Applied Pathophysiology Test Questions
Course Introduction
Applied Pathophysiology explores the physiological processes underlying human diseases, emphasizing the clinical relevance of altered biological mechanisms. This course integrates foundational knowledge of anatomy and physiology with pathologic processes to examine how disruptions in normal function lead to specific disease presentations across body systems. Through case studies, critical analysis, and application exercises, students develop a deeper understanding of the etiology, progression, manifestations, and consequences of disease, preparing them to apply pathophysiological principles in diagnostic reasoning and evidence-based clinical practice.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 4th Edition by Barbara Gould
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has increased effectiveness and is safe,this is called:
A)the placebo effect
B)evidence based research
C)blind research studies
D)approval for immediate distribution
Answer: B
Q2) To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
A)increased rate of mitosis by certain cells
B)ischemic damage to cells
C)liquefaction of necrotic tissue
D)preprogrammed cell self-destruction
Answer: D
Q3) The best definition of ischemia is:
A)the mechanical damage due to pressure on tissue
B)any imbalance of fluids or electrolytes in the body
C)a deficit of oxygen supply to the cells,due to circulatory obstruction
D)the effects of infection by microorganisms
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the proper sequence in the healing process.
A)A blood clot forms;granulation tissue grows into the gap;new blood vessels develop;phagocytosis of foreign material and cell debris occurs;and collagen fibers form a tight,strong scar.
B)A blood clot forms;phagocytes remove foreign material and cell debris;granulation tissue grows into the gap;new blood vessels form;and collagen fibers promote formation of a tight,strong scar.
C)Collagen fibers form in the damaged area;a blood clot forms;granulation tissue grows into the gap;angiogenesis takes place;and foreign material and cell debris have been removed by phagocytes.
D)Foreign material and cell debris have been removed by phagocytes;a blood clot forms;granulation tissue grows into the gap;new blood vessels form;and collagen fibers grow and cross-link.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Immunity and Abnormal Responses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Host-versus-graft disease refers to:
A)hyperacute rejection of tissue
B)T-cells in grafted tissue attacking host cells
C)infection resulting from immunosuppression therapy
D)transplant rejection by the recipient's immune system
Answer: D
Q2) An autoimmune disease is:
A)excessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material
B)an extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment
C)an abnormal response to ingested food and drugs
D)failure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to MHC proteins or molecules?
A)They are genes on chromosome 6.
B)All members of a family have identical MHCs.
C)They alert the immune system to virus-infected cells.
D)A close match is essential for successful tissue transplants.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which area of the body is considered sterile?
A)stomach
B)pharynx
C)distal urethra
D)vagina
Q2) A retrovirus such as HIV contains:
A)RNA and enzymes for its conversion
B)a double strand of DNA
C)many enzymes to limit budding of new virions
D)numerous mitochondria
Q3) Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?
A)The microbe exists as a chain of cells.
B)It causes a common STD.
C)It possesses many flagellae.
D)It is excreted in feces.
Q4) Which statement applies to yeasts? They:
A)are usually considered to be pathogenic
B)consist of clusters of cells
C)may cause opportunistic infection in the body
D)are normally not found in resident flora
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Chapter 5: Neoplasms
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Sample Questions
Q1) High risk factors for cancer include:
1)human papilloma virus
2)chronic irritation and inflammation
3)repeated sun exposure
4)high family incidence
A)2 only
B)1,3
C)3,4
D)1,2,4
E)1,2,3,4
Q2) One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
A)identify the original cell from which the tumor developed
B)locate and identify the primary tumor
C)decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor
D)determine the best treatment and the prognosis
Q3) Which factor provides the basis for grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors?
A)size of the tumor
B)number of metastases
C)degree of differentiation of the cells
D)number of lymph nodes involved
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Chapter 6: Fluid, Electrolyte and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which serum value indicates decompensated metabolic acidosis?
A)pH is below normal range
B)pH is above normal range
C)bicarbonate level decreases
D)bicarbonate level increases
Q2) Which of the following would be considered normal serum pH?
A)4.5-8
B)7.0
C)7.4
D)8
Q3) Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration?
A)rapid,strong pulse
B)low hematocrit
C)increased urine output
D)rough oral mucosa
Q4) What is the slowest,but most effective control for acid-base balance?
A)respiratory system
B)buffer systems in the blood
C)kidneys
D)brain
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Chapter 7: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Down syndrome is an example of a/an:
A)autosomal dominant disorder
B)multifactorial disorder
C)developmental defect
D)chromosomal disorder
Q2) TORCH is an acronym for routine prenatal screening tests for high risk maternal infections:
A)toxoplasmosis,other (hepatitis
B,mumps,rubeola,varicella,gonorrhea,syphilis),rubella,cytomegalovirus,and Herpes
B)tuberculosis,other (hepatitis
B,mumps,rubeola,varicella,gonorrhea,syphilis),rabies,cytomegalovirus,and HIV
C)toxoplasmosis,other (hepatitis
B,mumps,rubeola,varicella,gonorrhea,syphilis),rabies,cytomegalovirus,and HIV
D)tuberculosis,other (hepatitis
B,mumps,rubeola,varicella,gonorrhea,syphilis),rabies,cytomegalovirus,and Herpes
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9
Chapter 8: Diseases Associated With Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) An autoimmune disease that causes chronic inflammation in the joints of children is:
A)lordosis
B)juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA)
C)osteomyelitis
D)metabolic syndrome
Q2) Which of the following might fluid and electrolyte deficits cause in a patient with anorexia nervosa?
A)cardiac arrhythmias
B)weight loss
C)dental caries and esophagitis
D)amenorrhea
Q3) How is scoliosis identified?
A)bowed or hunched-over position of head and shoulders
B)uneven hips and shoulders
C)a swayback posture
D)one arm and leg shorter than the other
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10
Chapter 9: Potential Complications of Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following indicates development of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A)proteinuria,edema,and weight gain
B)persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90
C)vaginal bleeding
D)blood clots forming in the legs
Q2) The term primigravida refers to:
A)length of time since the first day of the last menstrual period
B)a woman who is pregnant for the first time
C)estimated date of delivery
D)withdrawal of a small amount of amnionic fluid
Q3) Common effects of the expanding uterus during pregnancy include all the following EXCEPT:
A)compression of the urinary bladder
B)restricted inspiratory volume
C)abdominal pain
D)varicose veins
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11
Chapter 10: Aging and Disease Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Recommendations to reduce the risk factors and the progression of osteoporosis with aging include:
A)reducing Vitamin D intake
B)maintaining walking and weight-bearing exercise
C)increasing bone resorption
D)maintaining glucocorticoid therapy
Q2) Which of the following does NOT contribute to the increasing lifespan of the general population?
A)reduced cognitive and social activities
B)improved living conditions
C)better nutrition
D)advancements in healthcare
E)increase in regular physical exercise
Q3) Vision in the elderly may be impaired when the lens of the eye becomes larger and less elastic,resulting in:
A)presbyopia
B)cataracts
C)glaucoma
D)damage to the retina
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Effects of Immobility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is likely to develop when a leg is immobilized in a cast?
A)contracture
B)muscle hypertrophy
C)muscle atrophy
D)increased osteoblastic activity
Q2) Which of the following apply to orthostatic hypotension associated with prolonged immobility?
A)Sudden changes in body position from supine to upright may cause low blood pressure.
B)Venous return and cardiac output are decreased with immobility.
C)All cardiovascular reflexes are lost with prolonged immobility.
D)a,b
E)a,c
Q3) Atelectasis may occur with a prolonged period of bed rest due to:
A)reduced removal of pulmonary secretions
B)increased expansion of the lower lobes of the lungs
C)increased risk of aspiration in a sitting position
D)loss of cough reflex
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13
Chapter 12: The Influence of Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) During the stress response,glucocorticoids assist in:
A)increasing blood glucose levels and stabilizing blood pressure
B)depressing and calming cerebral function
C)stimulating increased secretion of aldosterone and insulin
D)preventing excessive secretion of epinephrine
Q2) Selye defined 3 stages in the stress response.The third stage is designated as the:
A)alarm stage
B)resistance stage
C)stage of exhaustion
D)maladaptive stage
Q3) Which of the following may alter a person's perception of a stressor?
A)the presence of several stressors at the same time
B)past experiences
C)lack of effective coping mechanisms
D)b,c
E)a,b,c
Q4) The basic physiologic response to stress is the same in all individuals.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 13: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which structure do pain impulses ascend the spinal cord?
A)the reticular formation
B)the corticospinal tract
C)the spinothalamic tract
D)the relevant dermatome
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A)The brain is more aware of pain impulses when the reticular activating system is depressed.
B)Acute pain does not cause a reflex response at the spinal cord synapses.
C)Young infants respond to pain with tachycardia and increased blood pressure.
D)Chronic pain is easier to tolerate without negative effects.
Q3) Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
A)It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness.
B)The drug is injected into CSF or the epidural space of the spinal cord.
C)The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord.
D)The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.
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15
Chapter 14: Substance Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synergism can cause an emergency situation when:
A)antidotes for respiratory depression are given too quickly
B)a combination of alcohol and drugs has been taken
C)a large dose of a drug affects the central nervous system
D)an individual involuntarily develops a habit
Q2) What is a common indication of substance abuse?
A)behavioral change
B)weight gain
C)depression
D)loss of sensory function
Q3) Chemical dependency has been associated with all the following EXCEPT:
A)hereditary factors
B)disease requiring certain prescription drugs
C)easy access to many kinds of drugs
D)increased acceptance of alcohol or marijuana to cope with stress
E)increased work productivity
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Chapter 15: Environmental Hazards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Illness in institutions may be traced back to food handlers who:
A)are carriers of pathogens
B)do not practice adequate hand washing or sanitization
C)bring in pathogens from home or the community
D)b,c
E)a,b,c
Q2) Bites and stings cause disease in three ways:
A)injection of toxins,transmission of infectious agents,or allergic reactions
B)high fever and chills,transmission of infectious agents,or nausea and vomiting
C)bone marrow damage,extensive skin rashes,or allergic reactions
D)injection of neurotoxins,transmission of infectious agents,or kidney damage
Q3) Which of the following is a potential effect of a bite or sting?
A)immediate heart failure
B)anaphylaxis
C)severe nausea,vomiting,and diarrhea
D)bone marrow damage
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17
Chapter 16: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Selected Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is trained to help individuals with swallowing problems?
A)occupational therapist
B)physiotherapist
C)dietitian/nutritionist
D)speech-language pathologist
Q2) The full course of a prescribed antimicrobial drug should be completed so as to prevent:
A)undesirable side effects
B)development of resistant microbes
C)an allergic response
D)any recurrence of infection in the distant future
Q3) At which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion?
A)liver
B)kidneys
C)circulating blood
D)lymphoid tissue
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Chapter 17: Blood and Lymphatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do abnormally low hemoglobin values develop with pernicious anemia?
A)decreased production of erythrocytes
B)shorter lifespan of erythrocytes
C)abnormal structure of hemoglobin chains
D)deficit of folic acid
Q2) Multiple opportunistic infections develop with acute leukemia primarily because:
A)the number of white blood cells is decreased
B)many circulating leukocytes are immature
C)severe anemia interferes with the immune response
D)decreased appetite and nutritional intake reduce natural defenses
Q3) What is the basic abnormality in thalassemia?
A)Several amino acids in the globin chains have been replaced by substitute amino acids.
B)More than four globin chains are found in the erythrocytes.
C)The iron molecule is displaced in hemoglobin.
D)There is failure to synthesize either the alpha or beta chains in the hemoglobin molecule.
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Chapter 18: Cardiovascular Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because:
A)venous return is increased.
B)ventricular fibrillation develops immediately.
C)conduction through the AV node is impaired.
D)ventricular filling is reduced.
Q2) How does rheumatic heart disease usually manifest in later years?
A)swollen heart valves and fever
B)cardiac arrhythmias and heart murmurs
C)thrombus formation and septic emboli
D)petechial hemorrhages of the skin and mucosa
Q3) Which of the following actions causes the atrioventricular valves to close?
A)increased intraventricular pressure
B)depolarization at the AV node
C)ventricular relaxation and backflow of blood
D)contraction of the atria
Q4) Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in:
A)reducing the risk of blood clotting
B)decreasing the attraction of cholesterol into lipid plaques
C)reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions
D)decreasing all types of cardiac arrhythmias
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Respiratory Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to effects on the lungs and pancreas,cystic fibrosis causes:
A)excess bile production
B)high sodium chloride content in saliva and sweat
C)gastric ulcers
D)frequent ear and sinus infections
Q2) Which of the following distinguishes influenza from infectious rhinitis?
A)Influenza is a viral infection.
B)The virus causing influenza mutates frequently.
C)Influenza has a sudden onset with fever,marked muscle aching,and severe malaise.
D)Complications can occur with influenza.
Q3) Lobar pneumonia is usually caused by:
A)Mycoplasma pneumonia
B)Streptococcus pneumonia
C)Legionella pneumophila
D)Pneumocystis carinii
Q4) Whenever PO levels decrease below normal,then PCO levels:
A)increase
B)decrease also
C)may or may not change
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Chapter 20: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the definition of achalasia?
A)a herniation of the gastric mucosa through a segment of weakened muscle
B)recurrent reflux of chime into the esophagus
C)absence of a connection of the esophagus to the stomach
D)lack of a nerve plexus to relax the lower esophageal sphincter
Q2) Which of the following would a perforated gastric ulcer likely cause?
A)severe anemia
B)chemical peritonitis
C)severe gastric hemorrhage
D)pyloric obstruction
Q3) What causes elevated serum levels of AST and ALT during the preicteric stage of hepatitis?
A)systemic effects of viral infection
B)obstruction of bile ducts and malabsorption
C)necrosis of liver cells
D)ammonia toxicity
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22
Chapter 21: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following increases glomerular filtration rate?
A)increased plasma osmotic pressure
B)dilation of the efferent arteriole
C)increased hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries
D)constriction of the afferent arteriole
Q2) What factors contribute to headache,anorexia,and lethargy with kidney disease?
1)increased blood pressure
2)elevated serum urea
3)anemia
4)acidosis
A)1 only
B)2,4
C)1,3,4
D)1,2,3,4
Q3) Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:
A)albuminuria increases vascular volume
B)congestion and ischemia stimulates release of renin
C)ADH secretion is decreased
D)damaged tubules absorb large amounts of filtrate
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Chapter 22: Acute Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following impairments results from infection by the polio virus?
A)pain and paresthesia in a cranial nerve or dermatome
B)loss of motor and sensory function in the peripheral nerves
C)inflammation and increased intracranial pressure
D)loss of function of motor neurons of the spinal cord and medulla
Q2) What is an early indicator of increasing intracranial pressure?
A)papilledema
B)bilateral fixed dilated pupils
C)decreasing responsiveness
D)rapid heart rate
Q3) All of the following apply to CVA EXCEPT:
A)the common cause is an atheroma with thrombus
B)maximum necrosis and infarction develop within several hours of onset
C)warning signs may appear with partial obstruction of the artery
D)increasing neurologic deficits usually develop during the first few days
Q4) Which type of fracture typically occurs at the base of the skull?
A)depressed
B)contrecoup
C)comminuted
D)basilar
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Chronic Neurologic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) From the following,choose the two events (in correct sequence)that immediately follow the aura during a tonic-clonic event:
A)prodromal signs,then the clonic stage
B)clonic stage,then the tonic stage
C)loss of consciousness,then the tonic stage
D)loss of consciousness and cessation of respiration
Q2) Which of the following are common early signs of multiple sclerosis?
A)paralysis of the lower body,impaired cognitive function
B)tremors,weakness in the legs,visual problems
C)sensory deficit in the legs and trunk,memory loss,urinary incontinence
D)tremors,speech impairment,hearing loss
Q3) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by:
A)inheritance of an autosomal dominant trait
B)infection in the brain by HIV
C)an autoimmune reaction that damages nerve receptors
D)infection in the brain by a prion
Q4) The defective gene for Huntington's disease can be detected in carriers.
A)true
B)false
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Chapter 24: Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lens and cornea are nourished by:
A)small capillaries
B)tears
C)vitreous humor
D)aqueous humor
Q2) What is the basic pathologic change with macular degeneration?
A)increased amount of aqueous humor in the eye
B)movement of vitreous humor between the retina and the choroid
C)degeneration of the retinal cells in the fovea centralis
D)damage to the optic nerve and meninges
Q3) The area providing the greatest visual acuity is the:
A)macula lutea
B)fovea centralis
C)optic disc
D)lens
Q4) Which disorder is manifested by loss of peripheral vision?
A)retinal detachment
B)chronic (wide-angle)glaucoma
C)cataract
D)macular degeneration
26
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Chapter 25: Endocrine Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is an effect of long-term glucocorticoid therapy?
A)decreased secretion from the adrenal cortex gland
B)an increased inflammatory response to irritants
C)hypotension and poor circulation
D)increased number of hypersensitivity reactions
Q2) Why does diabetes insipidus cause polyuria?
A)There is increased osmotic pressure of the filtrate.
B)Damaged tubules cannot reabsorb sufficient fluid.
C)Excessive ADH secretion is present.
D)There is a deficit of ADH.
E)Excessive aldosterone is secreted.
Q3) Which of the following is caused by Graves' disease?
A)increased metabolic rate
B)decreased size of thyroid gland
C)bradycardia and hypothermia
D)decreased blood levels of T3,T4,and TSH
E)increased epinephrine and norepinephrine
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Chapter 26: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does ankylosis and deformity develop in rheumatoid arthritis?
A)skeletal muscle hypertrophies
B)fibrosis occurs in the joint
C)replacement cartilage changes alignment
D)ligaments and tendons shorten
Q2) Rickets results from:
A)excessive bone resorption by osteoclasts
B)a deficit of Vitamin D and phosphates
C)replacement of bone by fibrous tissue
D)hyperparathyroidism
Q3) What structure facilitates joint movement?
A)synovial membrane
B)fibrous capsule
C)articulating cartilage
D)menisci
Q4) Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
A)Inflammation and fibrosis develop at the joints.
B)Degeneration of articulating cartilage occurs in the large joints.
C)It progresses bilaterally through the small joints.
D)There are no changes in the bone at the affected joints.
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Chapter 27: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pathologic change associated with scleroderma is:
A)abnormal activation of T-lymphocytes and increased cytokines
B)an autoimmune reaction damaging the epidermis
C)collagen deposits in the small blood vessels of the skin and sometimes the viscera
D)Type I hypersensitivity and increased serum IgE levels
Q2) All of the following statements apply to malignant melanoma EXCEPT:
A)The malignant cell is a melanocyte.
B)They present as non-pruritic purplish macules.
C)The neoplasm grows rapidly and metastasizes early.
D)The lesion is usually dark or multicolored with an irregular border.
Q3) Why do secondary infections frequently develop in pruritic lesions?
A)loss of protective sebum
B)entry of resident flora while scratching the lesion
C)blockage of sebaceous glands
D)increased sweat production
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the cause of syphilis?
A)a gram-negative diplococcus
B)an anaerobic protozoa
C)a virus
D)an anaerobic spirochete
Q2) Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism?
A)infertility
B)testicular cancer
C)both a and b
D)neither a nor b
Q3) Viable sperm may not be able to access an ovum when:
A)cervical mucus is highly viscous
B)vaginal pH is abnormal
C)structural abnormalities are present
D)b,c
E)a,b,c
Q4) Benign prostatic hypertrophy usually progresses to prostatic cancer.
A)true
B)false
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