Course Introduction
Basic Biological Sciences
Textbook Exam Questions
Basic Biological Sciences introduces students to the fundamental principles and concepts of biology, including the structure and function of cells, genetics, evolution, ecology, and the diversity of life. The course emphasizes the scientific method, experimental design, and the application of biological knowledge to everyday life. Students will explore key topics such as biological molecules, energy flow in living systems, human biology, and the role of organisms within ecosystems. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and discussions, students will develop a solid foundation in biology, preparing them for more advanced study in the life sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Campbell Essential Biology 6th Edition by Eric
J. Simon
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction: Biology Today
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Q1) What is the difference between discovery science and hypothesis-driven science?
A)Discovery science "discovers" new knowledge,whereas hypothesis-driven science does not.
B)Discovery science is based on deductive reasoning,whereas hypothesis-driven science is based on inductive reasoning.
C)Discovery science is mostly about describing nature,whereas hypothesis-driven science tries to explain nature.
D)Discovery science involves predictions about outcomes,whereas hypothesis-driven science involves tentative answers to specific questions.
Answer: C
Q2) Humans are ________.
A)producers
B)producers and consumers
C)consumers
D)producers and decomposers
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Essential Chemistry for Biology
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Q1) All atoms of an element have the same number of ________.
A)protons plus neutrons
B)protons
C)electrons
D)neutrons
Answer: B
Q2) How can radiation be controlled and safely used in medicine?
A)Apply radiation throughout the body at uncontrolled doses.
B)Apply radiation throughout the body at controlled doses.
C)Apply radiation to specific parts of the body at uncontrolled doses.
D)Apply radiation to specific parts of the body at controlled doses.
Answer: D
Q3) The bond between oppositely charged ions is a(n)________ bond.
A)ionic
B)polar
C)hydrogen
D)covalent
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 3: The Molecules of Life
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Q1) What name is given to the following reaction? glycerol + 3 fatty acids triglyceride + 3 water molecules
A)glycolysis
B)hydrolysis
C)hydrogenation
D)dehydration
Answer: D
Q2) In the following equation,lactose is a ________. galactose + glucose lactose + water
A)nucleic acid
B)fatty acid
C)disaccharide
D)dipeptide
Answer: C
Q3) Amino acids include a side group as well as ________.
A)a central carbon,a hydrogen atom,an amino group,and a carboxyl group
B)a central carbon,a hydrogen atom,a hydroxyl group,and a carbonyl group
C)a central nitrogen,a carbon atom,a hydroxyl group,and a carbonyl group
D)a central nitrogen,a carbon atom,an amino group,and a carbonyl group
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: A Tour of the Cell
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Q1) Why do you think the bacteria start to decline when treated with antibiotic C but then begin to grow as time goes on?
A)Some bacteria with resistance to antibiotic C were selected for over time.
B)Additional bacteria were added to the experimental group.
C)Antibiotic C degraded and thus was no longer effective.
D)This is the normal course of bacterial growth no matter which antibiotic is applied.
Q2) Where does protein synthesis take place?
A)in the nucleolus
B)on smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)on ribosomes
D)in the nucleus
Q3) Microtubules are associated with ________.
A)cilia
B)flagella
C)cell shape
D)all of the answer choices
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Chapter 5: The Working Cell
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Q1) What statement regarding this data is TRUE?
A)The weight of the tumors will not change if not treated with Dox or Dox + ATP.
B)Tumor weight decreases when you add Dox only to cancer cells.
C)Adding Dox only or Dox + ATP result in similar decreases in tumor weight.
D)Dox is entering the cancer cells via endocytosis to induce cell death.
Q2) An enzyme's function is most dependent on its ________.
A)pH
B)temperature
C)shape
D)size
Q3) When two solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a selectively permeable membrane,and osmosis is allowed to take place,the water will
A)exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration
B)exhibit a net movement to the side with higher water concentration
C)exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentration
D)exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane
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Chapter 6: Cellular Respiration: Obtaining Energy From Food
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Q1) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of stages in cellular respiration?
A)glycolysis,citric acid cycle,electron transport
B)citric acid cycle,glycolysis,electron transport
C)citric acid cycle,electron transport,glycolysis
D)electron transport,glycolysis,citric acid cycle
Q2) Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to both aerobic and anaerobic processes of sugar breakdown?
A)the citric acid cycle
B)the electron transport chain
C)conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid
D)glycolysis
Q3) In aerobic respiration,how many molecules of acetic acid are produced from six molecules of glucose? A)1 B)38 C)6 D)12
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Photosynthesis: Using Light to Make Food
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Q1) In photosynthesis,redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ________ to ________.
A)O ...CO
B)C H O ...O
C)H O...C H O
D)H O...CO
Q2) Which of these is NOT considered an advantage of biofuels from food crops?
A)reduced carbon emissions
B)a renewable resource
C)increased fuel efficiency
D)increased crop prices
Q3) In the accompanying figure,the molecule that makes up the bulk of the mass of the plant comes in mostly ________.
A)through the veins,which bring materials from the roots
B)through the transparent covering of the leaf into the photosynthetic cells
C)through the stomata
D)from the roots where they are stored during the night
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Chapter 8: Cellular Reproduction: Cells From Cells
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Q1) The above figure shows that ________.
A)meiosis results in the formation of four haploid daughter cells
B)fertilization results in four haploid daughter cells
C)the human 2n number is 4
D)meiosis forms diploid gametes
Q2) The mitotic cell cycle results in the production of ________.
A)four cells,each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
B)two cells,each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
C)two cells,each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information
D)four cells,each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information
Q3) Cytokinesis typically begins during the ________ stage of mitosis.
A)telophase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)anaphase
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Chapter 9: Patterns of Inheritance
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Q1) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D-resistant rickets)is inherited as a sex-linked dominant trait.The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome.What is the expected outcome of a cross between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia?
A)All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
B)Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia.
C)All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia.
D)Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.
Q2) What is the basis of Mendel's laws?
A)the behavior of chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis only
B)the behavior of chromosomes during mitotic anaphase
C)the behavior of chromosomes during prophase I and prophase II of meiosis
D)the behavior of chromosomes during metaphase I and anaphase I of meiosis
Q3) Alleles are described as ________.
A)homologous chromosomes
B)environmental factors that affect gene expression
C)alternate versions of a gene
D)alternate phenotypes
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Structure and Function of Dna
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Q1) DNA replication ________.
A)is a slow process that results in virtually no errors
B)requires DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase
C)is a very fast process that results in numerous errors
D)requires the cooperation of over a dozen enzymes and other proteins
Q2) How can bacteriophage DNA be spread from cell to cell without causing cell death?
A)by altering the way a cell splices its RNA
B)via a lytic cycle
C)via a lysogenic cycle
D)by changing the length of its DNA molecules
Q3) RNA contains the nitrogenous base ________ instead of ________,which is found only in DNA.
A)a deoxyribose sugar...a ribose sugar
B)uracil...thymine
C)uracil...guanine
D)thymine...uracil
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Chapter 11: How Genes Are Controlled
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Q1) Which risk factor is associated with cancer of the colon and rectum?
A)tobacco
B)viruses
C)UV radiation
D)dietary fat
Q2) In an operon,the ________ acts as an on/off switch.
A)operator
B)promoter
C)activator
D)repressor
Q3) Jim came across an advertisement for an herbal supplement that claimed to cure lung cancer by targeting precancerous cells in the lungs.If this claim were true,which of the following is a possible mechanism by which it may act?
A)The supplement would increase mutation rates in proto-oncogenes.
B)The supplement would inhibit the production of tumor suppressor proteins.
C)The supplement would stimulate translation of growth factors
D)The supplement would restrict the transcription of oncogenes.
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13
Chapter 12: DNA Technology
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Q1) What evidence led to Kirk Odom's freedom after being wrongly imprisoned for 30 years?
A)an analysis of blood types from the crime scene
B)an analysis of fingerprints from the crime scene
C)accounts from witnesses
D)an analysis of DNA from the crime scene
Q2) A vaccine works by ________.
A)inhibiting bacterial reproduction
B)stimulating the immune system to develop lasting defenses
C)killing cells infected with a virus
D)preventing translation of mRNA molecules that code for disease-causing proteins
Q3) Which of the following is the best definition for recombinant DNA?
A)DNA that results from bacterial conjugation
B)DNA that includes pieces from two different sources
C)an alternate form of DNA that is the product of a mutation
D)DNA that carries a translocation
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Chapter 13: How Populations Evolve
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Q1) What does evolutionary fitness measure?
A)physical health
B)longevity
C)relative reproductive success
D)population size
Q2) If the frequency of one allele in a population is 0.7 in a population with two alleles at a particular locus,what is the frequency of the alternate allele?
A)0)09
B)0)21
C)0)30
D)0)42
Q3) Homology is evidence of ________.
A)binomial classification
B)artificial selection
C)natural selection
D)common ancestry
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Chapter 14: How Biological Diversity Evolves
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Q1) The wing of a bald eagle is ________ the wing of a penguin.
A)convergent with B)homologous to C)unrelated to D)analogous to
Q2) Uranium-235,with a half-life of 713,000,000 years,decays to lead-207.If a rock sample is determined to have one-quarter of the uranium-235 content it had when it formed,the age of the rock sample can be estimated to be approximately ________ years old.
A)178 million
B)713 million
C)28.5 billion
D)1)4 billion
Q3) Speciation requires ________.
A)periods of rapid evolutionary change
B)geographic isolation
C)long periods of time
D)genetic isolation
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16
Chapter 15: The Evolution of Microbial Life
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Q1) All of the following are true EXCEPT one.Choose the exception.
A)The great diversification of animals occurred during the Cambrian explosion.
B)For most of biological history,life was confined to aquatic habitats.
C)The evolution of multicellularity took place after the origin of the eukaryotes.
D)The first organisms to colonize land were animals.
Q2) Plasmodium illustrate feeding characteristics of a(n)________.
A)slime mold
B)ciliate
C)apicomplexan
D)algae
Q3) Whose experiments demonstrated that,given the conditions on the primitive Earth,biological monomers could arise spontaneously?
A)Miller and Urey
B)Darwin and Linnaeus
C)Watson and Crick
D)Wallace and Darwin
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17
Chapter 16: The Evolution of Plants and Fungi
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Q1) Corn smut is a fungus that grows in the ears of corn and changes corn kernels into black,powdery balls of fungus tissue.What would you hypothesize is the significance of the relationship between corn smut and corn?
A)Corn smut has a parasitic relationship with corn so that it can use the corn as a way to spread spores.
B)Corn smut has a symbiotic relationship with corn so that it can use the corn as a way to spread spores.
C)Corn smut helps to decompose corn more quickly and therefore replenishes nutrients in the soil at a faster rate.
D)Corn smut slows decomposition of corn and therefore reduces the rate at which nutrients are returned to the soil.
Q2) If you wanted to propagate (grow)ferns,what do you need to collect from existing ferns?
A)diploid zygote cells
B)haploid spores
C)fossil fuels
D)seeds
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Chapter 17: The Evolution of Animals
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Q1) Where did humans first appear?
A)South America
B)Africa
C)Asia
D)Europe
Q2) Which of these exhibits radial symmetry?
A)butterfly
B)spoon
C)snowflake
D)shoe box
Q3) Annelids are most closely related to ________.
A)chordates
B)arthropods
C)molluscs
D)echinoderms
Q4) What does the term "tetrapod" mean?
A)egg-laying
B)living on land
C)living a double life
D)having four feet
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Chapter 18: An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere
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Q1) Temperate zones ________.
A)have the coolest climates on Earth
B)have milder climates than the tropics
C)are relatively dry
D)are concentrated in the polar regions
Q2) Which of these is a community?
A)all of the Staphylococcus aureus (a species of bacteria living on your skin
B)all of the organisms living in your home
C)all of the people living in your neighborhood
D)all of the nut grass (considered a weed)in your backyard
Q3) Which of the following is abiotic?
A)a protist
B)a plant
C)a fungus
D)a rock
Q4) What is one important difference between savannas and temperate grasslands?
A)Savannas only rarely experience fires.
B)Temperate grasslands are mostly treeless.
C)Savannas are inhabited by grazing mammals.
D)Temperate grasslands have nutrient-poor soil.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Population Ecology
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Q1) Which population is growing at the fastest rate?
A)Population A
B)Population B
C)Population C
D)They are all growing at the same rate.
Q2) Which of these is a characteristic of Type I survivorship?
A)There is low survivorship for the very young.
B)Most individuals survive to older age intervals.
C)Survivorship is constant over the lifespan.
D)Survivorship is high for the few individuals that survive to a certain age.
Q3) Non-native species can have important effects on biological communities by ________.
A)preying upon native species only
B)competing with native species for resources only
C)reducing biodiversity only
D)All of these are effects that non-native species can have on biological communities.
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Chapter 20: Communities and Ecosystems
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Q1) Despite being used for many years,quinine-based drugs have not led to the eradication of malaria and currently there are parasites that are resistant to the compound.Which of the following were likely important in the development of this resistance to quinine?
A)natural selection
B)mutualism
C)interspecific competition
D)biological magnification
Q2) Why are most food chains limited to three to five trophic levels?
A)The higher the trophic level,the larger the organism; the larger the organism,the less likely it will be prey.
B)The nutritional quality of existing biomass decreases with increasing trophic level.
C)Most ecosystems have insufficient space to support the increased number of organisms that more trophic levels would require.
D)There is insufficient energy to support more trophic levels.
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Chapter 21: Unifying Concepts of Animal Structure and Function
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Q1) Based on the information in the paragraphs,spiders are ________.
A)ectotherms
B)endotherms
C)sometimes ectotherms and sometimes endotherms
D)neither ectotherms nor endotherms
Q2) Oxytocin controls the contractions of the uterus.Of which type of tissue is the uterus composed?
A)nervous tissue
B)skeletal muscle
C)smooth muscle
D)epithelium
Q3) At high temperatures this animal loses water rapidly.To prevent dehydration,this animal's nephrons should ________.
A)increase reabsorption
B)decrease reabsorption
C)increase secretion
D)decrease secretion
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Nutrition and Digestion
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Q1) A protein deficiency in the blood could indicate ________.
A)megaesophagus
B)achlorhydria
C)Sjögren's syndrome
D)diverticulitis
Q2) Muscular contraction moves food through the alimentary canal by a process called
A)propulsion
B)active transport
C)peristalsis
D)swallowing
Q3) Difficulty swallowing could indicate ________.
A)Sjögren's syndrome
B)megaesophagus
C)diverticulitis
D)gallstone cholestasis
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Chapter 23: Circulation and Respiration
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Q1) How does a shark's cardiovascular system differ from that of a mammal?
A)The shark's heart does not directly pump oxygenated blood to the systemic tissues.
B)The shark's heart receives both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
C)The shark's circulatory system has a pulmonary and a systemic circuit.
D)The shark's blood is pumped through open-ended tubes.
Q2) In a person with SCD,where would red blood cells with a sickle shape be LEAST likely to be found?
A)pulmonary arteries
B)pulmonary veins
C)right atrium
D)right ventricle
Q3) A heart murmur occurs when there is a defect in ________.
A)a heart valve
B)the sinoatrial node
C)arterioles
D)the timing of the cardiac cycle
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Chapter 24: The Bodys Defenses
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Q1) Which of the following compounds do mast cells produce?
A)defensive proteins
B)antihistamines
C)histamine
D)antibodies
Q2) Which of the following statements best explains why people with Hodgkin's disease often show signs of immunodeficiency?
A)The Hodgkin's disease virus infects and destroys B cells.
B)Hodgkin's disease involves the deposition of immune complexes in the kidneys.
C)Hodgkin's disease is a type of cancer that affects lymphocytes.
D)Hodgkin's disease occurs when an immune response elicited by streptococcal bacteria kills normal heart cells as well.
Q3) Which of the following is one of the body's first lines of defense against infection?
A)antibodies
B)obstacles such as skin and mucous membranes
C)increased production of certain hormones
D)decreased heart rate
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Chapter 25: Hormones
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Q1) Which of the following hormones affects the greatest variety of cell types?
A)prolactin
B)insulin
C)growth hormone
D)calcitonin
Q2) Which of these is an example of the action of an endocrine disruptor?
A)BPA in bottles affects particular glands.
B)Feedback from estrogen inhibits FSH.
C)Lack of iodine prevents synthesis of adequate thyroid hormone.
D)Lowered levels of calcitonin causes increased bone density.
Q3) What is the metabolic abnormality that underlies the characteristic symptoms of diabetes mellitus,such as frequent urination?
A)a failure of the kidney tubules to reabsorb enough glucose from the urine
B)a failure of the gastrointestinal epithelium to absorb enough glucose from food
C)an inability of the body's cells to retain glucose they have absorbed from the blood
D)an inability of the body's cells to absorb enough glucose from the blood
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Chapter 26: Reproduction and Development
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Q1) What moves the human egg through the oviduct?
A)the beating of the egg's cilia
B)rhythmic contractions of the oviduct
C)rhythmic contractions of the uterus
D)the beating of cilia in the oviduct
Q2) What would happen if an embryo failed to secrete HCG?
A)The maternal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.
B)The fetal elements of the placenta would fail to develop.
C)Neural tube formation would not occur,and the embryo would not have a brain.
D)The embryo would be aborted.
Q3) Which of the following is associated with sexual reproduction?
A)fission,only
B)fragmentation,only
C)budding,only
D)None of these are associated with sexual reproduction.
Q4) Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
A)Natural family planning is one of the most reliable forms of birth control.
B)Morning-after pills are about 25% effective at preventing pregnancy.
C)Tubal ligation prevents ovulation.
D)A vasectomy involves removing a section of each vas deferens.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Nervous,Sensory,and Locomotor Systems
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Q1) Realizing that you did not study as much as you needed to for this exam,you start to take the test.However,it is difficult to concentrate because your heart is racing,your stomach seems tied in a knot,you are breathing too quickly,and your mouth is dry.Most likely,you are experiencing the effects of the ________.
A)motor nervous system
B)sympathetic division
C)parasympathetic division
D)central nervous system
Q2) The organ of Corti is in the ________.
A)outer ear
B)inner ear
C)middle ear
D)eardrum
Q3) When you hear,the ________ vibrates. I)eardrum
II)hammer
III)stirrup
A)I
B)II
C)III
D)I,II,and III
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Chapter 28: The Life of a Flowering Plant
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Q1) The ________ enclose and protect the flower bud,while the ________ advertise the flower to insects and other pollinators.
A)anthers...petals
B)carpels...stigmata
C)sepals...stamens
D)sepals...petals
Q2) The formation of a zygote and a cell with a triploid nucleus is unique to flowering plants.What is this process called?
A)fertilization
B)double fertilization
C)germination
D)pollination
Q3) The diploid number for the tomato,a eudicot,is 24.One of its pollen grains has ________ chromosomes,and the nutritive tissue of the seed has ________ chromosomes.
A)12 12
B)12 24
C)24 24
D)24 36
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Page 30
Chapter 29: The Working Plant
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Q1) Which of the following convert atmospheric nitrogen to ammonium?
A)nitrifying bacteria
B)nitrogen-fixing bacteria
C)mycorrhizae
D)ammonifying bacteria
Q2) Which of the following hormones promotes cell elongation in stems?
A)auxin
B)cytokinin
C)ethylene
D)gibberellin
Q3) Which of the following plant hormones affect(s)development in the plant body?
I)auxin
II)cytokinin
III)gibberellin
A)I
B)I and II
C)III
D)I,II,and III
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