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Applied Nutrition focuses on the practical application of nutritional science to promote health, prevent disease, and manage specific health conditions. The course covers the principles of human nutrition, nutrient requirements across the life span, dietary assessment methods, and the development of balanced meal plans. Topics also include the impact of nutrition on chronic diseases, strategies for nutrition education and intervention, and current issues such as food trends, supplementation, and public health policies. Case studies and real-world scenarios are used to help students develop skills in assessing and addressing nutritional needs in diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Understanding Nutrition 14th Edition by Eleanor Noss Whitney
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Sample Questions
Q1) A normal half-cup vegetable portion weighs approximately how many grams?
A)5
B)50
C)100
D)150
E)200
Answer: C
Q2) Which sequence of stages is most typical in the development of a nutrient deficiency resulting from inadequate intake?
A)Declining nutrient stores, abnormal functions within the body, and overt signs
B)Abnormal functions within the body, declining nutrient stores, and overt signs
C)Abnormal functions within the body, overt signs, and declining nutrient stores
D)Declining nutrient stores, overt signs, and abnormal functions within the body
E)Overt signs, abnormal functions, and declining nutrient stores
Answer: A
Q3) The normal range for ____________________ is 18 to 21% for young men and 23 to 26% for young women.
Answer: body fat composition
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Q1) Which term is used to describe a cut of meat having a low fat content?
A)Grade AA
B)Select
C)Prime
D)Choice
E)Grade A
Answer: B
Q2) In the MyPlate icon, which nutrient is shown as a separate food group?
A)fat
B)dairy
C)carbohydrate
D)micronutrients
E)discretionary-calorie foods
Answer: B
Q3) An assessment tool called the ____________________ can be used to measure how well a diet meets the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines.
Answer: Healthy Eating Index
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Q1) What is intestinal ischemia?
A)Reduced blood flow to the intestines
B)Chronic episodes of reverse peristalsis
C)Construction of intestinal lymph supply
D)Inflammation of two or more sphincter muscles
E)Severe and repeated episodes of intestinal blockage
Answer: A
Q2) Which part of the GI tract contains highly acidic digestive juices?
A)Colon
B)Ileum
C)Stomach
D)Duodenum
E)Rectum
Answer: C
Q3) One of the major causes of ulcers is infection with ____________________. Answer: Helicobacter pylori or H. pylori
Q4) Blood leaving the digestive system goes by way of the ____________________ to the liver.
Answer: hepatic portal vein
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Q1) Discuss the concepts of sugar cravings and addictions.
Q2) What is the RDA for carbohydrate?
A)10 g
B)45 g
C)130 g
D)250 g
E)400 g
Q3) Excessive consumption of soft drinks, orange juice, and sports drinks increases risk for development of caries because they contain sugar and ____.
A)a low pH
B)organic bases
C)resistant starch
D)insufficient fluoride
E)excess calcium
Q4) Ample amounts of carbohydrates are almost always found in ____.
A)plant foods
B)health foods
C)animal products
D)protein-rich foods
E)low fat foods
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Q1) Monoglycerides and long-chain fatty acids are emulsified by bile, forming spherical complexes known as ____________________.
Q2) Which statement describes the lipid content of livestock?
A)The meat from grass-fed animals is similar in composition to soy protein.
B)Grass-fed animals contain more omega-3 fats in the meat than grain-fed animals.
C)Grain-fed animals contain more polyunsaturated fatty acids in the meat compared with grass-fed animals.
D)Grain-fed animals contain lower concentrations of fat in the meat compared with grass-fed animals.
E)There are no significant differences between the fat composition of grass and grain fed cattle.
Q3) Lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation due to their number of
A)amino acids
B)double bonds
C)saccharide units
D)peptide linkages
E)oxygen atoms
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Q1) Which term is used to classify amino acids in the diet?
A)Essential
B)Unessential
C)Partially essential
D)Moderately essential
E)Rarely essential
Q2) Explain the differences among amino acids that are classified as essential, nonessential, or conditionally essential.
Q3) What is opsin?
A)An antigen
B)An antibody
C)A light-sensitive protein
D)A blood transport protein
E)A sterol
Q4) What is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another?
A)The side group
B)The central carbon atom
C)The number of oxygen atoms
D)The number of nitrogen atoms
E)The presence of a central hydrogen atom
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Q1) List four of the liver's functions in the metabolism of each of these nutrients: carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.
Q2) How many acetyl CoA molecules may be obtained from oxidation of a 16-carbon fatty acid?
A)2
B)4
C)6
D)8
E)16
Q3) What term is specific to reactions in which simple compounds are combined into more complex molecules?
A)Anabolic
B)Catabolic
C)Ergogenic
D)Gluconeogenic
E)Anaerobic
Q4) How does the body respond to a low-carbohydrate diet?
Q5) Fatty acids are taken apart two carbons at a time in a series of reactions known as
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Q1) Discuss factors that increase and decrease basal metabolic rate.
Q2) What would be the approximate weight gain of a person who consumes an excess of 500 kcalories daily for one month?
A)0.5 lb
B)2 lbs
C)3 lbs
D)4 lbs
E)8 lbs
Q3) What is a significant factor associated with the interpretation of body composition values?
A)The values include fat and protein but not water.
B)Sedentary, normal-weight people are rarely over-fat.
C)Muscular people may be classified as overweight.
D)Body composition can be accurately assessed by measuring body weight.
E)In middle-aged people, body composition is unrelated to morbidity and mortality.
Q4) What factors may account for the decline in BMR with age?
Q5) As receptors in the stomach stretch and hormones such as cholecystokinin become active and prompt a person to stop eating, the person experiences
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Q1) What is the significance of the uncoupling proteins in adipose tissue?
A)Increased loss of energy as heat
B)Reduction of fat cell number
C)Lowering of basal metabolism
D)Proliferation of fat cell number
E)Increased fat storage
Q2) Which of the following is a feature of the use of artificial sweeteners to control body weight?
A)They may lead to weight gain in some people.
B)They automatically lower a person's daily energy intake.
C)They delay gastric emptying time, leading to enhanced satiety.
D)They trigger epinephrine secretion, which suppresses appetite.
E)They increase release of endogenous opiates.
Q3) Which of the following is a feature of gastric surgery for the treatment of clinically severe obesity?
A)It is almost never followed by weight regain.
B)It is always an irreversible medical procedure.
C)It is less effective than traditional liposuction.
D)It diminishes the amount of food that can be eaten without GI distress.
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E)It has dramatic effects on physical and psychological health.
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Q1) What vitamin contains cobalt?
A)A
B)B<sub>6</sub>
C)B
D)Pantothenic acid
E)Ascorbic acid
Q2) When the diet contains an adequate amount of protein, what amino acid can be used by the body to synthesize niacin?
A)Lysine
B)Valine
C)Tryptophan
D)Phenylalanine
E)Glycine
Q3) Research has shown that the risk for neural tube defects is lowered by taking supplements of A)niacin.
B)folate.
C)vitamin C.
D)vitamin B .
E)thiamin.
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Q1) The major function of vitamin E is to inhibit the destruction of A)lysosomes.
B)free radicals.
C)mucopolysaccharides.
D)polyunsaturated fatty acids.
E)monounsaturated fatty acids.
Q2) Because the body can derive vitamin A from both retinoids and carotenoids, its content in foods and its recommendations are expressed as ____________________.
Q3) Which of the following is responsible for transporting vitamin A from the liver to other tissues?
A)Albumin
B)Rhodopsin
C)Retinol-binding protein
D)Transcarotenoid protein
E)Ergocalciferol
Q4) The innermost membrane of the eye, composed of several layers, including one that contains the rods and cones is called the ____________________.
Q5) Discuss the adverse effects of free radicals.
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Q1) Discuss the role of physical activity in reducing the risk for osteoporosis.
Q2) As bones begin to form, calcium salts form crystals, called ____________________, on a matrix of the protein collagen.
Q3) Where is the majority of the body's magnesium found?
A)Bones
B)Teeth
C)Fatty tissue
D)Cells of soft tissue
E)Muscle
Q4) Which of the following is a feature of potassium supplements?
A)Can cause toxicity
B)Should always be taken with diuretics
C)Necessary in treatment of low blood pressure
D)Absorption of the mineral decreases markedly as intake increases
E)Are important to take during pregnancy
Q5) Define calcium rigor and calcium tetany. What role does dietary intake of calcium play in these disorders?
Q6) Deficiencies of ____________________, an oxidized form of a mineral, do not occur when diets contain protein.
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Q1) The active components in black tea and green tea associated with favorable effects on the cardiovascular system are A)quercetins. B)flavonoids.
C)resverotrols.
D)sulforaphones. E)luteins.
Q2) Goiter is caused primarily by a deficiency of A)iron.
B)zinc. C)iodine. D)selenium.
E)manganese.
Q3) The iron-storage protein ____________________ captures iron from food and stores it in the cells of the small intestine.
Q4) Discuss the effects of lead exposure on health and human performance.
Q5) When the body needs iron, it is released to an iron transport protein called
Q6) Discuss factors that influence the bioavailability of dietary iron.
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Q1) Why do many people and especially athletes believe in ergogenic aids?
Q2) What is the role of lactate in physical activity?
Q3) Which of the following is a characteristic of sports anemia?
A)It requires prolonged treatment.
B)It is a temporary condition requiring no treatment.
C)It responds to treatment only with high doses of iron.
D)It is due primarily to increased iron loss via perspiration.
E)It can progress to more severe forms of anemia if not treated.
Q4) Discuss the need for water in maintaining physical performance.
Q5) ____________________ are substances or treatments that purportedly improve athletic performance above and beyond what is possible through training.
Q6) Which of the following is a characteristic of fuel use by muscles?
A)At rest, about 90% of the fuel is derived from glucose.
B)At rest, about 90% of the fuel is derived from fat.
C)Muscles always use a mixture of fuels at rest or during physical activity.
D)During physical activity, amino acids contribute most of the fuel.
E)During the first 10 seconds of physical activity, the lactic acid system is the predominant source of energy.
Q7) Explain the meaning and significance of cardiorespiratory endurance.
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Q1) Usually, what is the first sign of preeclampsia?
A)Fall in blood pressure
B)Elevated blood glucose
C)A large weight gain over a short time
D)Chronic episodes of pica over the last 2 trimesters
E)Mental confusion
Q2) What is the benefit of postpartum amenorrhea?
A)It stimulates milk production.
B)It conserves iron in the mother.
C)It stimulates the let-down reflex.
D)It stimulates the suckling reflex in the infant.
E)It is a reliable form of birth control.
Q3) The number of extra kcalories per day needed to produce a normal supply of milk during the first six months of lactation is approximately A)100.
B)250.
C)500.
D)1000.
E)1500.
Q4) Define gestational diabetes and list risk factors. How is it managed?
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Q1) Which of the following is a feature of nutrition and behavior in children?
A)Hyperactivity responds favorably to a low-sugar diet.
B)The adverse effects from caffeine first appear only after drinking 6 cans of cola in one day.
C)Television commercials featuring snack foods have been found to affect children's food preferences.
D)Because most children are sensitive to the stimulating effects of caffeine, they are able to control their intake of cola beverages.
E)Research indicates a strong relationship between food dyes and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.
Q2) Infants fed honey or corn syrup are at increased risk for
A)protein malnutrition.
B)botulism.
C)osteopenia.
D)type 1 diabetes.
E)lead poisoning.
Q3) Describe the physical and mental effects of lead exposure on children.
Q4) What is the association between breastfeeding and body weight in later life?
Q5) Explain the feeding pattern of healthy breastfed infants.
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Q1) What was the average life expectancy of a person born in the year 1900?
A)47 years
B)55 years
C)61 years
D)68 years
E)71 years
Q2) What would be the physiological age of a 75-year-old woman whose physical health is equivalent to that of her 50-year-old daughter, whose physical health is average for her age?
A)25 years
B)50 years
C)70 years
D)125 years
Q3) The calcium Dietary Reference Intake for women 50 and older is
A)800 mg.
B)1000 mg.
C)1200 mg.
D)1400 mg.
E)1600 mg.
Q4) Explain the relationship between diet and arthritis treatment.
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Q1) The obstruction of a blood vessel by a clot that broke away from arterial plaque is termed
A)an anginism.
B)an embolism.
C)circulatory hypoxia.
D)a de-plaquing event.
E)plaque rupture.
Q2) ____________________ are large phagocytic cells that serve as scavengers of the blood, clearing it of old or abnormal cells, cellular debris, and antigens.
Q3) Approximately what proportion of people in the United States are believed to have hypertension?
A)1/10
B)1/5
C)1/4
D)1/3
E)1/2
Q4) Explain the defining features and significance of the metabolic syndrome.
Q5) Pain and pressure in the area around the heart is called ____________________.
Q6) Give four examples of the reported adverse effects of herbal therapy.
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Q1) Describe the use of alternatives to conventional chemical application for the control of agricultural pests.
Q2) Many countries restrict the varieties of commercially-grown lima beans due to the seed's content of A)cyanide. B)solanine.
C)goitrogens.
D)hallucinogens.
E)narcotic-like substances.
Q3) What is the minimum recommended safe temperature (°F) to heat leftovers?
A)140
B)152
C)165
D)180
E)212
Q4) ____________________ refers to the accumulation of contaminants in the flesh of animals high on the food chain.
Q5) What are the chief concerns with the use of antibiotics in livestock?
Q6) How does genetic engineering differ from traditional selective breeding?
Q7) Identify and describe the major categories of food additives.
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Q1) ____________________ is a paste made of local commodities such as peanut butter and powdered milk and fortified with vitamins and minerals and used to rehabilitate children with uncomplicated, severe acute malnutrition.
Q2) What is the chief reason why people living in poverty and hunger in the developing world bear numerous children?
A)Birth control expenses are prohibitive.
B)The children are less likely to survive to adulthood.
C)The low educational level of adults limits their understanding of family planning.
D)The parents seek greater fulfillment through having more children.
E)It is a cultural custom in those areas to have many children.
Q3) Discuss issues related to specific nutrient deficiencies in the developing world.
Q4) What is the largest federal food assistance program in the United States?
A)WIC
B)EAT
C)National Food Resource Program
D)Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
E)Senior Farmer's Market Program
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