implications"

Q3) ____________________ is the extent to which a study's findings are valid,reliable,and relevant to your patient population of interest.

Answer: Scientific rigor

Q4) When evidence-based practice is used,patient care will be:

A)standardized for all.

B)unhampered by patient culture.

C)variable according to the situation.

D)safe from the hazards of critical thinking.

Answer: C

Q5) While caring for patients,the professional nurse must question

Answer: what does not make sense

Q6) _________________ is a guide for making accurate,timely,and appropriate clinical decisions.

Answer: Evidence-based practice

Page 3

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Chapter 2: Admitting, transfer, and Discharge

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Sample Questions

Q1) When does the plan for patient discharge from a health care facility begin?

A)At admission

B)After a medical diagnosis has been determined

C)When the patient's physical needs are identified

D)After a home environment assessment is completed

Answer: A

Q2) Under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA),a patient must:

A)provide his true name before he can be treated.

B)be informed of his privacy rights.

C)have his personal health information used for treatment or payment only.

D)have his personal health information used on a need-to-know basis only.

Answer: B,C,D

Q3) Completing and documenting an accurate medication history from the patient is the important first step in the _____________ process.

Answer: medication reconciliation

Q4) The greatest challenge in effective discharge planning is _______________.

Answer: communication

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Chapter 3: Communication and Collaboration

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30 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient tells the nurse,"I want to die." Which response is the most appropriate for the nurse to make?

A)"Why would you say that?"

B)"Tell me more about how you are feeling."

C)"The doctor should be told how you feel."

D)"You have too much to live for to think that way."

Answer: B

Q2) In caring for patients of different cultures,it is important for the nurse to:

A)use appropriate linguistic services.

B)display empathy and respect.

C)use accurate health history-taking techniques.

D)use patient-centered communication.

Answer: A,B,C,D

Q3) Verbal communication includes which of the following?

A)Speech

B)Personal space

C)Body movement

D)Writing

Answer: A,D

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Page 5

Chapter 4: Documentation and Informatics

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Sample Questions

Q1) Standardized care plans are effective ways to plan care for the patient.To be most effective,however,the SCP must be _________________.

Q2) The nurse manager is attempting to determine the staffing needs of the unit.One tool that she may use to determine the level of care needed would be:

A)the standardized care plan.

B)the acuity record.

C)the patient care summary.

D)flow sheets.

Q3) ___________________ provide a format for documenting a patient's health status and progress.

Q4) The patient has been in the hospital for a hip replacement.According to his critical pathway,he should have his Foley catheter discontinued on the fourth day after surgery.Instead,the patient has it removed on the third day and is voiding normally with no problems.This would be a sign of:

A)a negative variance.

B)positive case management.

C)a positive variance.

D)use of SBAR.

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Chapter 5: Vital Signs

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Sample Questions

Q1) _________ is the sound of the pulmonic and aortic valves closing at the end of the systolic contraction.

Q2) After applying the sphygmomanometer to the patient's upper arm,the nurse inflates the cuff to the proper level,and then,using a stethoscope,listens for the __________________ sounds.

Q3) Which site is used to auscultate blood pressure?

A)Radial

B)Ulnar

C)Brachial

D)Temporal

Q4) An appropriate procedure for measurement of an adult's temperature with a tympanic membrane sensor is:

A)pulling the ear pinna down and back.

B)moving into the ear in a figure-eight pattern.

C)fitting the probe loosely into the ear canal.

D)pointing the probe toward the mouth and chin.

Q5) The percent to which hemoglobin is filled with oxygen is known as _________________.

Q6) _____________ occurs when the systolic blood pressure falls to 90 mm Hg or below.

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Health Assessment

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Sample Questions

Q1) The purpose of the physical assessment is to:

A)compare the patient's status with previous findings.

B)help the nurse gather additional data.

C)help select the best nursing measures.

D)teach patients about better health promotion.

Q2) When performing an assessment of the cardiovascular system,the nurse evaluates the skin and nails of the patient.Inadequate tissue perfusion is known as

Q3) A nurse is documenting a patient's breath sounds.Rhonchi are heard as:

A)loud,low-pitched,coarse sounds.

B)high-pitched,musical squeaks.

C)dry,grating sounds on inspiration.

D)high-pitched,fine sounds at the end of inspiration.

Q4) Which is the best position in which to place the patient to hear low-pitched cardiovascular sounds?

A)Supine

B)Sitting up

C)Dorsal recumbent

D)Left lateral recumbent

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Chapter 7: Specimen Collection

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to perform a venipuncture on a patient.Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

A)Apply the tourniquet until the distal pulse is no longer felt.

B)Remove the tourniquet after 1 minute.

C)Instruct the patient to vigorously open and close the fist.

D)Do not use veins that rebound.

Q2) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement when obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG)specimen is to:

A)insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.

B)use a 19-gauge,1-inch needle.

C)leave 0.5 mL of heparin in the syringe.

D)aspirate blood after the puncture.

Q3) When collecting specimens,the nurse should:

A)wear gloves and perform hand hygiene.

B)handle excretions discreetly.

C)explain the procedure to the patient.

D)allow patients to collect their own urine specimens.

Q4) ______________ is often indicated to collect sputum from patients unable to spontaneously produce a sample for laboratory analysis.

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Chapter 8: Diagnostic Procedures

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Sample Questions

Q1) In which position is the patient usually placed for a thoracentesis?

A)Dorsal recumbent position

B)Supine with the arms over the head

C)Sims' position on the affected side

D)Sitting and leaning over a bedside table

Q2) The patient has undergone a cardiac catheterization.It has been 2 hours since the catheter and sheath have been removed.Which of the following would be a concern for the nurse recovering the patient after the procedure?

A)Swelling and hardness at the catheter insertion site

B)Complaints of itching and urticaria

C)Urine output less than 30 mL/hr

D)Low back pain radiating to both sides of the body

Q3) The removal of a small amount of the liquid organic material in the medullary canals of selected bones,in particular the sternum and the posterior superior iliac crests in adults,is known as _______________.

Q4) _____________________ is often used for diagnostic or surgical procedures that do not require complete anesthesia in acute care,surgical care,and outpatient care settings.

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Page 10

Chapter 9: Medical Asepsis

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse knows that the basic concept of all patient care that is implemented to prevent the spread of infection from blood,body fluids,secretions,excretions,nonintact skin,and mucus membranes is __________________.

Q2) An appropriate technique for the nurse to implement for the patient on isolation precautions is to:

A)double-bag all disposable items and linens.

B)put another gown over the one worn if it has become wet.

C)place specimen containers in plastic bags for transport.

D)hand items to be reused directly to a nurse standing outside the room.

Q3) Handwashing with soap and water is:

A)the most effective way to reduce the number of bacteria on the nurse's hands.

B)more effective than alcohol-based products for washing hands.

C)necessary for hand hygiene if hands are visibly soiled.

D)not necessary if the nurse wears artificial nails.

Q4) The patient is admitted with mumps.The nurse knows that she will have to:

A)put the patient in a private room.

B)place the patient on standard precautions.

C)wear a mask when closer than 3 feet to the patient.

D)place the patient on contact precautions.

Q5) ________________ is the absence of pathogenic (disease-producing)microorganisms.

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Chapter 10: Sterile Technique

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Sample Questions

Q1) Nurses commonly use surgical asepsis in which of the following situations?

A)In labor and delivery areas

B)When inserting an intravenous catheter

C)When treating patients with surgical incisions or burns

D)When inserting a urinary catheter

E)When dressing an MRSA-positive wound

Q2) An appropriate principle of surgical asepsis is that:

A)the entirety of a sterile package is sterile once it is opened.

B)all of the draped table,top to bottom,is considered sterile.

C)an object held below the waist is considered contaminated.

D)if the sterile barrier field becomes wet,the dry areas are still sterile.

Q3) Which patient may the nurse suspect will be at risk for a latex allergy?

A)Patient with food allergies

B)Patient with diabetes

C)Patient with arthritis

D)Patient with hypertension

Q4) The minimum standard for infection control as established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)is _______________.

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Page 12

Chapter 11: Safe Patient Handling, transfer, and Positioning

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to reposition the patient.Which of the following is a principle of safe patient transfer and positioning?

A)The wider the base of support,the greater the stability of the nurse.

B)The higher the center of gravity,the greater the stability of the nurse.

C)Facing in the opposite direction of movement prevents twisting.

D)Using either the arms or the legs reduces the risk for back injury.

Q2) Why does a nurse move a patient who has been confined to bed for a few days slowly from a sitting to a standing position?

A)Fatigue

B)Muscle injury

C)Sensory disorientation

D)Orthostatic hypotension

Q3) A nurse should be aware of safety measures to prevent personal injury when lifting or moving patients.An appropriate principle to follow is:

A)bend at the waist for lifting.

B)tighten the stomach muscles and pelvis.

C)keep the weight to be lifted away from the body.

D)carry or hold the weight 1 to 2 feet above the waist.

Q4) Body balance is achieved when a wide _____________ exists.

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Chapter 12: Exercise Mobility

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is concerned that the patient may fall while he is ambulating.To help her maintain control while the patient walks,the nurse may apply a ______________ around the patient's waist.

Q2) When the four gaits listed below are compared,which is the most stable of the crutch gaits?

A)Four-point gait

B)Three-point gait

C)Two-point gait

D)Swing-to gait

Q3) A drop in blood pressure that occurs when the patient changes position from a horizontal to a vertical position is known as _________________.

Q4) The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been treated for a broken leg.She needs to teach the patient how to use crutches.Which crutch gait is most appropriate for this patient?

A)Four-point gait

B)Three-point gait

C)Two-point gait

D)Swing-to gait

Q5) A person's inability to move about freely is known as _______________.

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Chapter 13: Support Surfaces and Special Beds

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27 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is in an air-fluidized bed.She places the patient in semi-Fowler's position using foam wedges,even though she realizes that:

A)patients gain the greatest benefit from the prone position in an air-fluidized bed.

B)for resuscitation,she may have to increase the air pressure of the bed to do CPR.

C)she may have to increase the air pressure of the bed to turn the patient.

D)the foam wedges may decrease the effects of the bed.

Q2) It is recommended that the Rotokinetic bed stay in the rotation mode for at least _______ hours a day.

Q3) ____________ are defined as localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue,usually over a bony prominence,as a result of pressure,or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.

Q4) Air-fluidized beds require the nurse to assess for which of the following?

A)The patient's fluid and electrolyte status

B)The patient's financial status

C)The structural strength of the room where the bed will be

D)The room temperature

Q5) A ______________ serves as an artificial layer of fat to protect bony surfaces.

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Chapter 14: Patient Safety

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Sample Questions

Q1) A nurse enters the room of a patient who is sitting in a chair and begins to have a seizure.To promote patient safety,which nursing intervention will the nurse initially perform?

A)Immediately call for assistance.

B)Assist the patient to the floor.

C)Put the patient back into the bed.

D)Insert a padded tongue blade into the patient's mouth.

Q2) More than ____________ patients are injured in falls in inpatient settings annually in the United States.

Q3) In a long-term care facility,an elderly patient drops his burning cigarette into a trash can and starts a fire.A type _____ fire extinguisher is the most appropriate type of fire extinguisher for the nurse to use in this situation.

Q4) A thumb-less device used to restrain patients' hands to prevent them from dislodging invasive equipment,removing dressings,or scratching is known as a

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Chapter 15: Disaster Preparedness

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following should make the nurse suspect a biological event?

A)Large numbers of ill people with unexplained similar symptoms

B)Unexplained deaths among young and healthy populations

C)A patient population with symptoms suggestive of a common agent

D)An unusual geographical pattern associated with the symptoms

Q2) Releasing nuclear energy in an explosive manner as the result of a nuclear chain reaction is known as a ________________.

Q3) __________ is the sorting of individuals by the seriousness of their condition and the likelihood of their survival.

Q4) The most recently labeled level of protection is BioPPE.The use of BioPPE requires which of the following items?

A)Self-contained breathing apparatus

B)Respiratory protection but less skin protection

C)Chemically resistant boots and gloves

D)Standard work clothes,contact and respiratory protective devices

Q5) For safety reasons,rescue workers should be upwind and uphill from a toxic chemical disaster scene to avoid exposure.The exception is when ____________ has been released,because it is lighter than air.

Q6) It is recommended that every household prepares a ____________.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: Pain Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) Pain that extends beyond the period of healing and often lacks an identified pathology is known as _______________.

Q2) Catheter migration into the______________ can produce dangerously high medication levels.Only physicians and nurse anesthetists administer drugs in this space.

Q3) A nonpharmacological approach that the nurse may implement for patients who are experiencing pain that focuses on diverting the patient's attention away from the pain sensation by promoting pleasurable and meaningful stimuli is:

A)massage.

B)heat/cold.

C)guided imagery.

D)distraction.

Q4) ________________ is a method of preventing pain while reducing overall opioid use.

Q5) Massaging upward and outward from the vertebral column and back again is known as __________________.

Q6) The application of touch and movement to muscles,tendons,and ligaments without manipulation of the joints is called _________________.

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Page 18

Chapter 17: Palliative Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) Before allowing the family of a deceased patient to view the body,the nurse should:

A)insert the patient's dentures.

B)lower the head of the bed.

C)fold the arms and hands over the chest.

D)leave all of the old dressings and tape in place.

Q2) Hospice benefits include which of the following?

A)Respite for family caregivers

B)Hospitalization for acute symptom management

C)Emotional and psychological support

D)Financial assistance and funeral arrangement

Q3) The nurse recognizes that anticipatory grieving can be most beneficial for a patient or family because it can:

A)be done in a private setting.

B)be discussed with other individuals.

C)promote separation of the ill patient from the family.

D)allow time for the process of grief.

Q4) The irreversible absence of all brain function is termed ______________.

Q5) An _______________ is the surgical dissection of a body after death.

Q6) _____________ helps people live as well as possible through the dying process.

Page 19

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Chapter 18: Personal Hygiene and Bed Making

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Sample Questions

Q1) The development of diabetic foot ulcers is dependent on which of the following?

A)Peripheral neuropathy

B)Tissue ischemia

C)Trauma to the foot

D)Pain in the affected extremity

Q2) When bathing a patient,which sequence is the correct approach to use?

A)Wash the feet after the legs.

B)Wash the eyes after the face.

C)Wash the legs before the abdomen.

D)Wash the back area before the extremities.

Q3) The nurse is caring for a gentleman who has dry skin.When the following interventions are compared,which would be most appropriate for this patient?

A)Limiting the frequency of bathing

B)Using a fat-free soap for washing

C)Using warm water and moisturizers

D)Bathing with hot water to increase blood flow

Q4) ________________ is defined as excessive growth of body and facial hair.

Q5) Tissue that surrounds the fingernail,slowly grows over the nail,and must be regularly pushed back with a soft nailbrush is known as the __________________.

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Chapter 19: Care of the Eye and Ear

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse decides that assistive personnel can provide care to a patient with contact lenses when the assistive personnel states:

A)"If I am in a hurry,I will use tap water for rinsing the lenses."

B)"Gloves aren't necessary; the eye is a clean organ."

C)"I will check with the patient to see if the lenses are disposable."

D)"It is normal for contact lens wearers to have red,teary eyes."

Q2) When providing eye care for the comatose patient,the nurse should:

A)place the patient in a prone position for easier access.

B)use a different corner of the washcloth for each eye.

C)wipe each eye from outer to inner canthus.

D)use a sterile medicine cup to instill lubricant.

Q3) The patient is found to have impacted cerumen in his ear canal.The nurse most likely will:

A)instill 1 to 2 drops of mineral oil.

B)instill the irrigation under pressure.

C)occlude the ear canal when irrigating.

D)straighten the ear canal.

Q4) A _____________ is a small,battery-powered,electronic device that amplifies sound.

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Chapter 20: Safe Medication Preparation

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient how to measure medication dosages at home.The prescription is written for 30 mL of the medication.Which household measurement will the nurse teach the patient to use?

A)Drops

B)Teaspoon

C)Tablespoon

D)Cup

Q2) The nurse is aware that a patient with liver disease and a decreased albumin level may develop which of the following effects?

A)Toxicity on normal doses of medication

B)Less active medication available in the body

C)Reduction in therapeutic effect

D)Accelerated biotransformation of the medication

Q3) The nurse enters the patient's room to give medications.Which action is most appropriate to identify the "right patient"?

A)Ask the patient to state his name.

B)Ask the patient to state his name and birth date.

C)Ask the primary nurse to identify the patient.

D)Say the patient's name and date of birth and request patient validation.

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Page 22

Chapter 21: Administration of Nonparenteral Medications

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing to administer a rectal suppository to an adult patient.Which action should be taken by the nurse?

A)Apply sterile gloves before handling the suppository.

B)Apply extra lubricant to the suppository if there is active rectal bleeding.

C)Insert the suppository past the internal sphincter,against the rectal wall,about 6 to 10 inches.

D)Instruct the patient to remain lying flat or on the side for 5 minutes after insertion of the suppository.

Q2) The patient is receiving vaginal suppositories for a vaginal infection.Which assessment finding by the nurse indicates a desired outcome of the treatment?

A)The patient reports pruritus and burning.

B)The vaginal walls are bright red in color.

C)White curdlike patches appear on the vaginal walls.

D)Vaginal discharge the same color of the medication is noted.

Q3) Handheld devices that disperse medications through an aerosol spray or mist to penetrate lung airways are known as ___________.

Q4) The easiest and most desirable way to administer medications is via the _________ route.

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Page 23

Chapter 22: Administration of Parenteral Medications

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is preparing an intramuscular injection for a thin elderly patient.The nurse is aware that the maximum volume most likely tolerated by this patient is which amount?

A)1 mL

B)2 mL

C)3 mL

D)5 mL

Q2) The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection via the Z-track method.Which action should be taken by the nurse?

A)Pinch the skin between the thumb and the first finger.

B)Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle.

C)Immediately remove the needle after injecting the medication.

D)Release the skin before removing the needle from the site.

Q3) The nurse is preparing to administer an immunization to a toddler.Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

A)Grasp the body of the muscle during injection.

B)Place one hand above the knee and one below the knee to find the site.

C)Have the patient's knee flexed with the foot internally rotated.

D)Ask the mother to hold the toddler on his side.

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Page 24

Chapter 23: Oxygen Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient on a mechanical ventilator and the low-pressure alarm sounds.Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

A)Assess for secretions in the airway and suction the patient.

B)Administer a sedative to the patient to prevent coughing.

C)Assess the endotracheal tube cuff to make sure it is deflated.

D)Check the ventilator tubing and reconnect if disconnected.

Q2) A patient with a nasal cannula at 5 L/min has skin irritation around the nares and complains of a dry mouth and nose.Which action by the student nurse should be questioned by the nursing instructor?

A)Using humidification

B)Applying petroleum-based gel to the nares

C)Providing frequent oral care

D)Asking the physician for an order for sterile nasal saline

Q3) The amount of air inspired and expired with each breath while a patient is on mechanical ventilation is known as the ________________.

Q4) The ________,also called a Briggs adaptor,connects an oxygen source to an artificial airway such as an endotracheal tube.

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Chapter 24: Performing Chest Physiotherapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The patient is complaining of feeling congested.After assessing the patient,the nurse places the patient in the proper position and claps her cupped hands against the patient's thorax.She does this because she is aware that ______________ assists in loosening retained secretions from the airway.

Q2) The nurse is reviewing medical records on several patients.Which findings reported in the chart indicate the need for postural drainage?

A)Atelectasis reported on chest x-ray

B)Thick,sticky,tenacious,green secretions noted in the nurse's notes

C)Multiple rib fractures noted on chest x-ray

D)Chest x-ray report indicating pneumonia with collapse of right lower lobe

Q3) The nurse receives orders for postural drainage using Trendelenburg's position.On which patients should the nurse question the order?

A)Patient with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

B)Postsurgical patient with a distended abdomen

C)Patient with blood pressure of 180/100

D)Patient with bronchiectasis on chest x-ray

Q4) The _______________ provides positive expiratory pressure (PEP)with oral airway oscillations.

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Chapter 25: Airway Management

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient with increased secretions may develop airway obstruction.The nurse can promote a patent airway by using which of the following techniques?

A)Limiting fluid intake

B)Positioning

C)Deep breathing

D)Humidity

Q2) A patient with head trauma following a motor vehicle accident is on mechanical ventilation with an endotracheal tube.Which action by the nurse will reduce the risk for elevations in intracranial pressure during suctioning?

A)Avoid hyperoxygenating the patient before suctioning.

B)Insert the suction catheter just to the end of the endotracheal tube.

C)Apply suction while inserting the catheter.

D)Limit suctioning to 2 times with each suctioning procedure.

Q3) A plastic or rubber tube that is inserted through the nares or mouth past the epiglottis and vocal cords to maintain an airway is known as an

Q4) Too much oxygen reduces the drive to breathe in patients with chronic

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Chapter 26: Cardiac Care

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Q1) The nurse has explained to the patient that a 12-lead ECG is indicated.The patient refused to have the procedure done citing that she fears that the electrodes will cause harm to her heart.The nurse recognizes that which of the following patient rationales are contraindications for a 12-lead ECG?

A)Patient refusal

B)The patient is receiving chemotherapy.

C)The patient is ordered to have nothing by mouth (NPO).

D)The patient has just been medicated for a pain level of 8 on a scale of 1 to 10.

Q2) When preparing the skin before ECG electrode placement,clipping the hair in the electrode area is preferred over shaving due to risk of _________________.

Q3) The nurse is supervising a nursing assistive personnel (NAP)while applying electrodes for continuous cardiac monitoring to an elderly patient.The nurse recognizes the need for further education when the NAP attaches which monitor lead to the electrode?

A)White is negative.

B)Black is neutral.

C)Red is the ground lead.

D)Brown is positive.

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Chapter 27: Closed Chest Drainage Systems

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Q1) The nurse is providing care for a patient with a pneumothorax.She anticipated removal of the chest tube because of the absence of an air leak for the past _____ hours.

A)6 to 8

B)12 to 16

C)18 to 24

D)48 to 72

Q2) The nurse knows that _______________ is the proper term to describe that the patient's water seal is fluctuating up and down with each breath.

A)bubbling

B)tidaling

C)fluttering

D)alternating

Q3) Which of the following is an expected outcome of chest tube insertion?

A)Mild chest pain is maintained.

B)Breath sounds are auscultated in all lobes.

C)Drainage from the pleural cavity increases over time.

D)Lung expansion is increased beyond the unaffected side.

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Chapter 28: Emergency Measure for Life Support

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the nurse's responsibility for the patient after he has been intubated during a code event?

A)Ventilate using a bag-mask device at a rate of 22 breaths per minute.

B)Auscultate the epigastric area.

C)Auscultate both lungs.

D)Call for a chest radiograph.

Q2) The nurse is preparing to insert an oral airway in a patient who is exhibiting signs of potential respiratory distress.The nurse knows that candidates for oral airway placement are those:

A)with oral trauma.

B)with loose teeth.

C)who are unconscious.

D)who have had recent oral surgery.

Q3) Which sign or symptom of airway compromise may require insertion of an oral airway?

A)Ability of the patient to speak

B)Ability of the patient to cough forcefully

C)Presence of wheezing between coughs

D)Presence of gurgling with the respiratory cycle

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Page 30

Chapter 29: Intravenous and Vascular Access Therapy

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Q1) Which of the following patients would the nurse anticipate requiring the placement of a central venous catheter?

A)A patient in same-day surgery who might require blood transfusions

B)A patient in the intensive care unit requiring multiple simultaneous intravenous medications

C)A patient in the cardiac care unit diagnosed with possible myocardial infarction

D)A patient on the surgical unit recovering from hernia repair

Q2) Which of the following are central venous access devices (CVADs)?

A)Implanted subcutaneous ports

B)Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)lines

C)Saline locks

D)Heparin locks

Q3) _________________________ are surgically inserted through a tunnel into subcutaneous tissue,usually between the clavicle and the nipple,into the internal jugular or subclavian vein,with the catheter tip resting in the distal end of the superior vena cava.The subcutaneous tunnel allows the catheter to remain in place for months to years.

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Chapter 30: Blood Therapy

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is administering blood.What should the nurse do to detect a blood reaction as quickly as possible?

A)Remain with the patient during the first 15 minutes.

B)Transfuse the blood at 10 mL/min.

C)Monitor vital signs q 1 hour.

D)Transfuse blood at 50 gtt/min.

Q2) Antibodies that react against the A and B antigens are naturally present in the plasma of people whose red blood cells do not carry the antigen.These antibodies react against the foreign antigens.Incompatible red blood cells clump together or _____________,which results in a life-threatening hemolytic transfusion reaction.

Q3) Transfusion therapy is the intravenous (IV)administration of which of the following?

A)Whole blood

B)Plasma products

C)Red blood cells (RBCs)

D)Platelets

Q4) Under the ABO system,the blood type __________ can be given to any individual and is known as the "Universal Donor."

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Chapter 31: Oral Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient who is 48 hours post bowel resection with creation of a colostomy.This morning,the nurse assessed the return of bowel sounds.In what order would this patient's diet progress?

a.Full liquid diet

b.Regular diet

c.Clear liquid diet

d.NPO

e.Soft diet

Q2) The nurse is assessing the patient for nutritional status.Which laboratory value may indicate compromised protein status?

A)Serum albumin level of 4.0 g/dL

B)Prealbumin level of 12 g/dL

C)Total lymphocyte count of 1600 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>

D)Prealbumin level of 35 g/dL

Q3) The nurse recognizes that the patient is exhibiting signs of ______________ when she notices that he has difficulty holding food and fluid in his mouth and experiences difficulty moving it to his esophagus.

Q4) _______________ is useful for monitoring short-term changes in visceral protein.

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Chapter 32: Enteral Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which technique is appropriate for the nurse to implement during nasogastric (NG)tube insertion?

A)Use sterile gloves.

B)Have the patient mouth-breathe.

C)Advance the tube quickly when the patient coughs.

D)Bend the patient's head backward after the tube is through the nasopharynx.

Q2) The home health nurse evaluates the provision of intermittent tube feedings by the patient's family member.The nurse notes that additional teaching is required when she notices that the family member:

A)keeps the formula refrigerated between feedings.

B)keeps the feeding tube capped between feedings.

C)begins the feeding before checking tube placement.

D)irrigates the tube with 30 to 60 mL of water before and after feedings.

Q3) The nurse is initiating a continuous tube feeding for a patient who has a gastrostomy tube.Which of the following procedures indicates proper practice?

A)Allow the container to empty gradually over 60 minutes.

B)Change the bag every 24 hours.

C)Do not use water to flush the tube.

D)Quickly increase the rate of administration.

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Page 34

Chapter 33: Parenteral Nutrition

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for a patient receiving parenteral nutrition (PN).In planning the patient's care for the day,which nursing assessment is most essential?

A)Electrolyte levels

B)Weight

C)Temperature

D)Condition of catheter insertion site

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN).The nurse realizes that PN is associated with which of the following risks?

A)Decreased mortality

B)Bloodstream infection

C)Pneumothorax

D)Decreased length of stay

E)Liver disease

Q3) If parenteral nutrition (PN)must be discontinued suddenly,hang __________ in water at the same infusion rate to prevent hypoglycemia.

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Chapter 34: Urinary Elimination

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse has inserted an indwelling catheter and secured the catheter to the patient's thigh,making sure that there is enough slack that movement will not create tension on the catheter.The nurse understands that the chief purpose of properly securing Foley catheters is to obtain which outcome?

A)Minimized risk for bleeding

B)Reduced risk for bladder spasm

C)Reduced risk for meatal necrosis

D)Reduced risk for trauma

E)Increased bladder relaxation

Q2) The nurse is caring for a patient who has an indwelling urinary catheter.Which intervention is most important to include in this patient's plan of care?

A)Maintaining tension on the tubing

B)Emptying the urinary collection bag every 24 hours

C)Cleaning in a circular motion from the meatus down the catheter

D)Keeping the drainage bag on the bed or attached to the side rails

Q3) An ______________ has a separate lumen that is used to inflate a balloon so the catheter remains in the bladder for short- or long-term use.

Q4) _________________ is the volume of urine in the bladder after a normal voiding.

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Chapter 35: Bowel Elimination and Gastric Intubation

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Sample Questions

Q1) While the nurse is administering an enema with a standard enema bag,which intervention is important to implement?

A)Keeping the solution at room temperature

B)Positioning the patient on the right side

C)Raising the enema bag to 12 inches above the patient

D)Instructing the patient to release the enema solution as soon as possible

Q2) _____________ is defined by a number of signs including infrequent bowel movements,difficulty evacuating,hard stools,and inability to defecate.

Q3) The patient is receiving a soapsuds enema but is having a difficult time retaining the fluid.What action should the nurse take?

A)Give the enema slowly.

B)Place the patient in the dorsal recumbent position on a bedpan.

C)Give the enema with the patient on the toilet.

D)Give the enema in the right lateral position.

E)Give the enema faster.

Q4) The inability to pass a hard collection of stool is known as ______________.

Q5) Infrequent bowel movements (less often than every 3 days),difficulty in evacuating feces,inability to defecate,and hard feces are signs of ________________.

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Chapter 36: Ostomy Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) A patient who has a urostomy is being discharged to home.Which instruction will the nurse to provide to the patient?

A)Restrict fluid intake to reduce urine output.

B)Report any mucus in his urine.

C)Keep unused pouches in the refrigerator.

D)Shower without covering the pouch.

Q2) When providing care for a patient with a colostomy or an ileostomy,the nurse recognizes that which is an expected assessment finding?

A)A moist,reddish-pink stoma

B)A dry,purplish stoma

C)Erythema on the skin around the stoma

D)No drainage noted from the stoma when washed

Q3) A ______________ is an opening in the large intestine or colon for elimination of fecal material.

Q4) The opening created into the abdominal wall for fecal or urinary elimination is known as a _______________.

Q5) The output from a urinary or fecal stoma is called the _______________.

Q6) An opening that is in the ileal portion of the small-intestine is an ____________.

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Chapter 37: Preoperative and Postoperative Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) Therapies and regimens designed to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE)include which of the following?

A)Pneumatic compression stockings

B)Venous foot pump

C)Low-molecular-weight heparin

D)Fondaparinux

E)Elspar

Q2) In planning care for a surgical patient,the patient asks the nurse what may be "left on" during the surgery.Understanding patient safety,the nurse tells the patient that which item may remain in place?

A)Hearing aid

B)Artificial limb

C)Pair of eyeglasses

D)Pair of contact lenses

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Chapter 38: Intraoperative Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The _________________ is a nurse with advanced education who assists the surgeon with the surgical procedure,performing a combination of nursing and delegated medical functions and/or skills.

Q2) When evaluating a health care team member's ability to put on a sterile gown and perform closed gloving,it is most important for the nurse to assess for which outcome?

A)Opening the sterile gown pack on a sterile surface

B)Holding the gown close to the body before applying

C)Having the circulating nurse tie the gown at the hip

D)Keeping the hands inside the sleeves of the gown until the gloves are applied

Q3) Who of the following can assume the role of the scrub nurse/assistant?

A)Registered nurse (RN)

B)Licensed practical nurse (LPN)

C)Certified surgical technician (CST)

D)Nursing assistive personnel (NAP)

E)Medical transcriptionist

Q4) The ________________ is a "sterile" team member who provides the surgeon with instruments and supplies,disposes of soiled sponges,and accounts for sponges,sharps,and instruments in the surgical field.

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Page 40

Chapter 39: Pressure Injury Prevention and Care

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is caring for four patients during a shift.Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing a pressure ulcer?

A)The patient who is bedridden,but who turns himself randomly

B)The patient whose Braden Scale score is 8

C)The patient who can ambulate to the bathroom independently

D)The patient whose Braden Scale score is 18

Q2) The nurse is turning a patient when she notices an area with nonblanchable redness over the patient's coccyx.The patient complains of pain at the site,and the site feels cooler than the areas immediately around the site.The nurse recognizes that this patient has developed:

A)a stage I pressure ulcer.

B)a stage II pressure ulcer.

C)an unstageable pressure ulcer.

D)deep tissue injury.

Q3) When skin layers adhere to the linens and deeper tissue layer move downward,________ damage occurs.

Q4) A _______________ is a localized injury to the skin and/or underlying tissue,usually over a bony prominence,as a result of pressure,or pressure in combination with shear and/or friction.

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Chapter 40: Wound Care and Irrigations

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Sample Questions

Q1) What should the nurse do when performing suture or staple removal?

A)Snip both ends of the sutures.

B)Apply tension to the suture line to remove the sutures.

C)Pull the exposed surface of the suture through the tissue below the epidermis.

D)Apply Steri-Strip if any separation greater than the width of two stitches is present.

Q2) _____________ uses the mechanical force (high or low)of a stream of solution to remove debris,bacteria,and necrotic tissue from a wound.

Q3) The nurse is explaining wound healing to a patient.Which of the following statements explains the healing that occurs during the inflammatory stage of wound healing in a full-thickness wound?

A)A reduction in the size of the wound is noted.

B)The epithelial cells duplicate.

C)Synthesis of collagen occurs at the site.

D)Blood flow to the wound and arrival of white blood cells are increased.

Q4) The Jackson-Pratt (JP)drain relies on the presence of a vacuum to withdraw drainage and is considered a __________ drainage system.

Q5) ___________ are threads of wire or other materials used to sew body tissues together.

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Chapter 41: Dressings,bandages,and Binders

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Sample Questions

Q1) ___________ healing takes place when tissue is cleanly cut and the margins are reapproximated.

Q2) The patient is being sent home from the hospital after a cardiac catheterization.What should the nurse instruct the patient to do first if bleeding should occur at the femoral artery puncture site?

A)Call the physician.

B)Call 9-1-1.

C)Apply pressure to the site.

D)Apply a new bandage.

Q3) The patient has a large,deep wound on the sacral region.The nurse correctly packs the wound by:

A)filling two-thirds of the wound cavity.

B)leaving saline-soaked folded gauze squares in place.

C)putting the dressing in very tightly.

D)extending only to the upper edge of the wound.

Q4) _______________ dressings are used for wounds that require debridement.

Q5) A __________ dressing comes in direct contact with the wound bed.

Q6) _____________ dressings cover or hold primary dressings in place.

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Chapter 42: Therapeutic Use of Heat and Cold

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Sample Questions

Q1) The nurse is using cryotherapy for a patient with a sprained ankle.The nurse explains the benefits to her patient.Which of the following statements made about the benefits of cryotherapy is correct?

A)It causes vasodilatation.

B)It provides local anesthesia.

C)It increases nerve conduction velocity.

D)It increases blood flow.

Q2) Therapeutic interventions designed to correct hypothermia and progressively raise body temperature are essential to improve patient outcomes.The nurse understands that this is accomplished by correcting acid-base imbalances,body temperature,and which of the following additional clinical manifestations?

A)Coagulopathies

B)Reduction of shearing forces

C)Increase in nerve conduction

D)Reduction in muscle spasms

Q3) The ________________ blanket raises,lowers,or maintains body temperature through conductive heat or cold transfer between the blanket and the patient.

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Chapter 43: Home Care Safety

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Sample Questions

Q1) When teaching about medication use in the home,what instructions should the nurse provide to the patient?

A)Always keep insulin in the refrigerator.

B)Put used needles in double paper bags.

C)Put all of the medication to be taken in one bottle.

D)Discard unused or expired medication in a bag containing coffee grounds.

Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient for mobility problems that could lead to falls.The nurse has the patient perform a timed up and go (TUG)test and uses this test to gauge:

A)the patient's ability to perform advanced ambulation maneuvers.

B)whether the patient can walk 30 feet without fatiguing.

C)whether the patient can tolerate the activity for longer than 30 seconds.

D)how quickly the patient can perform the test.

Q3) ___________ is a generalized impairment of intellectual functioning,with the most common form being Alzheimer's disease.

Q4) Activities of daily living (ADLs)include the patient's ability to bathe,dress,go to the toilet,transfer,maintain continence,and feed himself; _______ include the ability to use a telephone,prepare meals,travel,do housework,take medication,and shop.

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Chapter 44: Home Care Teaching

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Sample Questions

Q1) When teaching the patient about performing trach care,which of the following actions is an acceptable technique?

A)Remove the old ties before applying the new.

B)Keep two trach tubes of the same size at the bedside.

C)Place the new trach tie,then remove the old tie.

D)Dispose of all old supplies and replace with new.

Q2) The patient's caregiver is checking the patient's nasogastric (NG)tube for gastric residual before proceeding with the patient's next feeding.The patient aspirates 250 mL of residual for the second hour in a row.The caregiver held the tube feeding within the last hour.What should the caregiver do now?

A)Hold the feeding again.

B)Contact the health care provider.

C)Proceed with the feeding.

D)Give half of the feeding and see how the patient tolerates it.

Q3) Oxygen-conserving devices (OCDs)reduce the amount of oxygen the patient uses,resulting in an overall cost reduction to the patient.The type of OCD that stores oxygen in a chamber during the expiratory phase of respirations is known as the

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