Basic Biology
Final Test Solutions
Course Introduction
Basic Biology introduces students to the fundamental principles of living systems, exploring topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. The course provides a foundational understanding of biological molecules, metabolic processes, and the mechanisms by which organisms grow, reproduce, and interact with their environments. Emphasis is placed on scientific inquiry, critical thinking, and the application of biological concepts to everyday life and current issues in health and the environment.
Recommended Textbook
Discover Biology 6th Core Edition by Anu Singh
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Chapter 1: The Nature of Science and the Characteristics of Life
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Q1) Charles Darwin introduced the concept of adaptation,which he defined as features that
A) help organisms survive and reproduce.
B) enable organisms to resist the pressures of evolutionary change.
C) enable organisms to change their environment in ways that best ensure continued survival.
D) enable organisms to alter their DNA in a selective fashion.
Answer: A
Q2) When compared with natural systems,a college campus-including its facilities-is most similar to a(n)
A) ecosystem.
B) community.
C) biome.
D) population.
Answer: A
Q3) Scientists can propose testable predictions after first developing a(n)________. Answer: hypothesis
Q4) To survive,living organisms must be able to sense and respond to both their internal and external ________.
Answer: environments
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Q1) Oil and water do not mix together well because
A) water is polar and oil is nonpolar.
B) only identical molecules of the same chemical can mix together easily.
C) water has hydrogen bonds and oil is polar.
D) water and oil are covalently bonded together.
Answer: A
Q2) In organic compounds,carbon atoms are bound to each other by A) ionic bonds.
B) polar bonds.
C) hydrogen bonds.
D) covalent bonds.
Answer: D
Q3) The chemical reaction that represents the combustion of glucose is C H O + O Ã CO + H O + E; the reactants are
A) CO and H2O.
B) O and H2O.
C) C6H12O6 and O .
D) C6H12O6 and CO .
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Internal Compartments
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Sample Questions
Q1) The boundary that surrounds the contents of the nucleus is the A) plasma membrane.
B) nuclear envelope.
C) nuclear pore.
D) cytosol.
Answer: B
Q2) What components of the plasma membrane of an animal cell would you find at its innermost surface,directly exposed to the cytoplasm?
A) phospholipid tails only
B) proteins only
C) phospholipid heads and proteins
D) phospholipid heads and nucleic acids
Answer: C
Q3) The entire contents of a cell,except for the nucleus,are included in the ________.
Answer: cytoplasm
Q4) At the most basic level of life,organic compounds are organized into energy-dependent,self-replicating units known as ________.
Answer: cells
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Chapter 4: Cell Membranes, Transport, and Communication
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Q1) Multicellular organisms have various specialized cells because A) any one cell can contain only one kind of organelle.
B) each kind of cell is able to function in isolation.
C) specialized cells ensure that processes necessary for life occur efficiently.
D) the DNA of cells is not accurately copied.
Q2) You observe a cell in a solution that swells until it bursts.What you have seen is an instance of osmosis in a(n)________ solution.
A) hypertonic
B) isotonic
C) hypotonic
D) exotonic
Q3) As a biological process,osmosis
A) requires an input of cellular energy.
B) moves solute from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration.
C) is a type of passive transport.
D) requires reorganization of the plasma membrane.
Q4) Even though the concentration of water in a cell remains constant in an isotonic solution,the random movement of water molecules during ________ requires that water be constantly moving in both directions across the plasma membrane.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Energy, Metabolism, and Enzymes
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Q1) Which of the following statements about enzymes is true?
A) In a human cell, one enzyme usually catalyzes no more than five different chemical reactions.
B) In a human cell, nearly all chemical reactions are catalyzed by enzymes.
C) In a human cell, enzymes must be constantly replaced as they are used up in the reactions they catalyze.
D) In a human cell, some enzymes are specialized to store activation energy.
Q2) Catabolic reactions are tightly coupled to reactions that require energy; those reactions are called ________ reactions.
Q3) Metabolic pathways are relatively uncommon in cells; most biologically significant molecules are obtained intact from a well-balanced diet.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A rotted log exemplifies the operation of the ________ law of thermodynamics.
Q5) A catalyst is not changed during a chemical reaction,but it affects the ________ at which the reaction occurs.
Q6) Carbon dioxide is one product of a metabolic process that occurs in both plants and animals; this process is called ________.
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Chapter 6: Photo Synthesis and Cellular Respiration
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Q1) The enzyme rubisco is important to the process of A) catabolism.
B) fermentation.
C) glycolysis.
D) carbon fixation.
Q2) The type of reaction that breaks down food molecules and gradually oxidizes them to produce energy is a(n)________ reaction.
Q3) Lactic acid is a by-product of fermentation in the human body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Only animal cells carry out oxidative phosphorylation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cyanide blocks the electron transport chain in mitochondria and can ultimately cause the glycolytic pathway to shut down because no NADH is available to keep it going.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The green pigment that is most commonly associated with photosynthesis is
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Chapter 7: Cell Division
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Sample Questions
Q1) The completion of the physical division of the parent cell cytoplasm that usually occurs during the last stage of mitosis is known as
A) centrosome formation.
B) G0.
C) cytokinesis.
D) meiosis.
Q2) When appropriately prompted,diploid individuals of Ulva prolifera form spores that germinate to become haploid individuals.What is the most likely mechanism by which diploid individuals could be created to complete the life cycle?
A) Haploid individuals meiotically produce egg cells and sperm cells, which subsequently fuse.
B) Some haploid individuals undergo multiple rounds of mitosis without cytokinesis, followed by nuclear fusion.
C) Some of these individuals differentiate to become haploid gametes and then fuse to produce a diploid zygote.
D) Haploid individuals undergo two sequential S phases in their cell cycle to reestablish the diploid state.
Q3) Chromosomes become visible during the mitotic stage called ________.
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Chapter 8: Cancer and Human Health
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Q1) Malignant colon cancer cells enter the bloodstream and move to the liver where they form ________ tumors.
Q2) Cancer in humans is caused
A) only by environmental factors.
B) only by genetic factors.
C) by neither environmental nor genetic factors.
D) by both environmental and genetic factors.
Q3) A disease that starts with a single cell that loses its ability to control cell division is ________.
Q4) Which of the following is NOT true of cell division?
A) A cell has no control over how often it divides.
B) Negative growth regulators are used to halt cell division.
C) Positive growth regulators stimulate cell division.
D) Uncontrolled cell division can cause cancer.
Q5) The capacity of stem cells,germ line cells,and HeLa cells to divide repeatedly suggests that they share one or more common features,the most important of which is probably the ability to synthesize ________ and repair their chromosomes after each round of cell division.
Q6) Mutations that cause an inherited risk for cancer occur in the ________ cells.
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Q7) Genes that increase the rate of cell division are ________ growth regulators.
Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Is it possible for two organisms with the same genotype to have different phenotypes?
A) No; identical genotypes lead to identical phenotypes.
B) No; the DNA of the recessive alleles not expressed in the phenotype is degraded within each cell.
C) Yes; the expression of the genotype can be affected by the environment.
D) Yes; the phenotype expressed determines what the genotype will be.
Q2) Mendel's laws were able to accurately predict the pattern of inheritance for situations in which
A) alleles are affected by their environment.
B) one allele completely masks another allele.
C) alleles of one gene alter the effect of a different gene.
D) a given character is determined by more than one gene.
Q3) The first generation of phenotypes resulting from a genetic cross between two members of the parental generation would be seen in the ________ generation.
Q4) The expressed characteristics of an organism are known as its ________.
Q5) When gametes are formed,the separation of alleles for one gene is unrelated to the separation of alleles for other genes.This idea is known as Mendel's law of ________.
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Chapter 10: Chromosomes and Human Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) All genes on the same chromosome are linked.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Genes A and B are located on the same chromosome.Two parent organisms with the genotypes AABB and aabb were crossed.One of the resulting AaBb offspring was experimentally crossed with an aabb individual.The final offspring genotypes were AaBb,aabb,Aabb,and aaBb. Which of the final offspring genotypes were produced through crossing-over?
A) None of the genotypes were produced through crossing-over.
B) All of the genotypes were produced through crossing-over.
C) AaBb and aabb
D) Aabb and aaBb
Q3) Because two genes are only very rarely separated from each other by crossing-over,it can be concluded that the two genes are A) close to each other on the same chromosome.
B) far apart from each other on the same chromosome
C) on two different chromosomes.
D) on homologous chromosomes.
Q4) Human males have one chromosome that females do not,known as the ________ chromosome.
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Chapter 11: DNA and Genes
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Q1) Mismatch errors are
A) almost always corrected by mutagens.
B) almost always corrected by DNA repair proteins.
C) usually caused by transposons.
D) usually caused by mutated proteins.
Q2) The process of DNA replication is error free.
A)True
B)False
Q3) During DNA replication,the template strands of the original DNA molecule are complementary both to each other and to one of the new strands.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A change in an organism's environment generally results in a change in ________,leading to the production of different types of proteins.
Q5) Because of the Human Genome Project,scientists now know the function of all 21,000 human genes.
A)True B)False
Q6) When compared,the nucleotide sequences of different individuals are________.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: From Gene to Protein
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Q1) The lac repressor has been mutated so that its binding site for lactose has been altered to the extent that it is unable to bind to lactose.What is the likely effect of this mutation on the lac operon?
A) The repressor will be unable to bind to the operator, and the operon will thus be turned on.
B) The repressor will bind to the operator and suppress transcription of the operon despite the presence of lactose.
C) The lac operon will be degraded by the altered repressor.
D) The repressor will bind to the operator and enhance the ability of RNA polymerase to bind there.
Q2) Changing even a few bases in a molecule of DNA always adversely affects the protein product.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is true of rRNA?
A) It is made up of base pairs.
B) It carries amino acids.
C) It is not translated.
D) It helps transcribe DNA.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: DNA Technology
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Q1) To screen the genome of a bacterium for a particular gene,you would use ________that attach to complementary DNA sequences.
A) gels
B) ligases
C) DNA probes
D) restriction enzymes
Q2) In the first step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR),the two strands of the DNA being amplified must be separated by exposing the DNA to high ________.
Q3) The immune disorder adenosine deaminase (ADA)deficiency is the result of a mutation in one gene.How could gene therapy be used to treat this disorder?
A) Red blood cells could be induced to produce the protein encoded by the mutated ADA gene.
B) Cells containing a corrected ADA gene could be injected into patients with ADA.
C) The patients could swallow synthetic blood cells.
D) Patients could be injected with a hybrid molecule made of the DNA and RNA of the normal ADA gene.
Q4) A DNA fingerprint is also called a DNA ________.
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15
Chapter 14: How Evolution Works
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Q1) Which of the following statements about evolution is true?
A) It results only in the addition of traits to organisms.
B) It results only in the loss of traits from organisms.
C) It can result in the addition or loss of traits in organisms.
D) It has nothing to do with the addition or loss of traits.
Q2) Scientists who believe in evolution are never religious.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The genus Lycopodium includes plants that evolved before the breakup of Pangaea.The genus Sequoiadendron (redwood trees)evolved after Pangaea split into separate landmasses.Which genus would you expect to have the widest distribution of living representatives across the modern continents?
A) Lycopodium
B) Sequoiadendron
C) Both should be equally distributed.
D) Both should be extinct.
Q4) Plate tectonics causes the ________ of Earth's landmasses over geologic time.
Q5) Cliff swallows in southwestern Nebraska are experiencing a new natural selection pressure; the swallows that are less agile are more likely to be killed by ________.
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Chapter 15: The Origin of Species
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Q1) Gene flow prevents two populations from becoming genetically different.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Vestigial organs had a function in a previous ancestor but no longer have a function in the current species.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Speciation can occur when populations of a species are separated by a physical barrier becoming ________ isolated and subsequently reproductively isolated from one another.
Q4) ________ speciation occurs when a new species arises in the absence of geographic isolation.
Q5) The distance needed for geographic isolation is
A) larger for a crow than it is for a snail.
B) smaller for a crow than it is for a snail.
C) the same for both a crow and a snail.
D) impossible to determine because bird species cannot be geographically isolated.
Q6) The offspring of two individuals of different species that interbreed are known as
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Chapter 16: The Evolution of Biodiversity
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Q1) An asteroid can cause a mass extinction by creating a cloud that blocks out the sun for months or years after impact.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is the fossil record incomplete?
A) Transitional forms of organisms do not exist because evolution constantly forms new organisms from scratch.
B) The remains of organisms form fossils by chance and are later discovered by chance. C) DNA evidence cannot be obtained from fossils.
D) Evolutionary trends cannot be determined without complete skeletons, which are rare.
Q3) The coelacanth and the lungfish are the two main candidates reputed to be a close relative of the ancestral fish that first used fins to walk on land and give rise to the
Q4) Ninety-five percent of marine invertebrate species went extinct during the mass extinction at the end of the ____________________.
Q5) The first single-celled organisms arose 3.5 ____________________ years ago.
Q6) About 220 million years ago,mammals evolved from ____________________.
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Chapter 17: Biological Diversity, Bacteria, and Archaea
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT part of the modern system of biological classification?
A) Fungi
B) Archaea
C) Eukaryote
D) Prokaryote
Q2) A patient is infected with a microbe that has taken over the metabolism of the patient's liver cells.This microbe is most likely a(n)
A) bacteria.
B) archaea.
C) virus.
D) protist.
Q3) All bacteria have the same shape.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Some prokaryotes break down dead organisms and waste products to return the chemical elements back into the environment in a process called ________.
Q5) The domain most similar to Eukarya is ________.
Q6) Pathogens are organisms that cause ________.
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Chapter 18: Protista, Plantae, and Fungi
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Q1) Xylem is specialized for transporting water and dissolved nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The defining feature of the angiosperms is the ________.
Q3) A variety of bacterial or protozoan heterotrophic microorganisms associate symbiotically with specific fungi to produce a lichen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The most ancient eukaryotic fossils are similar to red algae,a type of ________abundant today.
A) fungi
B) bacteria
C) protist
D) plant
Q5) Some protists can reproduce asexually after having located to favorable living conditions; the most commonly used methods are fragmentation,zoospores,budding,or
Q6) An important adaptation for terrestrial life that helps keep terrestrial plants from desiccating when exposed to sun and wind is a waxy covering known as the ________
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Animalia
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Q1) The vertebrates are grouped into a lineage because all members possess an internal
Q2) The head,thorax,and abdomen of the insect body plan developed as individual segments fused; because each segment originated one pair of appendages,a reasonable hypothesis is that the thorax developed when ________ segments fused.
A) 3
B) 6
C) 12
D) 24
Q3) Fruit flies,blow flies,and black flies share a similar life history strategy; they first appear as larvae (commonly known as maggots),pupate,and eventually emerge as adult flies.This type of development is called
A) incomplete metamorphosis.
B) complete metamorphosis.
C) somatic differentiation.
D) hermaphroditic development.
Q4) In addition to embryonic similarities,the chordates and echinoderms also each possess a hollow nerve cord located on the ________ side of the body.
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Chapter 20: The Biosphere
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Q1) Species that are accidentally introduced into new geographic regions
A) are usually plants.
B) have no effect on the region.
C) are mostly aquatic organisms.
D) can become pests.
Q2) The biome characterized by warmth,rain,and a rich diversity of trees,shrubs,and vines is the
A) tundra.
B) chaparral.
C) tropical forest.
D) temperate forest.
Q3) Relatively little precipitation falls on the side of a mountain that faces away from prevailing winds because of the ________ effect.
Q4) ________ biomes are characterized by slowly flowing shallow water on lands that border larger bodies of water.
Q5) Temperature differences drive air movement in the six atmospheric convection cells with warm,moist air sinking and cool,dry air rising.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: Growth of Populations
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Q1) Which of the following situations illustrates a link between the effects of density-dependent and density-independent factors?
A) A flood causes a river to overflow and drown a herd of deer.
B) A drought occurs; a small herd of deer is able to survive, whereas a larger herd in the same area perishes.
C) A population of deer increases to a size at which individuals are competing with each other to get enough food.
D) None of the above are correct because density-dependent and density-independent factors cannot affect the same population of organisms at the same time.
Q2) Food shortages and communicable disease are examples of factors that can increase a population's death rate while simultaneously ________ its growth rate.
Q3) One of the greatest concerns to ecologists today is the possibility that the current rate of human population growth will soon produce a human population that exceeds the ________ of our environment.
Q4) When the combination of death and emigration rates is lower than the combination of birth and immigration rates,the population will ________.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Animal Behavior
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Q1) A dog urinating on a nearby shrub is most likely
A) simply finding a spot to excrete urine.
B) releasing pheromones in the urine to mark territory.
C) releasing urine to discourage a potential mate.
D) female and not ovulating.
Q2) Because a frog has a more complex nervous system than a slug,the behaviors of a frog should be more complex than those of a slug.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Genetics plays a role in learned behaviors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Past experiences help to form ________ behaviors.
Q5) Genetic influences play a larger role in
A) fixed behaviors such as imprinting.
B) learned behaviors such as a dog fetching a stick.
C) fixed behaviors such as nest cleaning in honeybees.
D) learned behaviors such as cats covering their excretions.
Q6) Behavioral interactions among members of a group is known as ________ behavior.
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Q7) In the mating system of ________,one male and one female mate exclusively.
Chapter 23: Ecological Communities
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Q1) Can a human being be considered an ecological community?
A) Yes; for example, a community of microorganisms lives within the human digestive system.
B) Yes; human beings live with other humans, own pets, and grow domesticated crops.
C) No; a community is formed from many populations, and it takes more than one individual to make up a population.
D) No; human populations are artificial rather than natural and are considered to fall outside of ecology.
Q2) During exploitation,consumer organisms never cause their prey to become extinct.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Parasites,and the disease they cause,represent a distinctive type of exploitation because
A) of the high mortality rates associated with infection.
B) parasites affect only specific portions of the host.
C) of the chronic and progressive debilitation of the host.
D) parasites represent the only species interaction where the symbiont lives on or in the host organism.
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25
Chapter 24: Ecosystems
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Q1) What best explains the low productivity of the open ocean?
A) The open ocean lacks sufficient light to support photosynthesis.
B) Nutrients rapidly sink to depths that sunlight cannot reach.
C) The open ocean is actually very productive, but its primary producers are consumed as quickly as they grow.
D) These regions are typically too cool to support significant primary production.
Q2) An atom of phosphorous may remain out of the biological part of its cycle for many millions of years.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following would use the highest percentage of net primary productivity?
A) producers
B) decomposers
C) herbivores
D) predators
Q4) Each level of an energy pyramid corresponds to a step in a food chain and is called a(n)________ level.
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Chapter 25: Global Change
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Q1) Which of the following statements about carbon dioxide levels in Earth's atmosphere is true?
A) They peaked around 1950 and have been slowly decreasing since then.
B) They are high now but are not higher than the highest estimated levels during the last 420,000 years.
C) They are estimated to be higher now than at any time in the past 420,000 years.
D) They began to decrease when the use of CFCs stopped.
Q2) Increased agricultural productivity in the northern latitudes is expected to be a consequence of global warming because
A) the increased temperatures will lead to a longer growing season.
B) cold-tolerant plants will adapt to become hardier.
C) soil acidification will occur in those areas.
D) agricultural productivity increases are predicted for all latitudes.
Q3) The best hope for slowing Earth's rapid ecological changes is to decrease the ________ impact on the biosphere to a sustainable level.
Q4) The physical and biotic changes humans make to the land surface of Earth are collectively known as land ________.
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