

Athletic Training Modalities
Final Exam

Course Introduction
Athletic Training Modalities explores the principles, indications, and applications of therapeutic interventions used in the prevention, treatment, and rehabilitation of athletic injuries. The course covers the physiological effects, proper use, and safety considerations of various physical agents including cryotherapy, thermotherapy, electrical stimulation, ultrasound, and manual therapies. Students gain hands-on experience with modalities, emphasizing clinical decision-making, evidence-based practice, and integration into comprehensive injury management plans. The course also addresses documentation, legal considerations, and current trends in modality usage within athletic training.
Recommended Textbook
Therapeutic Modalities 4th Edition by Chad Starkey
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19 Chapters
380 Verified Questions
380 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3892
Page 2

Chapter 1: The Injury Response Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) In what tissue order must the different forms of therapeutic energy pass through to affect the target tissues?
A) Epithelial,adipose,muscular,nervous,connective
B) Epithelial,nervous,adipose,muscular,nervous
C) Epithelial,connective,nervous,muscular,adipose
D) Epithelial,adipose,connective,muscular,nervous
Answer: A
Q2) Which of the following represents macrotrauma? Select all that apply.
A) Sprain
B) Stress fracture
C) Muscle soreness
D) Fracture
E) Strain
Answer: A,D,E
Q3) What is the longest stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
A) Alarm
B) Resistance
C) Exhaustion
D) Excitement
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: The Physiology and Psychology of Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) In pain control theory,which is considered a secondary pain control approach?
A) Target the perception of pain
B) Resolve physiological pain triggers
C) Decrease mechanical irritation
D) Decrease chemical irritation
Answer: A
Q2) Pain threshold is often based on the recruitment of ___________fibers.
A) A-delta
B) A-beta
C) C
D) COX-1
Answer: A
Q3) What mechanoreceptor is located deeper in the skin and reacts to higher levels of mechanical pressure?
A) Merkel's disks
B) Meissner's corpuscles
C) Pacinian corpuscles
D) Ruffini corpuscles
Answer: C
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Page 4

Chapter 3: Development and Delivery of Intervention Strategies
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to develop a logical treatment sequence in the problem-solving approach,problems should be prioritized based on what?
A) Cause-and-effect relationship to the patient's functional limitations
B) Importance of the treatment to the patient
C) Importance of the treatment to the clinician
D) Cost of the proposed intervention
Answer: A
Q2) Which factors should be considered when determining if a therapeutic modality would be effective in treating a specific condition? Select all that apply.
A) What is the cost of the therapeutic modality?
B) Does the modality produce the physiological response to promote healing?
C) Can the modality affect the target tissue?
D) Does the device improve patient outcomes?
E) What is the ease of applying the modality?
Answer: B,C,D
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Chapter 4: Administrative Considerations
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term best describes the tort when there is a duty to act but a failure to perform the act?
A) Malfeasance
B) Misfeasance
C) Nonfeasance
D) Malpractice
Q2) Which statements are true concerning third-party reimbursement? Select all that apply.
A) Other insurance companies use Medicare but not Medicaid standards when establishing their own guidelines.
B) Individuals rendering treatment must be state licensed to be eligible for reimbursement.
C) As long as all standards are met,a reimbursement is guaranteed by insurance companies.
D) Reimbursement requires documentation of the treatment services but not the condition being treated.
E) The rate of reimbursement is frequently based on the usual,customary,and reasonable (UCR)system.
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Chapter 5: Thermal Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which sensation of cold results from decreased nerve conduction velocity and an increase in the threshold required to fire nerves? This sensation is seldom achieved with cold application.
A) Anesthesia
B) Analgesia
C) Aching
D) Burning
Q2) What is the correct order of cooling in tissues?
A) Skin,adipose,fascia,muscle
B) Skin,fascia,muscle,adipose
C) Skin,adipose,muscle,fascia
D) Skin,muscle,fascia,adipose
Q3) What primary method is used to heat tissue when ultrasound is applied?
A) Mechanical action
B) Chemical action
C) Energy transfer
D) Magnetic current
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Chapter 6: Clinical Application of Thermal Modalities
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is an indication for the use of fluidotherapy?
A) Joint mobilization
B) Open wound healing
C) Sensory loss
D) Peripheral vascular disease
Q2) Which of the following are indications for the use of a moist heat pack? Select all that apply.
A) Acute injury
B) Subacute injury
C) Decreased range of motion
D) Hematoma reduction
E) Impaired circulation
Q3) What modality carries the greatest risk of frostbite?
A) Reusable cold pack
B) Plastic bag with crushed ice
C) Cold compression therapy unit
D) Chemical cold pack
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Chapter 7: Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) Due to its _____frequencies,ultrasound is unable to pass through the air and requires a dense transmission medium.
A) high
B) low
C) alternating
D) medium
Q2) Which of the following represents a 1-MHz output frequency? Select all that apply.
A) Divergent beam
B) Maximum heating rate of 0.36°F per minute per W/cm<sup>2</sup>
C) Penetration depth of 0.8 to 3 cm
D) Maximum heating rate of 1.1°F per minute per W/cm<sup>2</sup>
E) Collimated beam
Q3) Which ultrasound setups are considered nonthermal? Select all that apply.
A) 25 percent duty cycle with an output intensity of 0.5 W/cm<sup>2</sup>
B) 100 percent duty cycle with an output intensity of 0.3 W/cm<sup>2</sup>
C) 25 percent duty cycle with an output intensity of 1 W/cm<sup>2</sup>
D) 100 percent duty cycle with an output intensity of 1 W/cm<sup>2</sup>
E) 50 percent duty cycle with an output intensity of 1.5 W/cm<sup>2</sup>
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9

Chapter 8: Clinical Application of Therapeutic Ultrasound
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Sample Questions
Q1) When applying underwater ultrasound,about how far should the ultrasound head be from the body part?
A) 1 cm
B) 2 cm
C) 1 in.
D) 2 in.
Q2) Applying which technique before treatment will result in a more rapid increase in intramuscular temperature?
A) Moist heat pack
B) Shaving the skin
C) Preheated coupling medium
D) Cooled coupling medium
Q3) Which of the following are indications for the use of therapeutic ultrasound? Select all that apply.
A) Spasticity
B) Warts
C) Neuroma
D) Stress fracture
E) Ischemic area
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Shortwave Diathermy
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the practical evidence,what is one of the most common clinical uses of shortwave diathermy?
A) Osteoarthritic knees
B) Hip flexor strain
C) Posterior thigh muscle spasm
D) Deep-vein thrombosis
Q2) When a capacitive field generator is used,what tissue will present the most electrical resistance and thus produce the most heat?
A) Adipose
B) Skin
C) Muscle
D) Fascia
Q3) What effects can pulsed shortwave diathermy produce?
A) Thermal only
B) Nonthermal only
C) Thermal and nonthermal
D) Neither thermal nor nonthermal
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11

Chapter 10: Clinical Application of Shortwave Diathermy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adjusting what control will allow the clinician to maximize the energy exchange between generator and patient?
A) Tuning
B) Output intensity
C) Interrupt switch
D) Pulse frequency
Q2) With continuous shortwave diathermy,there must be no metal within what distance from the treatment area?
A) 0.5 ft
B) 1 ft
C) 1.5 ft
D) 3 ft
Q3) When applying shortwave diathermy,what should the moderate warmth temperature sensation be used to treat? Select all that apply.
A) Acute trauma
B) Stretching collagen-rich tissues
C) Subacute inflammation
D) Muscle spasm
E) Chronic inflammation
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Page 12

Chapter 11: Principles of Electrical Stimulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using an alternating current,how many times would a current of 100 Hz change its direction of flow in two seconds?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200
Q2) What type of current do interferential stimulators use?
A) Direct current
B) Alternating current
C) Pulsed current
D) Polyphasic current
Q3) Ohm's law describes the relationship between what characteristics of electrical currents? Select all that apply.
A) Amperage
B) Voltage
C) Resistance
D) Wattage
E) Frequency
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13

Chapter 12: Electrical Stimulation Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) When targeting deeper tissues,how should you place the electrodes?
A) Farther apart
B) Closer together
C) Perpendicular to muscle fibers
D) Electrode placement does not affect the depth.
Q2) What type of resistance does the skin present to electrical current flow?
A) Capacitive and parallel
B) Capacitive
C) Parallel
D) Neither capacitive nor parallel
Q3) Which of the following are accurate statements concerning the size of electrode?
Select all that apply.
A) As electrode size increases,current density increases.
B) Smaller electrodes require less current to stimulate tissue.
C) Large electrodes yield a more comfortable treatment when superficial nerves are targeted.
D) Most electrodes have a current density that must not be exceeded.
E) Larger electrodes yield a more comfortable treatment when there is an adipose layer greater than 2 cm.
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Page 14

Chapter 13: Clinical Application of Electrical Agents
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Sample Questions
Q1) When preparing the patient for a pain-control technique with electrical stimulation,one should ask about caffeine intake.The effectiveness of electrical stimulation on pain control is diminished after how many milligrams of caffeine have been ingested?
A) 200
B) 150
C) 100
D) 50
Q2) Why is neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES)able to provide stronger neuromuscular stimulation? Select all that apply.
A) Large amplitude
B) Long phase duration
C) Short phase duration
D) Lower intensities
E) Faster ramping
Q3) What is an indication for the use of iontophoresis?
A) Reduction of muscle spasm
B) Postsurgical pain
C) Contusions
D) Arthritis
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Chapter 14: Intermittent Compression
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compression units should not be used until what pathologies have been ruled out? Select all that apply.
A) Fracture
B) Compartment syndrome
C) Acute sprain
D) Acute strain
E) Chronic arthritis
Q2) According to the practical evidence,in comparison to intermittent compression,constant compression units are primarily used for what two purposes?
A) Preventing swelling and assisting in venous return
B) Preventing swelling and activating the lymphatic return mechanism
C) Activating the lymphatic return mechanism and assisting in venous return
D) Assisting in venous return and reduce ecchymosis
Q3) When applying intermittent compression for long periods of time,which of the following should be checked regularly?
A) Capillary refill and unexpected pitting edema
B) Capillary refill and limb girth
C) Pitting edema and limb volume
D) Limb volume and limb girth
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Chapter 15: Continuous Passive Motion
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Sample Questions
Q1) Throughout a range of motion,when is joint volume normally at its greatest?
A) Full extension
B) Full flexion
C) Midrange between flexion and extension
D) Volume does not change throughout a range of motion
Q2) The design of what continuous passive motion device is similar to manually moving the patient's limb through a range of motion?
A) Free linkage design
B) Anatomic design
C) Nonanatomic design
D) Locked linkage design
Q3) The application of continuous passive motion is thought to stimulate the circulation of synovial fluid,which enhances the uptake of nutrients by what tissue in the knee?
A) Meniscal cartilage and articular cartilage
B) Articular cartilage only
C) Meniscal cartilage only
D) Neither meniscal cartilage nor articular cartilage
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Chapter 16: Cervical and Lumbar Traction
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effect and effectiveness of traction is related to which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Position of the body part
B) Position of the patient
C) Force and duration of traction
D) Angle of pull
E) Force of friction
Q2) In healthy vertebrae,approximately what percentage of the spine's weight-bearing load is transmitted through the facet joint?
A) 5 percent
B) 10 percent
C) 20 percent
D) 30 percent
Q3) When treating the cervical spine,you should question the patient about sensation in what region(s)of the spine?
A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Cervical,thoracic,and lumbar
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Therapeutic Massage
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the different types of trigger points? Select all that apply.
A) Myofascial
B) Cutaneous
C) Fascial
D) Ligamentous
E) Tendinous
Q2) Which are goals of a deep stroking effleurage? Select all that apply.
A) Elongate muscle
B) Promote movement of fluid through veins and lymph vessels
C) Encourage blood flow
D) Stimulate sensory nerves
E) Promote relaxation
Q3) Which form of massage is described as a stroking of the skin?
A) Effleurage
B) Petrissage
C) Friction massage
D) Myofascial release
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19

Chapter 18: Electromyographic Biofeedback
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Sample Questions
Q1) What biofeedback parameter identifies a target range for electromyographic activity?
A) Alarm
B) Output
C) Sensitivity range
D) Tuner
Q2) Placement of treatment electrodes from one treatment to another will affect the reliability of a biofeedback measurement.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What type of biofeedback measures the amount of light reflected by the subcutaneous tissues?
A) Mechanomyographic
B) Electromyographic
C) Galvanic skin response
D) Photoplethysmography
Q4) Measurements from one biofeedback unit can be reliably compared to another brand of biofeedback unit.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Low-Level Laser Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the United States,which of the following laser wavelengths is in the range considered to be therapeutic?
A) 200 nm
B) 500 nm
C) 1000 nm
D) 1500 nm
Q2) According to the practical evidence,laser with a wavelength of 670 nm has demonstrated effectiveness in the short-term relief of pain associated with lateral epicondylalgia.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of therapeutic laser produces a wavelength of 488 nm and a blue light band?
A) Helium-neon
B) Gallium aluminum arsenide
C) Argon
D) Gallium-arsenide
Q4) Longer laser wavelengths penetrate deeper into tissues than shorter wavelengths.
A)True
B)False
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