Applied Radiologic Science Study Guide
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Course Introduction
Applied Radiologic Science explores the fundamental principles and advanced techniques used in medical imaging and diagnostic radiology. The course covers topics such as radiation physics, imaging modalities (including X-ray, CT, MRI, and ultrasound), patient positioning, image acquisition and analysis, radiation safety, and quality assurance. Students will develop practical skills in operating radiologic equipment, analyzing diagnostic images, and applying protocols to ensure accurate and safe imaging procedures. Emphasis is placed on clinical practice, problem-solving, and recent advancements in radiologic technology, preparing students for professional roles in healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Radiologic Science for Technologists Physics Biology and Protection 11th Edition by Stewart C. Bushong
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Chapter 1: Essential Concepts of Radiologic Science
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Q1) Atoms and molecules are the fundamental building blocks of ___________.
A) energy
B) radiation
C) matter
D) gravity
Answer: C
Q2) The biggest source of man-made ionizing radiation exposure to the public is ______________.
A) atomic fallout
B) diagnostic x-rays
C) smoke detectors
D) nuclear power plants
Answer: B
Q3) Today, radiology is considered to be a(n) ___________ occupation.
A) safe
B) unsafe
C) dangerous
D) high-risk
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Structure of Matter
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Q1) A positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons in well-defined orbits is the ___________ model of the atom.
A) Bohr
B) Thomson
C) Rutherford
D) Dalton
Answer: A
Q2) When an atom has the same number of protons as another, but a different number of neutrons, it is called an __________.
A) isomer
B) isobar
C) isotone
D) isotope
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Electromagnetic Energy
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Q1) If the intensity of light from a flashlight is 4 millilumens (mlm) at a distance of 3 feet, what will the intensity be at 6 feet?
A) 0.4 millilumens
B) 1 millilumen
C) 2 millilumens
D) 16 millilumens
Answer: B
Q2) The _________ of electromagnetic radiation is constant.
A) amplitude
B) velocity
C) frequency
D) wavelength
Answer: B
Q3) What is the electromagnetic wave equation?
A) c = fl
B) c = f/l
C) c = fv
D) c = f-l
Answer: A
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Electricity, Magnetism, and Electromagnetism
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Q1) The force between magnetic poles is proportional to the ________ of the magnetic pole strengths, divided by the ________ of the distance between them.
A) square, sum
B) sum, square
C) square, product
D) product, square
Q2) Water is a ___________ material.
A) paramagnetic
B) magnetic
C) diamagnetic
D) ferromagnetic
Q3) The smallest unit of electrical charge is the __________.
A) electron
B) proton
C) neutron
D) neutrino
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6
Chapter 5: The X-ray Imaging System
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Q1) Thermionic emission at the filament determines the __________ across the x-ray tube during an exposure.
A) kilovoltage
B) milliamperage
C) resistance
D) magnetism
Q2) Voltage across the x-ray tube is most constant with _________________.
A) high frequency generators
B) single-phase, half-wave rectification
C) single-phase, full-wave rectification
D) three-phase, full-wave rectification
Q3) A single-phase waveform has _____ ripple.
A) 1%
B) 4%
C) 14%
D) 100%
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Chapter 6: The X-ray Tube
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Q1) Localized pitting or cracking on the anode can occur from _____________.
A) filament vaporization
B) a single excessive exposure
C) long exposure times
D) high kVp and low mA
Q2) A dual focus tube has two _______.
A) anodes
B) filaments
C) rotors
D) stators
Q3) The external structure of the x-ray tube includes the support structure, the protective housing, and the ___________.
A) anode
B) cathode
C) glass envelope
D) focusing cup
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Chapter 7: X-ray Production
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Q1) Approximately _____ of the kinetic energy of the projectile electrons is converted to x-rays at the target.
A) 1%
B) 10%
C) 50%
D) 99%
Q2) At the target, the projectile electrons interact with ____________.
A) outer-shell electrons
B) inner-shell electrons
C) atomic nuclei
D) Both A and B
Q3) The efficiency of x-ray production is ___________ the tube current.
A) indirectly proportional to
B) directly proportional to
C) not affected by
D) strongly affected by
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Chapter 8: X-ray Emission
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Q1) An increase of 15% in kVp is equivalent to increasing mAs _____.
A) 15%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 100%
Q2) If an exposure is 0.5 mGy at an SID of 40 inches, what would the exposure be at an SID of 60 inches?
A) 0.22.2 mGya
B) 0.333 mGya
C) 0.75 mGya
D) 1.125 mGya
Q3) If the quantity of electrons hitting the target are doubled, the x-ray quantity is
A) reduced by half
B) just slightly increased
C) increased by a factor of two
D) increased by a factor of four
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Chapter 9: X-ray Interaction with Matter
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Q1) Only at energies above 10 MeV can _______________ take place.
A) photodisintegration
B) pair production
C) Compton scatter
D) photoelectric absorption
Q2) The two primary forms of x-ray interaction in the diagnostic range are
A) Compton scattering and photoelectric absorption
B) Compton scattering and pair production
C) photoelectric absorption and coherent scattering
D) coherent scattering and Thompson scattering
Q3) As kVp ___________, the probability of photoelectric absorption ______________.
A) increases, remains the same
B) increases, decreases
C) decreases, decreases
D) decreases, remains the same
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11
Chapter 10: Radiographic Image Quality
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Q1) Optical density is primarily controlled by changing the _____.
A) kVp
B) mAs
C) film
D) SID
Q2) A high quality radiograph should always demonstrate ____________.
A) structures and tissues
B) high contrast
C) minimum magnification
D) All of the above
Q3) What is the formula for optical density?
A) OD = log10(Io/It)
B) OD = log10(It/Io)
C) OD = Io/It
D) OD = It/Io
Q4) Which of these body parts has the highest subject contrast?
A) Abdomen
B) Skull
C) Chest
D) Pelvis
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Control of Scatter Radiation
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Q1) The three primary factors influencing the intensity of scatter in the image-forming beam are ___________________.
A) mAs, kVp, and collimation
B) mAs, filtration, and grids
C) kVp, field size, and patient thickness
D) filtration, patient thickness, and mAs
Q2) Approximately _______% of the x-ray beam incident on the patient is transmitted through the patient without interaction to become part of the image-forming beam.
A) 90-99
B) 80-89
C) 20-29
D) 1
Q3) Lowering kVp ________ patient dose and _________ image contrast.
A) lowers, decreases
B) increases, decreases
C) lowers, increases
D) increases, increases
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13
Chapter 12: Screen-Film Radiography
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Q1) The intensification factor is a measurement of screen _____________.
A) resolution
B) speed
C) noise
D) quality
Q2) The two basic components of radiographic film are the _______ and the ___________.
A) base, adhesive layer
B) base, emulsion
C) emulsion, gelatin
D) emulsion, silver halide
Q3) A contaminant in the silver halide crystal creates the ____________________.
A) sensitivity centers
B) latent image
C) manifest image
D) image fog
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Chapter 13: Screen-Film Radiographic Technique
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Q1) Foreshortening is caused by a(n) _________________________________.
A) angled beam when the body part is parallel the image receptor
B) angled body part when the beam is perpendicular to the image receptor
C) angled beam that is perpendicular to the body part
D) perpendicular beam and the body part parallel to the image receptor
Q2) Added filtration has the effect of __________ the beam quality and ________ patient dose.
A) reducing, increasing
B) reducing, reducing
C) increasing, reducing D) increasing, increasing
Q3) An increase in mAs causes ______________ in beam quality and ___________ in beam quantity.
A) an increase, a decrease
B) an increase, no change
C) an increase, an increase
D) no change, an increase
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Chapter 14: Medical Imaging Computer Science
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Q1) _________ is a computer language used to write some applications programs.
A) Quicken
B) Word
C) Excel
D) QuickBASIC
Q2) The _____ represents zero or one.
A) byte
B) bit
C) gigabyte
D) terabyte
Q3) A computer first uses its ________________ program when it is turned on.
A) systems software
B) applications
C) bootstrap
D) C++
Q4) Automatic bank tellers are _________ computer systems.
A) time-sharing
B) online
C) batch processing
D) pipeline processor
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Computed Radiography
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Q1) The photostimulable phosphor screen is handled in a ______________.
A) reader
B) darkroom
C) film processor
D) film changer
Q2) A photostimulable phosphor in a metastable state will emit light ________________. I. immediately II) when stimulated by light III) over time
A) I
B) II
C) II and III
D) I, II, and III
Q3) The output signal from the photostimulable phosphor plate is converted from analog to digital by the ________________.
A) optical system
B) computer controls
C) photodetector
D) drive mechanism
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Digital Radiography
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Q1) Digital imaging techniques are always applied to ___________________.
A) computed tomography (CT)
B) ultrasound
C) magnetic resonance imaging
D) All of the above
Q2) Scanned projection radiography was developed as a complement to ______________.
A) plain film radiography
B) computed tomography
C) magnetic resonance imaging
D) nuclear medicine
Q3) In digital radiography, the brightness of the image is determined by
_______________.
A) pixel values
B) Hounsfield units
C) automatic brightness control
D) film contrast
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Chapter 17: Digital Radiographic Technique
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Q1) The use of two screens in imaging results in a higher _______.
A) spatial frequency
B) pixel size
C) MTF
D) spatial resolution
Q2) Screen-film radiography has a dynamic range of __________.
A) 10
B) 100
C) 1000
D) 10,000
Q3) DQE is __________________.
A) density quantum effect
B) direct quantum efficiency
C) detective quantum efficiency
D) detective quantum energy
Q4) The human visual system can distinguish ________ shades of gray.
A) 10
B) 30
C) 300
D) 1000
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Chapter 18: Viewing the Digital Image
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Q1) Almost all digital images in medical imaging are viewed and interpreted on a __________________.
A) view box
B) CRT device
C) digital display device
D) television monitor
Q2) Preprocessing the digital image is done _____________, and post-processing is done ______________.
A) automatically, manually
B) manually, manually
C) manually, automatically
D) automatically, automatically
Q3) What is the file size of an image with a 1026 × 1026 matrix and a 2.5 byte gray scale depth?
A) 2,565 bits
B) 1,053 bits
C) 26 MB
D) 2.6 MB
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Chapter 19: Screen-Film Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) What can cause image blur on the finished radiograph?
A) Patient motion
B) Chemical imbalance
C) High humidity
D) Any of the above
Q2) Low humidity in the darkroom can cause ________________.
A) tree static
B) brown stains
C) pressure marks
D) film fog
Q3) Kink marks are caused by ________________.
A) fingernails
B) light leaks
C) misaligned rollers
D) bending film
Q4) Thin lines on the leading or trailing edge of a film are
A) Pi lines
B) dichroic stains
C) guide-shoe marks
D) emulsion build-up
21
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Chapter 20: Screen-Film Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) A QC program should include _________________, routine performance monitoring, and maintenance.
A) acceptance testing
B) outcome analysis
C) calibration
D) personnel monitoring
Q2) A positive beam limitation (PBL) device is involved in __________________.
A) collimation
B) exposure control
C) dose reduction
D) protocol monitoring
Q3) The first step of the QA recommended by The Joint Commission (TJC) is to
A) collect and organize data
B) take action to improve care
C) assign responsibility
D) assess and document actions
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Chapter 21: Digital Radiographic Artifacts
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Q1) Computed radiography cassettes can sit for ____________ between exposures.
A) a few hours
B) a few days
C) up to 1 year
D) an unlimited time
Q2) Which modality produces the largest image files?
A) Digital or computed radiography
B) Computed tomography
C) Nuclear medicine
D) Digital mammography
Q3) What size is the average CR or DR image file?
A) 10 KB
B) 100 KB
C) 20 MB
D) 200 MB
Q4) Each anatomical part has an image histogram with a(n) _______________ shape.
A) identical
B) characteristic
C) S-curve
D) round
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Chapter 22: Digital Radiographic Quality Control
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Q1) The TG18-LPV/LPH test is used to evaluate _______________.
A) display noise
B) luminance response
C) reflection
D) geometric distortion
Q2) Luminance response can be tested with a(n) _______________. I. near-range photometer
II) telescope photometer
III) illuminance meter
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I or II
Q3) A telescope photometer is used at __________.
A) close proximity
B) 1 meter
C) a 35° angle
D) a 50° angle
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24
Chapter 23: Mammography
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Q1) In soft tissue radiography, all of the tissues being imaged have similar _____________.
A) effective atomic numbers
B) mass densities
C) Compton interaction
D) All of the above
Q2) A diagnostic mammogram must be able to demonstrate microcalcifications less than _____ in size.
A) 5000 mm
B) 50 mm
C) 1000 mm
D) 500 mm
Q3) The American Cancer Society recommends biannual screening mammograms for all women ____________.
A) over age 65
B) age 30-39
C) age 50-59
D) age 40-49
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25
Chapter 24: Mammography Quality Control
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Q1) The ______________ is responsible for selecting the medical physicist and mammographers responsible for quality control.
A) radiologist
B) department manager
C) chief mammographer
D) federal government
Q2) When is the QC evaluation of the equipment performed?
A) Once a year
B) When major components are replaced
C) When repairs are needed
D) Both A and B
Q3) The _____________________ is responsible for supervising quality assurance.
A) chief radiologist
B) mammographer
C) department manager
D) medical physicist
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Chapter 25: Fluoroscopy
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Q1) The ____________ in the image intensifier emits electrons when it is stimulated by light photons.
A) input phosphor
B) output phosphor
C) photocathode
D) electron gun
Q2) The kinetic energy of photoelectrons in the image intensifier is greatly increased by the _____________________.
A) mAs of the exposure
B) potential difference across the tube
C) cesium iodide at the input phosphor
D) zinc cadmium sulfide at the output phosphor
Q3) Image intensified fluoroscopy is performed at illumination levels similar to ________.
A) star gazing
B) darkened theaters
C) night driving
D) radiograph viewing
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27
Chapter 26: Digital Fluoroscopy
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Q1) Digital fluoroscopy with a charge-coupled device has lower _____________ and higher ______________ than conventional fluoroscopy.
A) light sensitivity, patient dose
B) patient dose, light sensitivity
C) detective quantum efficiency, maintenance
D) signal-to-noise ratio, patient dose
Q2) The combination of temporal and energy subtraction techniques is called
A) interlacing mode subtraction
B) hybrid subtraction
C) dual subtraction
D) superimposition
Q3) A principal advantage of digital fluoroscopy is the ______________.
A) dynamic range
B) image acquisition rate
C) image subtraction
D) progressive mode
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28
Chapter 27: Interventional Radiology
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Q1) ______________ is an example of an interventional procedure.
A) Cardiac catheterization
B) Myelography
C) Angioplasty
D) Angiography
Q2) When imaging a flow of contrast from the abdomen to the feet, a ___________ is used.
A) tilting table
B) stepping table
C) sliding tube
D) cine camera
Q3) A technologist who passes the ARRT exam in cardiovascular and interventional radiography may add _____ after the RT (R).
A) (VT)
B) (CI)
C) (IR)
D) (CV)
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Chapter 28: Computed Tomography
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Q1) The second-generation CT scanners had the disadvantage of increased ____________.
A) beam scatter
B) scanning time
C) ring artifacts
D) number of translations
Q2) The concentration of scintillation detectors affects the ___________ of the CT image.
A) spatial resolution
B) contrast resolution
C) overall density
D) motion artifact
Q3) Each CT projection is ______________________.
A) displayed on the monitor
B) stored on the computer
C) printed on film
D) All of the above
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Human Biology
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Q1) DNA is located in the ____________ of the cell.
A) nucleus
B) cytoplasm
C) wall
D) Both A and B
Q2) The __________ is the basic functional unit of all plants and animals.
A) DNA
B) cell
C) macromolecule
D) lipid
Q3) The most radiosensitive target molecule in the human cell is the _________.
A) protein
B) DNA
C) hormone
D) glucose
Q4) Any chromosome damage induced by radiation could be seen during the __________.
A) metaphase
B) telophase
C) anaphase
D) prophase
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Fundamental Principles of Radiobiology
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Q1) Humans are most radiosensitive during ________________.
A) fetal stages
B) infancy
C) adulthood
D) old age
Q2) A dose of 10 Gy given to a patient in 5 doses of 2 Gy per day is a ____________ dose.
A) protracted
B) fractionated
C) diagnostic
D) fatal
Q3) Which dose-response relationship can follow a sigmoid curve?
A) Linear-nonthreshold
B) Linear-threshold
C) Nonlinear-nonthreshold
D) Nonlinear-threshold
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32
Chapter 31: Molecular Radiobiology
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Q1) Free radicals can be damaging because they are _______________________.
A) unstable
B) highly reactive
C) radioactive
D) Both A and B
Q2) Radiation damage to DNA can result in _________________.
A) cell death
B) malignant disease
C) genetic changes
D) Any of the above
Q3) The principal radiation interactions within the human body are assumed to be ________________.
A) indirect effects
B) direct effects
C) DNA damage
D) cell destruction
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Cellular Radiobiology
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Q1) If oxygen is present during low-LET radiation the effect of radiation is __________.
A) reduced
B) minimal
C) maximal
D) the same
Q2) The lethal effects of cell irradiation are measured by cell _______________.
A) death
B) survival
C) damage
D) mutation
Q3) Human cells are most radiosensitive during the _________ phase of the cell cycle.
A) gap2
B) gap1
C) mitosis
D) synthesis
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Chapter 33: Deterministic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) Death from acute radiation exposure follows a __________________ dose-response relationship.
A) nonlinear, threshold
B) linear, threshold
C) linear, nonthreshold
D) nonlinear, nonthreshold
Q2) The central nervous system syndrome occurs following a whole body dose of _____ Gy or more.
A) 50
B) 20
C) 10
D) 5
Q3) About half of the population will experience skin erythema following a localized dose of _____ Gy.
A) 5
B) 3.5
C) 1
D) 0.5
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Chapter 34: Stochastic Effects of Radiation
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Q1) The most radiosensitive period during pregnancy for radiation induced congenital abnormalities is during the _____________________.
A) first 2 weeks
B) first trimester
C) second trimester
D) third trimester
Q2) Data showing radiation-induced human genetic abnormalities __________________.
A) does not exist
B) indicates responses to low doses
C) indicates responses to high doses
D) is being studied by the BEIR
Q3) Low doses of radiation have been shown to cause ________________.
A) chromosome damage
B) loss of fertility
C) cataracts
D) radiodermatitis
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36
Chapter 35: Health Physics
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Q1) What is the best approach to occupational radiation exposure?
A) Maintain the annual dose limits.
B) Follow the concept of ALARA.
C) Reduce your exposure to half the NCRP dose limits.
D) Wear protective apparel at all times.
Q2) The NCRP publishes annual dose limits for _____________ exposure.
A) public
B) occupational
C) prenatal
D) All of the above
Q3) Health physics is concerned with minimizing radiation dose to ________________.
A) radiation physicists
B) radiation workers
C) the public
D) All of the above
Q4) Exposure is measured by multiplying _________________ by ___________________.
A) shielding thickness, exposure time
B) exposure rate, exposure time
C) exposure rate, shielding thickness
D) exposure time, distance
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Chapter 36: Designing for Radiation Protection
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positive beam limitation must be accurate to within _____% of the SID.
A) 10
B) 5
C) 2
D) 1
Q2) The x-ray control panel must show ____________.
A) beam on time
B) mAs used
C) positive beam limitation
D) automatic exposure controls
Q3) What is the minimum requirement for filtration on x-ray equipment operating above 70 kVp?
A) 1.5 mm Al equivalent
B) 2.0 mm Al equivalent
C) 2.5 mm Al equivalent
D) 3.5 mm Al equivalent
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Chapter 37: Radiography/Fluoroscopy Patient Radiation
Dose
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20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient dose from diagnostic x-rays is most often reported in ____________________.
A) bone marrow dose
B) gonadal dose
C) entrance skin dose
D) None of the above
Q2) If the output intensity of an x-ray machine is 0.064 mGy/mAs at 80 kVp, what is the patient's ESE for an exam done at 20 mAs at 80 kVp?
A) 1.6 mGy
B) 1.28 mGy
C) 0.64 mGy
D) 0.064 mGy
Q3) An estimation of patient dose is reported as _______________.
A) entrance skin exposure
B) bone marrow dose
C) gonadal dose
D) Any of the above
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Computed Tomography Patient Radiation
Dose
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Sample Questions
Q1) Because CT uses a cone-shaped x-ray beam, scatter radiation is ______________, and contrast resolution is ____________.
A) reduced significantly, improved
B) reduced significantly, decreased C) increased significantly, improved D) increased significantly, decreased
Q2) The collimator that improves image contrast by limiting the amount of scatter radiation that reaches the detector is the ____________________.
A) prepatient collimator
B) postpatient collimator
C) A and B
D) None of the above
Q3) A pitch of 1 indicates that with each rotation of the tube, the patient will move
A) 8 cm
B) 16 cm
C) 24 cm
D) 32 cm
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Chapter 39: Patient Radiation Dose Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digital mammography results in lower doses than screen/film mammography.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During mammography, axillary projections should be done only on request of the:
A) ordering physician.
B) patient.
C) radiologist.
D) technologist performing the examination.
Q3) The period of major organogenesis is during the ________________ of pregnancy.
A) first 2 weeks
B) 2nd to 10th week
C) 2nd trimester
D) 3rd trimester
Q4) Performing routine x-ray exams without indication is acceptable for ______________.
A) preemployment physicals
B) all hospital admissions
C) annual routine physicals
D) None of the above
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Chapter 40: Occupational Radiation Dose Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) For diagnostic x-ray personnel, the highest occupational exposure occurs during ___________________ exams. I. fluoroscopy
II) mobile radiography
III) spinal
IV) dental
A) I and II
B) I and III
C) I and IV
D) III and IV
Q2) For nursing personnel present during mobile x-ray imaging, a personnel monitoring device is required _________________.
A) at all times
B) not at all
C) during exposures
D) only for C-arms
Q3) A protective apron with a thickness of 0.25 mm lead equivalent is the minimum required.
A)True
B)False
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Page 42