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Basic Biology is an introductory course that explores the fundamental principles and concepts of biological science. Topics include the structure and function of cells, genetics and heredity, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of living organisms. Students will gain an understanding of how living systems operate on both the cellular and organismal level, as well as how they interact with their environment. The course combines theoretical knowledge with practical laboratory experiences to develop foundational scientific skills and promote an appreciation for the complexity of life.
Recommended Textbook
The Living World 7th Edition by George Johnson
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Q1) All living things use energy,a property known as ______________.
Answer: metabolism
Q2) Scientists employ __________________ reasoning when performing the scientific process.
A) inductive
B) deductive
C) reductive
D) adductive
Answer: A
Q3) We have all heard that dietary fats are linked to higher incidences of heart disease and cancer in humans.Choose the proper hypothesis that a scientist could test.
A) Eating more meat causes cancer.
B) Eating a diet of lard makes you fat.
C) Dietary fat,heart disease,and cancer are all somehow interrelated.
D) Fat levels above 30% of calories in the diet are correlated with an increase in heart disease.
Answer: D
Q4) The kingdom that includes mushrooms and yeast is the _______________.
Answer: Fungi
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Q1) The mass number of an atom is the:
A) number of neutrons only.
B) the number of electrons plus the number of protons.
C) the number of protons only.
D) the number of protons plus the number of neutrons.
E) the number of electrons,plus the number of neutrons,plus the number of protons.
Answer: D
Q2) The chemical bond within a water molecule is a ______ bond.
Answer: covalent
Q3) We use the __________ scale to measure concentrations of hydrogen ions in a solution.
Answer: pH
Q4) The type of bond that forms between two atoms when electrons are shared is a(n)_______________ bond.
A) hydrogen
B) covalent
C) kinetic
D) ionic
Answer: B
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Q1) A __________ bond links two amino acids together. Answer: peptide
Q2) Describe five functions of proteins.
Answer: Proteins catalyze chemical reactions,transport other substances,act as chemical messengers,form structures such as nails and hair,aid in defense against invaders,and allow muscles to contract.
Q3) In RNA,thymine is replaced with __________.
Answer: uracil
Q4) The bases of the two DNA chains are linked in the middle of the molecule by _________ bonds.
A) covalent
B) ionic
C) hydrogen
D) There are no bonds connecting the chains. Answer: C
Q5) Nucleic acids are long polymers of repeating subunits called __________.
Answer: nucleotides
Q6) Many mammals supply energy to their young in the form of __________.
Answer: lactose

5
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Q1) Which of the following causes a dividing cell to pinch in two by contracting like a purse string?
A) Microtubles
B) Actin filaments
C) Intermediate filaments
D) Centrioles
E) Pili
Q2) In addition to a plasma membrane,plant cells have ______________ which protect and support the plant cell.
Q3) The endosymbiont theory is supported by the following evidence except:
A) Mitochondria are surrounded by two membranes.
B) Mitochondrial ribosomes are similar to bacterial ribosomes.
C) Mitochondria contain circular molecules of DNA.
D) Mitochondria divide by binary fission.
E) Mitochondria have a matrix.
Q4) Why can't many molecules,like sugar and proteins,pass freely across the lipid bilayer of plasma membranes?
Q5) Describe the path a protein destined for secretion takes from synthesis to when it leaves the cell.
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Q1) Energy flows into the biological world from the:
A) oceans
B) plants
C) sun
D) volcanoes
E) large animals
Q2) In reference to enzyme activities,repressors _____ the active site,while activators ________ it.
A) restore,disrupt
B) promote,disrupt
C) disrupt,restore
D) disrupt,promote
E) stimulate,repress
Q3) Which are the components of an ATP molecule?
A) deoxyribose,3 phosphates,1 guanine
B) ribose,2 phosphates,1 thymine
C) deoxyribose,ribose,1 cytosine
D) ribose,3 phosphates,1 adenine
E) glucose,3 phosphates,1 guanine
Q4) In __________ reactions,the products contain more energy than the reactants.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carotenoids are important to many plants because these pigments are able to:
A) remove carbon dioxide from the air
B) absorb water so that hydrolysis can be carried out in the chloroplasts
C) absorb violet and blue-green wavelengths of light that are not absorbed by chlorophyll
D) capture UV radiation that is harmful to the DNA in the nucleus of plant cells
E) store electrons for use during the "dark" reaction of photosynthesis
Q2) How many turns of the Calvin cycle are needed to make one glucose molecule?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 6
Q3) Within chloroplasts,the fluid-like matrix in which the Calvin cycle occurs is called:
A) thylakoids
B) grana
C) stroma
D) mesophyll
Q4) What is the purpose of accessory pigments,such as carotenoids,in photosynthesis?
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Q1) Which of the following macromolecules can be broken down into intermediate products that enter cellular respiration?
A) Proteins
B) Lipids
C) Nucleic acids
D) Carbohydrates
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) If an atom gains an electron in a chemical reaction,it is said that the atom:
A) has been oxidized
B) has been regulated
C) has been reduced
D) has been catalyzed
E) has activated
Q3) Why do oxidation and reduction always take place together?
Q4) ________________ molecules of ATP are generated from the complete cellular respiration of one molecule of glucose.
Q5) The second stage of cellular respiration,_____________,takes place only in the mitochondria.
Q6) The internal compartment of the mitochondria is the _______.
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Q1) During which mitotic stage is the spindle disassembled,the nuclear membrane formed and the chromosomes uncoil?
A) Anaphase
B) Metaphase
C) Prophase
D) Telophase
E) Interphase
Q2) The spindle is:
A) the new cell membrane as it reforms across the cytoplasm during cytokinesis
B) the protein that connects the duplicated chromosomes
C) the network of protein cables that will pull the chromatids to opposite ends of the cell
D) the protein that DNA winds itself around
Q3) All of the following are correct about cancer except:
A) malignant tumors are invasive
B) malignant tumors are not encapsulated
C) cancer cells can sometimes spread into the bloodstream
D) benign cells are those that have metastasized
E) cancers are the direct result of mutations in growth-regulating genes
Q4) Describe what occurs during prophase of mitosis.
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Q1) Bacteria reproduce by meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cells that will eventually undergo meiosis and produce gametes are often referred to as _______________ cells.
Q3) The kinetochore holds the homologous chromosomes together.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Meiosis is also known as reduction division.
A)True
B)False
Q5) During metaphase I of meiosis,homologous chromosomes can orient themselves such that one or the other will by chance go to a particular daughter cell in a process known as ________________________________.
Q6) During which stage of meiosis does crossing over occur?
A) Prophase I
B) Anaphase I
C) Prophase II
D) Telophase II
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Q7) The development of an adult from an unfertilized egg is called ___________.

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Q1) What is the product of transcription?
A) DNA
B) Genes
C) Protein
D) RNA
E) All of the choices are correct.
Q2) A central role for chromosomes in heredity was first suggested by:
A) Karl Correns
B) Gregor Mendel
C) Thomas Hunt Morgan
D) Walter Sutton
Q3) Mendel's "factors" for inheritance are now known to be ________.
Q4) Which of the following is a sex-linked disorder?
A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Hemophilia
C) Huntington's disease
D) Tay-Sachs disease
E) Hypercholesterolemia
Q5) When homologous chromosomes or chromatids fail to separate properly in meiosis,this is called _________________.
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Q1) Which researcher in 1761 noted unusual tumors of the nose in snuff users and suggested tobacco as the cause?
A) Katsusaburo Yamagiwa
B) John Hill
C) Sir Percivall Pott
D) Ernst Winder
E) Richard Doll
Q2) When Griffith injected a mixture of dead S bacteria and live,capsuleless R bacteria,the mice:
A) remained healthy
B) died of blood poisoning
C) became ill but lived
D) reproduced quicker
Q3) Which choice describes how the DNA molecule replicates?
A) Semiconservative
B) Dispersive
C) Conservative
D) Either dispersive or semiconservative depending on the pH
E) Either dispersive or conservative depending on the organism
Q4) The two strands of DNA are said to be __________ to one another.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three types of RNA involved in protein synthesis are mRNA,_______________,and ________________.
Q2) All of the following occur in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes except:
A) there is DNA transcription
B) there is alternative splicing of genes
C) in RNA,uracil replaces thymine
D) translation occurs on a ribosome
E) tRNA carries the amino acid to the mRNA to make polypeptides
Q3) The process of bringing in the appropriate amino acid into position along the mRNA in the cytoplasm is:
A) translation
B) transcription
C) transduction
D) promotion
Q4) The site where RNA polymerase attaches to the DNA molecule to start the formation of mRNA is called a(n):
A) operon
B) exon
C) promoter
D) operator

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Q1) Embryonic stem cells come from embryos specifically made for research.
A)True
B)False
Q2) To seal the cut fragments of DNA together,an enzyme called __________ is used.
A) amylase
B) peptidase
C) trypsin
D) ligase
Q3) A promising vector is being investigated for use in gene therapy.It is the:
A) adenovirus
B) NIH virus
C) rhino-associated virus
D) adeno-associated virus
Q4) Do you feel there is any harm in cloning mammals? Why? Why not?
Q5) All of the genes and other DNA of an organism constitute its:
A) genome
B) introns
C) multigene family
D) polygenic makeup
Q6) Explain the techniques used in the cloning of "Dolly."
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Q1) Two populations of flowers are separated by a mountain range and would not be capable of interbreeding.This is an example of:
A) behavorial isolation
B) mechanical isolation
C) ecological isolation
D) geographical isolation
Q2) Darwin's evidence that evolution occurs included:
A) the existence of fossils that closely resembled living specimens
B) a distinctive distribution of plants and animals in lands with similar climates that were not physically connected
C) unique but similar species on several nearby islands
D) All of these were Darwin's evidence for evolution.
Q3) Much of the evolutionary history of vertebrates can be seen in the way in which their ________ develop.
A) digestive tracts
B) embryos
C) brains
D) appendages
E) nervous systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the highest,most inclusive category.
A) Order
B) Family
C) Genus
D) Phylum
Q2) Mitochondria are present in organisms in the following kingdoms except:
A) Plantae
B) Fungi
C) Protista
D) Archaea
E) Animalia
Q3) Which of these groups does not fit well into the biological species concept?
A) Animals
B) Humans
C) Protists
D) All of these are correct.
Q4) The domain Archaea includes bacteria that live in extreme environments as well as the viruses.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The simplest and most abundant form of life on Earth today are the:
A) prokaryotes
B) fungi
C) molds
D) protists
Q2) Some bacteria attach to surfaces of other cells with short outgrowths called _____________.
Q3) Spherical bacteria are called:
A) cocci
B) bacilli
C) spirilla
D) None of these
Q4) Prokaryotes that obtain their energy by oxidizing inorganic substances,such as prokaryotes that oxidize hydrogen sulfide in volcanic vents,are the:
A) photoautotrophs
B) chemoautotrophs
C) photoheterotrophs
D) chemoheterotrophs
Q5) In __________________,atmospheric nitrogen is converted to a more usable form.
Q6) Prokaryotes reproduce using a method called _________________.
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Q1) Protists move by:
A) cilia
B) flagella
C) pseudopods
D) gliding mechanisms
E) all of these.
Q2) The development of an adult from an unfertilized egg is called:
A) parthenogenesis
B) zygotic meiosis
C) gametic meiosis
D) sporic meiosis
E) budding
Q3) There are over 11,500 species of these protists that have ornate,glasslike shells.
A) Green algae
B) Brown algae
C) Red algae
D) Diatoms
Q4) _____________ is a common name for green photosynthetic protists.
Q5) There are _______ major phyla in the Kingdom Protista.
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Q1) The relationship between plant roots and fungi can best be described as:
A) an association
B) predation
C) mutualism
D) parasitism
Q2) The roots of about 10% of all kinds of plants are involved in symbiotic associations with certain kinds of fungi.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The fungi that cause athlete's foot and ringworm are members of which group?
A) Ascomycetes
B) Basidiomycetes
C) Zygomycetes
D) Imperfect fungi
Q4) A mass of fungal hyphae is called a:
A) plant body
B) mycelium
C) gametophyte
D) sporophyte
Q5) The fungus from which penicillin is derived belongs to the _____________.
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Q1) All of the following are correct about protostomes except:
A) The developmental fate of each cell in the embryo is fixed when that cell first appears.
B) The blastopore becomes the animal's anus.
C) The mesoderm splits to form the coelom.
D) Embryonic cells cleave in a spiral pattern.
Q2) Cnidarians and ctenophorans differ from other metazoans by having:
A) radial symmetry
B) bilateral symmetry
C) major organ systems
D) gills
Q3) The function of the notochord is taken over by the ____________ in vertebrates.
A) brain
B) spinal cord
C) backbone
D) ribs
Q4) It has often been said that the next dominant animals on land,after a hypothetical demise of all mammals,would be the insects.Why so?
Q5) Evolution of a body cavity is important for several reasons.List three.
Q6) Describe a hypothesis for the origin of metazoans from single celled protists.
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Q1) Almost all organisms alive today evolved from marine creatures alive at the beginning of the:
A) Cenozoic era
B) Precambrian time
C) Jurassic period
D) Paleozoic era
Q2) For over ______ years,dinosaurs dominated the face of the earth.
A) 10 thousand
B) 1 million
C) 10 million
D) 50 million
E) 150 million
Q3) All of the following are made of keratin except:
A) hair
B) hooves
C) claws
D) fingernails
E) antlers
Q4) The milk-producing glands of mammals are called _____________________.
Q5) Bony fish evolved ________________________ to help keep them afloat.
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Q1) Prosimians look like gorillas.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Humans and chimpanzees share _________ of their nuclear DNA.
A) 55%
B) 75.5%
C) 85.4%
D) 95%
E) 98.6%
Q3) Which of our ancestors was "handy man?"
A) Australopithecus afarensis
B) Australopithecus anamensis
C) Homo habilis
D) Homo erectus
Q4) The oldest modern human is:
A) Homo habilis
B) Homo rudolfensis
C) Homo ergaster
D) Homo heidelbergensis
Q5) Java man and Peking man are both examples of Homo _______________.
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Q1) An __________________ is a group of organs that work together in the body to perform a particular function.
Q2) Which of the following is mismatched?
A) hydraulic skeleton - earthworm
B) endoskeleton - echinoderms
C) exoskeleton - vertebrates
D) hydraulic skeleton - jellyfish
E) exoskeleton - crustaceans
Q3) Your quadriceps are your:
A) upper arm muscles
B) calf muscles
C) thigh muscles
D) shoulder muscles
Q4) List three major evolutionary changes that occurred in animals,leading to greater complexity and specialization.
Q5) List the two principal types of cells of the immune system,and describe their functions.
Q6) ___________________ surround the body as a rigid,exterior case,and are exhibited in arthropods.
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Q1) How does the structure of lymphatic capillaries differ from that of capillaries of the circulatory system?
Q2) Which valve in the human heart prevents oxygenated blood from going back into the left atrium?
A) Bicuspid (mitral)valve
B) Aortic semilunar valve
C) Tricuspid valve
D) Pulmonary semilunar valve
Q3) Explain the protective functions of the vertebrate circulatory system.
Q4) Mollusks and arthropods have closed circulatory systems.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cardiovascular disease is the second leading cause of death in the United States.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe how arteries are adapted to carry high pressure blood.
Q7) The veins leading from the lungs to the heart are the ____________ veins.
Q8) _________________ are tiny blood vessels leading away from capillaries to veins.
Q9) _________________ are blood vessels that move blood away from the heart. Page 25
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Q1) Blood flow and blood pressure are regulated by the amount of _____ released into the bloodstream.
A) nitric oxide
B) carbon dioxide
C) oxygen
D) carbonic anhydrase
E) hemoglobin
Q2) Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to the same sites on the hemoglobin molecule at different times.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In which animal does air flow through the lungs in one direction only?
A) Lizard
B) Elephant
C) Fly
D) Hummingbird
E) Alligator
Q4) It is impossible to get lung cancer unless you smoke cigarettes.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Which vitamin deficiency results in scurvy?
A) Folic acid
B) Vitamin K
C) Niacin
D) Vitamin C
E) Vitamin E
Q2) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency is known as ________.
A) pellagra
B) rickets
C) pernicious anemia
D) beriberi
E) scurvy
Q3) Animals that consume both plant material and other animals are called:
A) herbivores
B) carnivores
C) omnivores
D) detritivores
Q4) Excessive acid produced by the stomach can erode a hole,called an ______________,in the lining of the stomach.
Q5) What are the three main functions of the stomach?
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Q1) The kidneys of the _____ are so efficient it never has to drink water.
A) frog
B) turtle
C) kangaroo rat
D) kangaroo
E) camel
Q2) The _____________ is the functional unit within the kidney.
Q3) Explain how Bowman's capsule works.
Q4) Mammals and amphibians are the only vertebrates that produce urine that is hypertonic to their body fluids.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most mammals have uricase,which converts uric acid into ________.
A) urea
B) water
C) ammonia
D) allantoin
Q6) Some mammals,like the kangaroo rat of the desert,have extremely long loops of Henle in their kidneys.What purpose must this serve?
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Q7) The regulation of the body's osmotic composition is called

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Q1) The ______________ are cells that release neutralizing chemicals that kill bacteria and themselves in the process.
A) monocytes
B) macrophages
C) basophils
D) neutrophils
Q2) Will there soon be a vaccine for the virus causing AIDS? Explain.
Q3) Explain why relatives are sought for kidney transplants.
Q4) When interleukin-2 is released in response to a virus invading body cells,___________________ are activated.
A) killer T cells
B) helper T cells
C) neutrophils
D) mast cells
Q5) Why does the body often respond to an infection with a fever?
Q6) During an infection,B cells divide to form ___________________ that will be ready for the next time the B cells encounter the same microbe.
Q7) The virus that causes AIDS is the _______________ virus.
Q8) Describe the role of macrophages in protecting the body against disease.
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Q1) A __________ produces a rapid,automatic motor response to a stimulus.
Q2) The ____________ nervous system cannot be controlled by conscious thought.
A) motor
B) voluntary
C) autonomic
D) central
Q3) Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter which forms an excitatory synapse in ____ muscle and an inhibitory synapse in _____ muscle.
A) smooth;skeletal
B) skeletal;cardiac
C) cardiac;skeletal
D) skeletal;smooth
Q4) As terrestrial vertebrates evolved,the ______ became increasingly more prominent.
A) medulla oblongata
B) amygdala
C) cerebrum
D) occipital lobe
E) cerebellum
Q5) Compare the sympathetic nervous system with the parasympathetic nervous system.
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Q1) Balance is associated with the movements of little __________ in the inner ear.
Q2) All sensory receptors are able to initiate nerve impulses by opening or closing:
A) voltage-gated channels
B) exteroreceptors
C) interoreceptors
D) stimulus-gated channels
Q3) All of the following animals use echolocation to locate objects except:
A) whales
B) bats
C) cats
D) shrews
E) dolphins
Q4) Animals such as bats use a type of sonar called ______________ to locate objects.
Q5) Cilia from sensory cells that detect motion are located within the:
A) interior eye
B) semicircular canals
C) upper nasal cavity
D) cochlea
Q6) Describe the path that sound travels to reach the inner ear.
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Q1) Peptide hormones employ ______________ that amplify the response of the cell.
Q2) Prolactin stimulates the breasts to produce milk,which is released in response to oxytocin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The adrenal cortex releases ______________,which stimulates the kidney to take up extra sodium ions.
A) aldosterone
B) epinephrine
C) glucose
D) ADH
Q4) A second messenger:
A) is cyclic AMP
B) serves to amplify the signal
C) activates protein kinases
D) All of these are correct.
Q5) Excessive alcohol and caffeine consumption stimulate antidiuretic hormone and promote water retention.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Prior to ejaculation,mature sperm are stored where?
A) In the testes
B) In the epididymis
C) In the vas deferens
D) In the urethra
Q2) A person with genital herpes can spread the virus both when lesions are present,as well as when not visible.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The sexually transmitted diseases,_____ and _____,can cause pelvic inflammatory disease,in which fallopian tubes become scarred and blocked.
A) syphilis;genital herpes
B) gonorrhea;genital herpes
C) gonorrhea;chlamydia
D) chlamydia;syphilis
Q4) During which period of prenatal development is it especially critical not to consume alcohol and why?
Q5) The muscular ring at the base of the uterus is the ___________.
Q6) Why are shelled eggs evolutionarily advantageous?
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Q1) The first vascular plants occurred in the fossil record _________ years ago.
A) 430 million
B) 1 million
C) 100,000
D) 4.5 billion
Q2) When you see a fern,the large plant you are looking at is the:
A) endosperm
B) gametophyte
C) sporophyte
D) rhizoid
E) antheridium
Q3) Flowers frequented by insects are typically not _____ because insects cannot detect this color.
A) yellow
B) red
C) blue
D) white
Q4) What three features serve to distinguish vascular plants from nonvascular plants?
Q5) A ___________ is an opening into the outermost layer of a leaf.
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Q1) You cut down a tree and count 23 annual rings in the trunk.You conclude that the tree is:
A) most likely 23 years old.
B) probably 230 years old.
C) 46 years old.
D) this does not tell the age of the tree.
E) older than 46 years.
Q2) ________________ occur on root cells near root tips to help take up water and nutrients from the soil.
Q3) Which of the following is a function of trichomes?
A) Regulate the temperature of the leaf
B) Regulate the water balance of the leaf
C) Secreting sticky substances to deter herbivores
D) Secreting toxic substances to deter herbivores
E) All of the choices are functions of trichomes.
Q4) The stalk of a leaf is called the _______________.
Q5) The way water travels up the length of the stem is explained by the cohesion-adhesion-tension theory.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Once a pollen grain reaches the stigma of a flower,it begins to grow a _____________ that pierces the style.
Q2) In plants,hormones are produced in endocrine glands.
A)True
B)False
Q3) This is the primary growth-promoting hormone of plants.
A) Abscisic acid
B) Cytokinin
C) Auxin
D) Gibberellin
Q4) The response of plants to touch is known as:
A) phototropism
B) gravitropism
C) thigmotropism
D) photoperiodism
Q5) Describe how adventitious plantlets form.
Q6) How do the flowers of wind-pollinated plants differ from those of insect-pollinated plants?
Q7) P<sub>r</sub> changes to P<sub>fr</sub> after absorbing ____________ nm wavelength of light.
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Q1) The principle of competitive exclusion states that no two species with the same niche can coexist indefinitely when resources are limiting.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The number of different kinds of species inhabiting an ecosystem is called
Q3) The term "ecology" was first used by:
A) Eugene P.Odum
B) Thoreau
C) Charles Darwin
D) Ernst Haeckel
E) Alfred Russell Wallace
Q4) Which type of symbiosis would exist between a tapeworm living in a human host using its nutrients for its own gain and detriment to the host?
A) parasitism
B) mutualism
C) commensalism
D) benefitism
Q5) A symbiotic relationship in which both species benefit is called ___________.
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Q1) Loss of water from the leaves of plants occurs mostly via a process known as:
A) transpiration
B) evaporation
C) dehydration
D) guttation
Q2) The community plus its habitat make up an ____________________.
Q3) Herbivores are at what trophic level within an ecosystem?
A) Level 1
B) Level 2
C) Level 3
D) Level 4
Q4) The moisture that travels up from the plants into the atmosphere falls back to the Earth as rain.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Microscopic organisms floating on the surface of the ocean make up the ___________________.
Q6) Plants are the ____________ in the food chain in an ecosystem.
Q7) Devise an example of a food chain with four links.
Q8) Why would few reptiles be found in the tundra?
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Q1) An example of altruism is an animal alerting other members of his group that a predator is near even though it puts him in danger.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Young birds see objects flying overhead and respond by crouching down into the nest and remaining still.Over time,some objects become familiar and the young birds do not crouch down.This type of learning is referred to as:
A) sensitization
B) associative learning
C) operant conditioning
D) habituation
Q3) ________ is altering behavior as a result of previous experience.
Q4) List three examples and give details explaining each regarding animal cognition.
Q5) Which of the following can influence reproductive success?
A) How long the individual lives
B) How frequently it mates
C) How many offspring it produces per mating
D) The genetic makeup of the mate
E) All of the choices are correct.
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Q1) Among the non-renewable resources we must protect is:
A) topsoil
B) rainfall
C) trees
D) lichens
Q2) Choose the one environmental problem that you feel is in need of our most immediate attention.Describe the problem and explain why you feel it is the one that is most urgent.
Q3) List five ways that you plan to alter your behavior to help solve environmental problems.
Q4) All of the following characteristics describe a developing country except:
A) short life expectancy
B) high infant mortality
C) low fertility rate
D) low per capita income
E) rapid doubling time
Q5) Explain the cause of the greenhouse effect.
Q6) Widespread effects on the worldwide ecosystem are called __________________.
Q7) Pollution taxes often take the form of ____________________.
Q8) Acid precipitation is due to the addition of __________ to the atmosphere. Page 41
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