Basic Anatomy
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Basic Anatomy provides an introduction to the fundamental structure and organization of the human body. This course explores major body systems, including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, and respiratory systems, emphasizing terminology, basic physiological functions, and the relationships between anatomical components. Through lectures, visual aids, and hands-on activities, students gain a foundational understanding of how the bodys structures support essential life processes and prepare for more advanced studies in health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 10th Edition by Kevin T. Patton
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Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes anatomy?
A)Using devices to investigate parameters such as heart rate and blood pressure
B)Investigating human structure via dissections and other methods
C)Studying the unusual manner in which an organism responds to painful stimuli
D)Examining the physiology of life
Answer: B
Q2) Movement of digested nutrients through the wall of the digestive tract into body fluids for transport to the cell
A)Conductivity
B)Excretion
C)Growth
D)Circulation
E)Respiration
F)Responsiveness
G)Digestion
H)Absorption
I)Secretion
J)Reproduction
Answer: H
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Negative-feedback control systems:
A)oppose a change.
B)accelerate a change.
C)have no effect on the deviation from set point.
D)establish a new set point.
Answer: A
Q2) The body's thermostat is located in the: A)heart.
B)cerebellum.
C)pituitary.
D)hypothalamus.
Answer: D
Q3) Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of:
A)the body trying to maintain homeostasis.
B)a positive-feedback mechanism.
C)a negative-feedback mechanism.
D)both A and C.
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of radiation consists of electromagnetic radiation, a form of light energy?
A)Alpha
B)Beta
C)Delta
D)Gamma
Answer: D
Q2) Electrolytes are:
A)organic compounds.
B)called cations if they have a negative charge.
C)called cations if they have a positive charge.
D)both A and B.
Answer: C
Q3) The digestion of food is an example of a synthesis reaction.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Explain the types of chemical reactions discussed in this chapter, and give the formula for each.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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Sample Questions
Q1) A _____ is a functional group that is temporarily unattached and is highly reactive because of unpaired electrons.
A)hydroxyl
B)phosphate
C)amine group
D)free radical
Q2) RNA never exists in a double-stranded form.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Amino acids get their name because they have an amino group (NH ) and an acid group (COO-).
A)True
B)False
Q4) When ATP is in short supply, muscles can use creatine phosphate for extra energy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Steroids are often called tissue hormones.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following organelles is considered a membranous organelle?
A)Lysosome
B)Ribosome
C)Nucleolus
D)Both A and B
Q2) Which type of cell connection joins heart muscle cells?
A)Tight junction
B)Desmosome
C)Macrofilament
D)Gap junction
Q3) Lysosomes can be called the "garbage disposals" of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Projections from the cell that move materials and mucus are called:
A)cilia.
B)flagella.
C)microvilli.
D)microtubules.
Q5) Explain the functions of the cell membrane.
Q6) Name and describe the three types of cell connections.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of catabolic pathways?
A)They turn larger molecules into smaller ones.
B)They turn smaller molecules into larger ones.
C)They require energy from the cell.
D)Both B and C are true.
Q2) The "lock-and-key model" is used to describe how mRNA and tRNA base pairs align.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Diffusion is a form of filtration that results in the separation of small and large solute particles.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The hydrolyzing enzyme sucrase joins two sucrose molecules together.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Protein anabolism is a rarely used cellular activity.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name the three types of vesicle-mediated transport and explain how they are different.
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosomes align across the equator of the spindle fibers during anaphase of mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The complete set of proteins that can be made by the cell is called its proteome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A human gene is made up of about 250 DNA nucleotides.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the process of translation. What is RNAi?
Q5) A sequence of three bases forms a(n): A)codon.
B)anticodon.
C)amino acid.
D)polypeptide bond.
Q6) A type of ribonucleic acid that can stimulate translation is called RNAi. A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe cutaneous membranes and mucous membranes, and give the location of each in the body.
Q2) A group of cells that performs a common function is called tissue.
A)True B)False
Q3) Connective tissue membranes differ from cutaneous and serous membranes in that they:
A)contain fewer layers of cells.
B)do not contain epithelial components.
C)are not smooth and slick.
D)do not secrete fluids.
Q4) A malignant tumor that arises from epithelial tissue is generally called a sarcoma. A)True B)False
Q5) Many of the sugars attached to the protein backbone of a proteoglycan molecule are fibronectin.
A)True B)False
Q6) Name and briefly describe the four principal types of tissue in the body.
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adipocytes release leptin, which signals the brain and other tissues regarding how much fat is stored and ready to use for energy.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscles?
A)Having one nucleus per cell
B)Having intercalated disks
C)Composing the walls of the viscera
D)Usually not being under voluntary control
Q3) Stratified columnar epithelium is the most common type of epithelium and is found in many areas throughout the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Because of their function, some histologists classify endothelium and mesothelium as connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Differentiate among simple, stratified, and transitional epithelia.
Q6) Describe the three functional classifications of exocrine glands.
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Chapter 10: Skin
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Q1) Layer that is absent in thin skin; cells are filled with a gel-like substance called eleidin
A)Stratum corneum
B)Stratum lucidum
C)Stratum granulosum
D)Stratum spinosum
E)Stratum basale
Q2) In using the rule of nines to determine the area of the body involved, the body is divided into nine areas of 11% each.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The body's temperature control center is located in the: A)cerebrum.
B)medulla.
C)thalamus.
D)hypothalamus.
Q4) Hair is usually not found on thick skin.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name and explain the methods of heat loss discussed in this chapter.
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osteogenesis involves the combined action of osteoblasts and osteoclasts.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Name, describe, and give the location of the different types of cartilage found in the body.
Q3) When a compact bone is put under mechanical stress, it responds by forming wider osteons to help better distribute the stress.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Short bones are made up of only spongy bone.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Haversian systems are found only in compact bone.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Which type of bone is found in a tendon?
A)Irregular bone
B)Long bone
C)Sesamoid bone
D)Short bone
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The upper parts of the nasal septum and the side walls of the nasal cavity are formed by which bone(s)?
A)Nasal
B)Sphenoid
C)Ethmoid
D)Maxillae
Q2) The appendicular skeleton consists of _____ bones.
A)102
B)118
C)126
D)137
Q3) Bones of the appendicular skeleton form the brain case and vertebral column.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The number of bones in the skeleton is constant from person to person.
A)True B)False
Q5) The cheek is shaped by the zygomatic bone underlying it. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Greater trochanter
A)Femur
B)Fibula
C)Humerus
D)Coxal
E)Radius
F)Scapula
G)Tibia
H)Ulna
Q2) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the:
A)tibia.
B)fibula.
C)coxal.
D)femur.
Q3) An open fracture is also known as a compound fracture.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both the tibia and fibula articulate with the femur.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ligamenta flava is located in the:
A)shoulder.
B)hip.
C)knee.
D)None of the above is correct.
Q2) Which ligament is not part of the hip joint?
A)Iliofemoral
B)Subacromial
C)Ischiofemoral
D)Pubofemoral
Q3) What are the unique joints that occur between the root of a tooth and the alveolar process of the mandible or maxilla?
A)Symphyses
B)Syndesmoses
C)Gomphoses
D)Synchondroses
Q4) Closing one's mouth would be an example of the movement of elevation.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What are joint mice?
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) An aponeurosis could be described as a:
A)flat sheet of connective tissue connecting muscle to other structures.
B)sheath that surrounds tendons.
C)deep fascia that covers muscles.
D)junction between a neuron and a muscle.
Q2) In a lever system, the fixed pivot around which the rod moves is called the fulcrum.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a muscle causes the knee to bend, the origin point is above the knee and the insertion point is below the knee.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The muscle that draws the eyebrows together, producing vertical wrinkles above the nose (frowning), is called the:
A)epicranius.
B)corrugator supercilii.
C)orbicularis oculi.
D)orbicularis oris.
Q5) What is the "optimum angle of pull"?
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following muscles does not move the upper arm?
A)Pectoralis major
B)Latissimus dorsi
C)Deltoid
D)Trapezius
Q2) The respiratory, digestive, circulatory, excretory, and endocrine systems all contribute to the ability of muscles to maintain posture.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is tenosynovitis, and how is it caused?
Q4) Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the thigh?
A)Adductor longus
B)Gracilis
C)Iliopsoas
D)Sacrospinalis
Q5) The flexor muscles that move the fingers are mostly located on the:
A)anterior lateral surface of the forearm.
B)anterior medial surface of the forearm.
C)posterior surface of the forearm.
D)posterior surface of the hand.
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Muscle has the ability to store oxygen in myoglobin and store glucose as glycogen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bundles of fine fibers that extend lengthwise along muscle fibers are called:
A)myofibrils.
B)myofilaments.
C)striae.
D)sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Q3) The sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells is identical to the rough endoplasmic reticulum in other cells.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The substance that attracts oxygen in the myoglobin molecule is:
A)hemoglobin.
B)calcium.
C)iron.
D)ATP.
Q5) Describe the physiological process of muscle contraction.
Q6) Explain the role of the skeletal muscles in heat production for the body.
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most unipolar neurons are usually:
A)motor neurons.
B)neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system.
C)sensory neurons.
D)neurons of the sympathetic nervous system.
Q2) The other term for cell body is:
A)telodendria.
B)perikaryon.
C)Nissl body.
D)axon hillock.
Q3) Describe the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
Q4) There are differences between the central and peripheral nervous systems concerning the repair of damaged fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Most injuries to the brain and spinal cord cause permanent damage.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What type of neuron is always a sensory receptor?
Q7) What is the difference between nuclei and ganglia?
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is true of an action potential?
A)The plasma membrane is impermeable to Na<sup>+</sup> and K<sup>+</sup> ions.
B)Na<sup>+</sup> ions move extracellularly.
C)The charges become equal on the outside and inside of the plasma membrane.
D)The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged.
Q2) The resting potential of a neuron is maintained by having mostly negative ions on the inside and mostly positive ions on the outside.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In a myelinated fiber, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain the ways in which the activity of the neurotransmitter is stopped at the postsynaptic receptor.
Q5) Explain both temporal and spatial summation.
Q6) Describe resting potential, including the position of potassium and sodium ions.
Q7) Define IPSP and EPSP.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spinal tract that is located in the side of the cord, originates in the brain, and terminates in the spinal cord is the _____ tract.
A)lateral corticospinal
B)ventral spinothalamic
C)dorsal corticospinal
D)lateral spinothalamic
Q2) The areas specializing in language functions are found in the left cerebral hemisphere in:
A)about 10% of the population.
B)about 50% of the population.
C)about 90% of the population.
D)all people.
Q3) Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side?
A)Medial reticulospinal
B)Lateral reticulospinal
C)Ventral corticospinal
D)Lateral corticospinal
Q4) Briefly discuss one of the "integrative functions" of the cortex.
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most of the optic nerve fibers terminate in the cerebellum.
A)True
B)False
Q2) It would be normal to find a functioning Babinski reflex in an infant as young as 4 months old.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Damage to the _____ nerve could make the diaphragm unable to function.
A)phrenic
B)axillary
C)radial
D)medial cutaneous
Q4) Explain how the nerve plexuses make the nervous system more efficient.
Q5) Thoracic spinal nerves are the only segment of spinal nerves that do not participate in a plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The optic tract contains fibers from both retinas.
A)True
B)False
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Q1) Structure through which preganglionic sympathetic neurons that did not synapse in the sympathetic chain ganglion continue
A)Sympathetic nervous system
B)Parasympathetic nervous system
C)Alpha receptor
D)Nicotinic receptor
E)Sympathetic trunk
F)Splanchnic nerve
G)"Fight or flight"
H)"Rest and repair"
I)Acetylcholine
J)Norepinephrine
Q2) All postganglionic sympathetic fibers release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Alpha receptors are stimulated by acetylcholine, whereas beta receptors are stimulated by norepinephrine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 23: General Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Pain that is perceived as being superficial but actually is caused by an underlying organ is called _____ pain.
A)phantom
B)referred
C)chronic
D)acute
Q2) Photoreceptors are found only in the eye.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is considered a somatic sense?
A)Smell
B)Taste
C)Equilibrium
D)None of the above
Q4) Another term for a cutaneous receptor is an exteroceptor.
A)True
B)False
Q5) You feel hungry because of a proprioceptor.
A)True
B)False
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Q1) Which of the following tongue papillae do not have taste buds?
A)Fungiform
B)Filiform
C)Foliate
D)All of the above contain taste buds.
Q2) Grandpa Joe notices that his vision is becoming cloudy. What is the likely cause of his problem? Provide a brief description of the cause and how it may be remedied.
Q3) The auditory ossicles include the malleus, incus, and stapes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As the frequency of a sound wave increases, it causes the basilar membrane to vibrate nearer the oval window.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The terms auricle and pinna refer to the same anatomical structure of the ear.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What is the difference between static and dynamic equilibrium? Where are the sense organs for each located?
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following is not a source of nonsteroid hormones?
A)Cholesterol
B)Protein
C)Protein joined with a carbohydrate
D)Individual amino acids
Q2) Which of the following endocrine glands is located in the neck?
A)Pineal
B)Pituitary
C)Thymus
D)Thyroid
Q3) Two specific prostaglandins are thromboxanes and leukotrienes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cells either have receptors for neurotransmitters and respond to the nervous system or have hormone receptors and respond to the endocrine system, but not both.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare and contrast steroid and nonsteroid hormones, and give an example of each.
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Q1) Most of the pancreatic islets cells are alpha cells that produce insulin.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the negative-feedback loop of ADH that helps maintain water balance in the body.
Q3) Parathyroid hormone causes the kidney to retain calcium and excrete phosphate.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The endocrine cells of the pancreas make up about 15% of the pancreas.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following depends on maintaining normal levels of calcium in the blood?
A)Blood clotting
B)Cell membrane
C)Neuromuscular excitability
D)All of the above
Q6) Secretin plays a regulatory role in the digestive process.
A)True
B)False
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Q1) A normal adult red blood cell count ranges from _____ million/cubic mm.
A)4.2 to 6.2
B)5.5 to 6.5
C)6.5 to 7.5
D)7.5 to 8.5
Q2) In order to maintain a constant level of red blood cells, about 2 billion red blood cells must be made per day.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not an agranulocyte?
A)Monocyte
B)Lymphocyte
C)Eosinophil
D)All of the above are agranulocytes.
Q4) Blood agglutination and blood clotting are different names for the same process.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Diapedesis is a process of phagocytosis and release of cytotoxic chemicals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) During atrial systole the AV valves are closed.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The last wave in an ECG terminates the cardiac cycle; because of this, it is called the T wave.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Chordae tendineae are associated with which structure?
A)Aortic valve
B)Mitral valve
C)Tricuspid valve
D)Both B and C
Q4) The thickest layer of tissue in the heart wall is the:
A)epicardium.
B)pericardium.
C)myocardium.
D)endocardium.
Q5) A U wave on an ECG is an indication of damage to ventricular myocardial cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Q1) Vessel in which exchange occurs between the blood and tissue fluid
A)Arteries
B)Capillaries
C)Pulmonary circulation
D)Systemic circulation
E)Tunica adventitia
F)Tunica intima
G)Tunica media
H)Veins
Q2) The tunica intima of arteries provides a smooth lining with valves to ensure one-way flow.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name the three layers of tissue that make up a blood vessel.
Q4) Pulmonary circulation is blood flow through the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A stenotic valve is a leaky valve.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Q1) Blood vessels can hold much more blood than is present in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) An increase in heart rate tends to increase:
A)cardiac output.
B)arterial blood volume.
C)blood pressure.
D)all of the above.
Q3) By the time the blood reaches the venous end of the capillaries, the pressure on the blood has reached 0 mm Hg.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Hydrostatic pressure tends to decrease from the arterial end of the capillary to the venous end of the capillary.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List two factors that affect peripheral resistance. Explain how these factors influence arterial blood pressure. In normal blood flow, where is the major peripheral resistance encountered?
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Q1) Baby Ruth was born without a thymus gland. Immediate plans were made to perform a transplant. In the meantime, Baby Ruth was placed in strict isolation. Even her parents were not allowed to touch her. Why was she placed in the isolation unit?
Q2) The lymph nodes located just above the bend of the elbow are called the _____ lymph nodes.
A)inguinal
B)axillary
C)superficial cervical
D)supratrochlear
Q3) Even though the lymphatic system has no single muscular pump like the heart, lymph flows at about the same speed as blood.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The thymus secretes:
A)T3.
B)T4.
C)thymosin.
D)both A and C.
Q5) Identify each of the lymphatic organs, and give a generated function for each.
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adaptive immunity is also called _____ immunity.
A)innate
B)specific
C)nonspecific
D)species
Q2) Complement is a group of about 8 different inactive enzymes circulating in the plasma.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Name and describe the mechanical and chemical barriers of the nonspecific immune system.
Q4) Mechanisms that resist a variety of threatening agents or conditions
A)Phagocytosis
B)Macrophage
C)Nonspecific immunity
D)Interferon
Q5) Interferon mainly interferes with the ability of bacteria to produce disease.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the role of toll-like receptors in the nonspecific immune system.
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare and contrast the development of B cells and T cells.
Q2) Why is it difficult to predict the total number of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) cases that will result from known HIV-infected patients?
A)After a person is infected, the signs of AIDS infection might not be apparent for years.
B)The current treatment of highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) alters the infected cells.
C)Infected cells begin to change only after azidothymidine (AZT) treatment is started.
D)So many people have received the vaccine that there is no way to count who actually has the infection.
Q3) Macromolecule that induces the immune system to produce antibodies
A)Specific immunity
B)Antibody
C)B cell
D)Antigen
E)T cell
Q4) Explain how the AIDS virus seems to affect the immune system.
Q5) Name the classes of antibodies, and give the function of each.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following determine(s) which stimuli are stressors for each individual?
A)Heredity
B)Past experiences
C)Either extreme of a continuum
D)All of the above
Q2) According to Selye, anything that causes stress, either good or bad, is a stressor.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The terms stress triad and general adaptation syndrome are interchangeable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) As a result of applying various stressors to research animals, Selye was able to produce a triad of body changes.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define stressor.
Q6) Identify and briefly describe the three stages in the general adaptation syndrome.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the right lung, the superior and middle lobes are separated by the:
A)horizontal fissure.
B)oblique fissure.
C)bronchopulmonary segments.
D)hilum.
Q2) The small openings in the cribriform plate function to:
A)allow air to move between the nostrils.
B)allow branches of the olfactory nerve to enter the cranial cavity and reach the brain.
C)provide a filtering system for the inspired air.
D)do both A and B.
Q3) The more common name for the pharynx is the voice box.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Both the thyroid gland and the carotid arteries touch the sides of the larynx.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The trachea provides part of an open passage from the outside to the lungs.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Normal, quiet breathing
A)Dyspnea
B)Cheyne-Stokes respiration
C)Eupnea
D)Hypoventilation
E)Biot breathing
F)Hyperventilation
G)Hyperpnea
H)Orthopnea
I)Apneusis
J)Apnea
Q2) The gas laws are based on the concept of a standard gas whose molecules are so far apart that they rarely collide.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Anatomical dead air space and physiological dead air space are interchangeable terms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Define pneumothorax, and discuss its potential effect on respiration.
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blood is distributed through the capillaries in a layer so thin that each red blood cell comes in contact with the alveolar-capillary membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar air is equal to the partial pressure of oxygen in the systemic venous blood.
A)True B)False
Q3) About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to: A)bicarbonate ions. B)hemoglobin.
C)carbaminohemoglobin.
D)chloride ions.
Q4) The partial pressure of oxygen in an artery is always lower than the partial pressure of oxygen in a vein.
A)True B)False
Q5) Explain the process by which carbon dioxide is transported by the blood.
Q6) Briefly describe and diagram the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve.
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The myenteric plexus is found in which layer of the GI wall?
A)Mucosa
B)Submucosa
C)Muscularis
D)Serosa
Q2) The sublingual salivary glands can have as many as 20 ducts draining their secretions into the mouth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The submucosal plexus is a group of parasympathetic nerves found in the submucosa.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Mumps is an acute viral disease characterized by swelling of the parotid salivary glands.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The neck is the exposed portion of the tooth.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The diameter of the small intestine is about an inch and the length is about 12 feet.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Division of the small intestine through which food passes second
A)Liver
B)Common bile duct
C)Mesentery
D)Ascending colon
E)Jejunum
F)Duodenum
G)Cystic duct
H)Ileum
I)Gallbladder
J)Descending colon
K)Pancreas
Q3) Crohn disease is an inflammatory disease of the bowel.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the location, structure, and function of the pancreas.
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Micelles are formed in the GI lumen.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the physiological basis for diarrhea and constipation.
Q3) The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ the GI lumen.
A)passively out of B)passively into C)actively out of D)actively into
Q4) Ingestion, digestion, secretion, and absorption are all necessary for the proper functioning of the digestive system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The only food that can be digested by gastric juice is protein. A)True
B)False
Q6) Glycogen and sucrose are examples of polysaccharides. A)True
B)False
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the process of glycolysis. What is the starting material and what are the end products of the process of glycolysis?
Q2) Just as there are essential amino acids, there are essential fatty acids.
A)True
B)False
Q3) To maintain a constant body weight, caloric intake must equal caloric output.
A)True B)False
Q4) Oxygen is required for the last step of glycolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Minerals function in various chemical reactions such as nerve conduction and contraction in muscle fibers.
A)True B)False
Q6) A saturated fat is saturated with hydrogen atoms. A)True B)False
Q7) Distinguish between saturated and unsaturated fats.
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Q8) Explain the electron transport system. How is ATP produced in the mitochondria?
Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cells called podocytes make up the:
A)parietal layer of the glomerular capsule.
B)visceral layer of the glomerular capsule.
C)glomerulus.
D)proximal tubule.
Q2) The movement of molecules out of the tubules and into the peritubular blood defines:
A)glomerular filtration.
B)secretion.
C)micturition.
D)reabsorption.
Q3) Even though urea is a waste product, it is reabsorbed into the blood in the proximal convoluted tubule.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A drop in systemic blood pressure would cause the filtration rate to: A)increase.
B)decrease.
C)stay the same.
D)vary depending on the level of AHD in the blood.
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Intracellular fluid is the only fluid that usually contains protein.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The lungs are a source of water loss for the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The reactivity or combining power of an electrolyte depends solely on the number of molecular particles present.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Salt and glucose are examples of electrolytes found in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A decrease in interstitial fluid sodium concentration will cause an immediate increase in interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare the volumes of the body fluid compartments in the infant, the adult male, and the adult female.
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Chapter 44: Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant patient who has been experiencing repeated vomiting episodes is admitted to the hospital by her obstetrician. After a series of tests determines that she is suffering from metabolic alkalosis, the physician orders intravenous administration of normal saline. How will this help the patient?
A)It will reduce the vomiting episodes.
B)The chloride ions of the solution will replace the acidic ions and relieve the acidic excess responsible for her condition.
C)The chloride ions of the solution will replace bicarbonate ions and relieve the bicarbonate excess responsible for her condition.
D)The sodium ions of the solution will introduce more bicarbonate ions and relieve the bicarbonate shortage responsible for her condition.
Q2) An increase in the base bicarbonate/carbonic acid ratio causes a decrease in the pH.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the chloride shift and what is its cause?
Q4) Explain why a change in pH is so detrimental to the functioning of the body.
Q5) What substances or processes in the body might cause a change in the blood pH?
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The PSA test is used in the detection of prostate cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Sperm carry DNA in a structure called the acrosome.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The rete testis refers to a group of highly branched blood vessels that serve the interior of the testes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which term means "hidden testis"?
A)Oligospermia
B)Phimosis
C)Cryptorchidism
D)Spermatogonia
Q5) The number of spermatids formed by one primary spermatocyte is:
A)2.
B)4.
C)6.
D)8.
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An episiotomy is routinely done to prevent damage to the perineum during childbirth.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Hormonal methods of contraception work by using the negative feedback system that controls the female reproductive cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The visceral peritoneum is incomplete because it covers the entire cervix but only part of the body of the uterus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the structure of the breasts.
Q5) The final stage in the process of ovarian follicle development is the:
A)corpus hemorrhagicum.
B)corpus luteum.
C)corpus albicans.
D)mature follicle.
Q6) Describe how the cyclic changes in the ovaries are regulated.
Q7) Describe the location, structure, and function of the uterine tube.
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Chapter 47: Growth, Development, and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) After leaving the graafian follicle, the ovum lives approximately _____ day(s).
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
Q2) The length of pregnancy is called the gestation period.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following structures is not formed by the ectoderm?
A)Cornea of the eye
B)Dermis of the skin
C)Brain
D)Enamel of the teeth
Q4) At ovulation, the ovum is at which stage of meiosis?
A)Telophase II
B)Anaphase II
C)Telophase I
D)None of the above
Q5) Stan and Dan are twins. Stan suffers from kidney disease. The physicians said Stan can receive Dan's kidney with very little chance of rejection. Explain why.
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The parents with which of the following genotypes could not have a child with albinism?
A)AA x aa
B)Aa x Aa
C)Aa x aa
D)Both B and C
Q2) Homozygous refers to a trait that is determined by a single gene pair.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Nervous disorder characterized by involuntary trembling and muscle rigidity
A)Down syndrome
B)Huntington disease
C)Klinefelter syndrome deficiency
D)Multiple neurofibromatosis
E)Parkinson disease
F)Retinitis pigmentosa
G)Severe combined immune deficiency
H)Tay-Sachs disease
Q4) Explain how the regulation of enzyme production can regulate cell activity.
Q5) Explain the principle of independent assortment.
Page 50
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